Medical Laboratory Science
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the analysis of bodily fluids and tissues to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. This course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of laboratory techniques, instrumentation, and quality assurance essential for performing clinical tests. Topics include clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics, with an emphasis on laboratory safety, ethical practices, and the interpretation of laboratory data. Students gain both theoretical knowledge and practical skills necessary for a career in hospital laboratories, research settings, and public health environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns
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21 Chapters
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Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Q1) All of the following statements about the innate immune system are true except
A)Acts within minutes or hours of exposure to an infectious organism
B)Includes anatomic and cellular defenses
C)Includes humoral and microbiological defenses
D)Is adaptive
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are true about the classical pathway except
A)Begins with formation of C1 from C1q,C1r,and C1s molecules
B)Consists of C5b and C6-C9
C)Is regulated by two mechanisms in the fluid phase
D)Is regulated on cell surfaces with complement control proteins
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about the lectin pathway?
A)Involves a recognition unit and an activation phase
B)Is activated in an antibody-independent fashion
C)Is usually triggered by an immunoglobulin-antigen complex
D)Primarily responds to charged and neutral sugars
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Q1) Which of the following resulted in the determination of over 99% of the nucleotide sequences in the human genome?
A)DNA microarrays
B)Hardy-Weinberg equation
C)Human Genome Project
D)Knowledge of PCR
Answer: C
Q2) The sex cells,either eggs or sperm,are ________ in humans,meaning that they contain one copy of each chromosome rather than two.
A)complementary
B)haploid
C)homologous
D)linear
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody Reactions
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Q1) When the body first encounters a foreign antigen,a primary immune response is stimulated.One of the residual effects of the primary response is the retention of which memory cells?
A)B
B)D
C)X
D)Y
Answer: A
Q2) Antibody screen tests must include an incubation step at what temperature,which is the optimal reaction temperature for IgG antibodies?
A)39.2° F (4° C)
B)71.6° F (22° C)
C)91.4° F (33° C)
D)98.6° F (37° C)
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Q1) The most common ABO blood group is group
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
Q2) Which gene is an amorph,meaning no functional gene product is produced from this sequence of DNA?
A)A
B)B
C)H
D)O
Q3) The red blood cells of the Bombay phenotype appear to be group ____ in routine ABO testing.
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Q1) The way that anti-D reagents were historically formulated to allow agglutination without the antiglobulin phase was to add what percentage of protein?
A)5-10%
B)10-20%
C)20-24%
D)22-30%
Q2) In people of European ethnicity,the most common Rh(D)-positive phenotype is ___ and the most common Rh(D)-negative phenotype is ____.
A)R1R1,r'r'
B)R2R2,r''r''
C)R1R2,r'r''
D)R1r,rr
Q3) The Ce antigen is present when C and e are found in the ____ position.
A)cis
B)co-dominant
C)null
D)trans
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Q1) Within the Knops blood group system,all of the following are high-incidence antigens except A)Kna
B)McCa
C)McCb
D)Yka
Q2) The Xg antigen results from a gene on the ____ chromosome.
A)X
B)Y
C)XG
D)YG
Q3) Which antigen is one of the antigens in the ISBT classification called Series 901?
A)Bga
B)Knb
C)Sda
D)Tcc
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Q1) A type and screen includes all of the following tests except
A)ABO group
B)Antibody screen
C)Patient cell phenotype
D)Rh(D)type
Q2) Issue of uncrossmatched red blood cells is defined as
A)ABO group has not been determined
B)Antibody identification has not been completed
C)Rh type has not been determined
D)Some or all required testing has not been completed
Q3) In order for patients to give informed consent,they must first
A)be educated about the risks and benefits
B)be scheduled for an appointment
C)have a diagnosis
D)sign a waiver
Q4) When blood components are ordered all of the following are true except
A)Name of the physician placing the order must be indicated
B)Orders should be placed to ensure sufficient time to perform complete testing
C)Requests must include the number and type of components required
D)Requests must only be made using a written request form
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Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigen is destroyed by ficin?
A)D
B)C
C)Fy
D)Jk
Q2) What is the most common sulfhydryl reagent used in transfusion medicine?
A)Bromelin
B)Chymotrypsin
C)Dithiothreitol
D)Papain
Q3) What test is used to determine the phenotype of red blood cells?
A)Antigen typing
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Molecular typing
D)Reflex test
Q4) Which method is preferred for removing autoantibodies?
A)Autologous absorption
B)Allogenic absorption
C)Cutaneous absorption
D)Pathologic absorption
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations publishes Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services?
A)AABB (American Association of Blood Banks)
B)ARC (American Red Cross)
C)CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)
D)FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
Q2) Which medication would result in a permanent donor deferral?
A)Accutane©
B)Avodart©
C)Proscar©
D)Tegison©
Q3) In most states,donors who are at least ___ years of age can donate without parental consent.
A)16
B)17
C)18
D)21
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Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment
of Blood Components
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Q1) To produce cryoprecipitated antihemophiliac factor,fresh frozen plasma is thawed at what temperature?
A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)
B)33.8-50° F (1-10° C)
C)64.4-71.6° F (18-22° C)
D)95-100.4° F (35-38° C)
Q2) On average,whole blood has a minimum hematocrit of
A)38% (0.38)
B)50% (0.50)
C)65% (0.65)
D)80% (0.80)
Q3) In which country is the platelet-rich plasma method mostly widely used?
A)Brazil
B)Canada
C)United Kingdom
D)United States
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Q1) What gauge of needle is typically used for blood transfusions?
A)18
B)21
C)23
D)25
Q2) Which of the following do hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)donors routinely receive prior to donation?
A)Desmopressin
B)G-CSF
C)Recombinant EPO
D)Recombinant TPO
Q3) Which method might be used to decrease the risk of transfusion-associated cytomegalovirus (CMV)transmission?
A)Freezing
B)Irradiation
C)Leukoreduction
D)Washing
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Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Q1) Which of the following defines hyperhemoloysis?
A)The patient's red blood cells are destroyed in addition to transfused donor cells.
B)The patient's white blood cells are destroyed in addition to transfused donor cells.
C)The presence of hemoglobin in the patient's urine.
D)The presence of free hemoglobin in the patient's plasma.
Q2) Fever is a common symptom in which types of transfusion reactions?
A)Acute hemolytic,allergic,febrile nonhemolytic
B)Acute hemolytic,febrile nonhemolytic,transfusion-related acute lung injury
C)Allergic,febrile nonhemolytic,transfusion-associated circulatory overload
D)Anaphylactic,febrile nonhemolytic,transfusion-related immunomodulation
Q3) Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)is a rare complication of transfusion,but the mortality rate is approximately
A)75%
B)80%
C)85%
D)90%
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Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is a fatal neurological disease whose causative agent may be transmitted by transfusion of human blood?
A)CJD
B)vCJD
C)CWD
D)FSE
Q2) Nucleic acid amplification-based testing (NAT)reduced the window period for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)to approximately how many days?
A)12
B)14
C)16
D)22
Q3) One of the peak times of transmission of the West Nile virus is
A)Early spring
B)Late spring
C)Early fall
D)Late