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Medical Laboratory Science Pre-Test Questions - 386 Verified Questions

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Medical Laboratory Science

Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

Medical Laboratory Science is a multidisciplinary field focused on the analysis of biological specimens to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. This course introduces students to the principles and techniques used in clinical laboratories, including hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Emphasis is placed on laboratory safety, quality assurance, interpretation of test results, and the role of the medical laboratory scientist as a member of the healthcare team. Students will also explore ethical considerations, laboratory management, and technological advancements shaping modern diagnostic practices.

Recommended Textbook

Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

23 Chapters

386 Verified Questions

386 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1036 Page 2

Chapter 1: Cell Pathology

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20520

Sample Questions

Q1) Columnar bronchial epithelium irritated by chronic exposure to cigarette smoke changes into stratified squamous epithelium.This change is an example of:

A) Hypertrophy

B) Hyperplasia

C) Atrophy

D) Metaplasia

E) Degeneration

Answer: D

Q2) Enlargement of the heart caused by hypertension is a result of:

A) Hyperplasia

B) Hypertrophy

C) Atrophy

D) Metaplasia

E) Dysplasia

Answer: B

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Inflammation

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20521

Sample Questions

Q1) Release of histamine at the site of inflammation causes:

A) Increased vascular permeability

B) Decreased vascular permeability

C) Accumulation of neutrophils

D) Accumulation of platelets

E) Activation of the complement system

Answer: A

Q2) Hypertrophic scars are called:

A) Granuloma

B) Granulation tissue

C) Proud flesh

D) Keloid

E) Dehiscence

Answer: D

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4

Chapter 3: Immunopathology

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20522

Sample Questions

Q1) Antibodies are produced by:

A) B lymphocytes

B) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes

C) Monocytes

D) Plasma cells

E) Eosinophils

Answer: D

Q2) All the following are considered autoimmune diseases except:

A) Systemic lupus erythematosus

B) Multiple sclerosis

C) Primary biliary cirrhosis

D) Pemphigus vulgaris

E) AIDS

Answer: E

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Neoplasia

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20523

Sample Questions

Q1) Teratomas originate from:

A) Germ cells of the ovary

B) Brain cells

C) Thyroid cells

D) Endocrine cells of the pancreas

E) Fallopian tubes

Q2) Workers employed in the chemical industry and exposed to high levels of aniline dyes are at increased risk of developing cancer of the:

A) Brain

B) Lung

C) Stomach

D) Urinary bladder

E) Testis

Q3) Many tumors secrete their own growth factors.This form of stimulation is called:

A) Autocrine

B) Heterocrine

C) Paracrine

D) Endocrine

E) Exocrine

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20524

Sample Questions

Q1) All the following are routinely used in prenatal diagnosis except:

A) Ultrasound

B) Chorionic villus biopsy

C) Fetal skin biopsy

D) Amniotic fluid analysis

E) Maternal blood analysis

Q2) Dilatation of lateral ventricles of the brain found in TORCH syndrome is called:

A) Microphthalmia

B) Chorioretinitis

C) Hydrocephalus

D) Cataract

E) Vesicles

Q3) Children born with a fragile X chromosome suffer from:

A) Muscle weakness

B) Blindness

C) Spinal cord deformities

D) Mental retardation

E) Glucose intolerance

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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20525

Sample Questions

Q1) Pulmonary edema is a typical complication of:

A) Right-sided heart failure

B) Left-sided heart failure

C) Pulmonary saddle embolus

D) Cor pulmonale

E) Pulmonary fibrosis

Q2) Abscess is a complication of:

A) Septic embolism

B) Marantic endocarditis

C) Air embolism

D) Fat embolism

E) Pulmonary saddle embolism

Q3) Clinically significant emboli are most often composed of:

A) Air

B) Amniotic fluid

C) Foreign particulate material

D) Fat

E) Thrombi

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8

Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20526

Sample Questions

Q1) Atherosclerotic aneurysms are most often located in the:

A) Coronary arteries

B) Ascending aorta

C) Thoracic aorta

D) Abdominal aorta

E) Iliac arteries

Q2) Myocardial infarction is accompanied by typical biochemical changes.Elevation of which enzyme in the blood occurs first after the occlusion of a coronary artery?

A) Alanine aminotransferase

B) Aspartate aminotransferase

C) Creatine kinase

D) Lactate dehydrogenase

E) Acid phosphatase

Q3) The most common form of arterial hypertension is considered to be:

A) Essential or idiopathic

B) Caused by kidney disease

C) Caused by adrenal cortical hyperactivity

D) Secondary to adrenal medullar tumors

E) Secondary to the narrowing of the aorta

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Page 9

Chapter 8: The Respiratory System

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20527

Sample Questions

Q1) Coal-workers' lung disease is best classified as:

A) Asbestosis

B) Pneumoconiosis

C) Acute hypersensitivity reaction

D) Chronic hypersensitivity reaction

E) Chronic bacterial pneumonitis

Q2) Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by:

A) Granuloma formation

B) Abscess formation

C) Lobar pneumonia

D) Acute bronchitis

E) Acute bronchiolitis

Q3) Fibrin-rich hyaline membranes and protein-rich intra-alveolar edema are features of:

A) Atelectasis

B) Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD)in adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

C) Emphysema

D) Bronchiectasis

E) Aspiration pneumonia

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Page 10

Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20528

Sample Questions

Q1) Thalassemia minor is a disease involving the gene that encodes:

A) Globin chains of hemoglobin

B) The heme portion of hemoglobin

C) The iron-binding portion of hemoglobin

D) The porphyrin ring of hemoglobin

E) Bilirubin synthetase

Q2) Microcytic hypochromic anemia with low hemosiderin stores in the bone marrow will respond favorably to treatment with:

A) Vitamin C

B) Vitamin B 2

C) Folic acid

D) Iron

E) Selenium

Q3) Sickle cell hemoglobin is routinely identified in the laboratory by:

A) Polarized light microscopy

B) Electron microscopy

C) Electrophoresis

D) Immunochemistry

E) Electron spin microscopy

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Page 11

Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20529

Sample Questions

Q1) Atrophic gastritis is characterized by:

A) Xerostomia

B) Achlorhydria

C) Gastric hyperacidity

D) Achalasia

E) Reflux esophagitis

Q2) The most common viral cause of sialadenitis is:

A) Herpesvirus

B) Measles virus

C) Mumps virus

D) Cytomegalovirus

E) Epstein-Barr virus

Q3) Bacteriologically sterile peritonitis is a complication of:

A) Ruptured gastric ulcer

B) Gangrene of the large intestine

C) Gonococcal salpingitis

D) Acute pancreatitis

E) Acute appendicitis

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Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20530

Sample Questions

Q1) Overall,the most common cause of cirrhosis in the United States is:

A) Viral infection

B) Alcohol abuse

C) Drug abuse

D) Immune hepatitis

E) Extrahepatic obstruction

Q2) In chronic liver failure there is a marked decrease of blood:

A) Hemoglobin

B) Bilirubin

C) Immunoglobulin G

D) Immunoglobulin M

E) Albumin

Q3) Which of the following hepatitis viruses is currently the most common cause of cirrhosis in the United States?

A) HAV

B) HBV

C) HCV

D) HDV

E) HEV

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Page 13

Chapter 12: The Pancreas

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20531

Sample Questions

Q1) Chronic pancreatitis is:

A) More common than acute pancreatitis

B) More common in males than in females

C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis

D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis

E) More common in children than in adults

Q2) Which of the following is most typical of diabetes mellitus?

A) Oliguria

B) Anuria

C) Polyuria

D) Proteinuria

E) Cylindruria

Q3) Which component of the pancreatic juices acts as a buffer and neutralizes the acidity of the gastric juice?

A) Amylase

B) Lipase

C) Peptidase

D) Gastrin

E) Bicarbonate

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Page 14

Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20532

Sample Questions

Q1) Hypertension of chronic kidney disease is medicated with:

A) Erythropoietin

B) Antidiuretic hormone

C) Renin

D) Calcitonin

E) Adrenalin

Q2) All the following findings are typical of membranous nephropathy except:

A) Proteinuria

B) Pyuria

C) Hypoalbuminemia

D) Edema

E) Deposits of immunoglobulin G in the glomeruli

Q3) All the following are renal complications of diabetes except:

A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis

B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease)

C) Arteriolar hyalinosis

D) Papillary necrosis

E) Crescentic glomerulonephritis

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15

Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20533

Sample Questions

Q1) The most common cause of prostatic enlargement in 60- to 70-year-old men is:

A) Prostatitis

B) Urethral obstruction

C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia

D) Prostatic adenoma

E) Prostatic carcinoma

Q2) Which of the following is a typical feature of secondary syphilis?

A) Penile ulcer

B) Chancre on the prepuce

C) Condyloma latum

D) Aortic aneurysm

E) Tabes dorsalis

Q3) Most carcinomas of the prostate:

A) Present with symptoms of cystitis

B) Present early in their course with urinary obstruction

C) Invade early into the urethra

D) Occur in the peripheral part (posterior lobe)of the prostate

E) Tend to secrete androgens

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16

Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20534

Sample Questions

Q1) Inflammation of the fallopian tubes is called:

A) Cervicitis

B) Endometritis

C) Salpingitis

D) Oophoritis

E) Vulvovaginitis

Q2) More than 50% of all cases of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)contain intranuclear inclusions of:

A) Gardnerella vaginalis

B) Herpes simplex virus type 1

C) Herpes simplex virus type 2

D) Human papillomavirus

E) Treponema pallidum

Q3) Vaginal "spotting" (mild bleeding)after intercourse is most often seen in women who have:

A) Carcinoma of the vulva

B) Carcinoma of the cervix

C) Carcinoma of the ovary

D) Uterine leiomyoma

E) Carcinoma of the fallopian tube

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Chapter 16: The Breast

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20535

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who was diagnosed with a stage I breast cancer,with no metastases,underwent a lumpectomy.Her chances of surviving 5 years are:

A) 0%

B) 10%

C) 25%

D) 50%

E) 80%

Q2) Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of breast masses has an accuracy of:

A) 100%

B) 95%

C) 75%

D) 50%

E) 25%

Q3) Which of the following is the most common histologic type of breast carcinoma?

A) Medullary carcinoma

B) Mucinous carcinoma

C) Infiltrating duct carcinoma

D) Lobular carcinoma

E) Tubular carcinoma

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Page 18

Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20536

Sample Questions

Q1) Acromegaly is typically produced by tumors of the:

A) Pituitary

B) Thyroid

C) Parathyroid

D) Adrenals

E) Testis

Q2) The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is:

A) Pituitary adenoma

B) Parathyroid adenoma

C) Parathyroid hyperplasia

D) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

E) Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome

Q3) ACTH,which is normally produced by pituitary cells,can also be produced by cells of a(n):

A) Brain tumor

B) Adrenal tumor

C) Carcinoma of the thyroid

D) Small-cell carcinoma of the lung

E) Ovarian carcinoma

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Page 19

Chapter 18: The Skin

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20537

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following neoplastic lesions originates in the dermis rather than in the epidermis?

A) Basal cell carcinoma

B) Squamous cell carcinoma

C) Actinic keratosis

D) Dermatofibroma

E) Seborrheic keratosis

Q2) Which of the following pigmented lesions has the highest propensity to progress to malignant melanoma?

A) Ephelis

B) Lentigo

C) Dermal nevus

D) Blue nevus

E) Dysplastic nevus

Q3) Prolonged suntanning causes:

A) Ulcers

B) Accelerated aging of the skin

C) Furuncles

D) Carbuncles

E) Psoriasis

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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20538

Sample Questions

Q1) Osteogenesis imperfecta is an inborn error in the synthesis of:

A) Collagen type I

B) Collagen type II

C) Collagen type III

D) Phosphate crystals

E) Basement membranes

Q2) The central ("midshaft")portion of long bones is called:

A) Epiphysis

B) Metaphysis

C) Diaphysis

D) Physis

E) Anapophysis

Q3) Osteosarcomas most often arise in the bones of the:

A) Skull

B) Vertebrae

C) Fingers

D) Toes

E) Knee

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21

Chapter 20: Muscles

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20539

Sample Questions

Q1) The most common histologic type of soft tissue sarcoma in adults is:

A) Liposarcoma

B) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

C) Rhabdomyosarcoma

D) Leiomyosarcoma

E) Synovial sarcoma

Q2) Symptoms of muscle weakness in Duchenne-type dystrophy begin in:

A) Preschool children

B) Elementary school children

C) High school children

D) College-level teenagers

E) Adults

Q3) Which of the following muscular dystrophies involves the same gene as Duchenne-type dystrophy?

A) Becker's dystrophy

B) Limb-girdle dystrophy

C) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy

D) Myotonic dystrophy

E) Werdnig-Hoffmann disease

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Page 22

Chapter 21: The Nervous System

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20540

Sample Questions

Q1) If a normal person has blood concentration of glucose of 100 mg/dL,the concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid will be:

A) 0-10 mg/dL

B) 50 mg/dL

C) 100 mg/dL

D) 200 mg/dL

E) Unpredictable

Q2) Axons are cytoplasmic extensions of:

A) Astrocytes

B) Oligodendroglia cells

C) Microglia cells

D) Neurons

E) Ependymal cells

Q3) Tabes dorsalis is characterized by:

A) Atrophy in frontal (motor)cortex

B) Atrophy of basal ganglia

C) Hypertrophy of putamen

D) Atrophy of anterior horns of the spinal cord

E) Atrophy of the posterior columns of the spinal cord

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Page 23

Chapter 22: The Eye

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20541

Sample Questions

Q1) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:

A) CMV

B) Herpesvirus

C) Mumps virus

D) Influenza virus

E) Human papillomavirus

Q2) The sensory innermost layer of the eye composed of rods and cones is called:

A) Iris

B) Cornea

C) Sclera

D) Retina

E) Choroid

Q3) A primary malignant tumor of the eye in a 3-month-old child is most likely a:

A) Melanoma

B) Basal cell carcinoma

C) Squamous cell carcinoma

D) Retinoblastoma

E) Glioblastoma

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24

Chapter 23: The Ear

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20542

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following tumors may cause vertigo?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle

B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear

C) Schwannoma of the VIII nerve

D) Neurilemoma of the VII nerve

E) Pituitary adenoma

Q2) Sensory hearing loss may be a consequence of:

A) Perforation of tympanic membrane

B) Infection of the external auditory canal

C) Cholesteatoma

D) Noise trauma

E) Laceration of the auricle

Q3) Sensory hearing loss of unknown etiology that affects elderly persons is called:

A) Glaucoma

B) Otosclerosis

C) Presbycusis

D) Ménière's disease

E) Vertigo

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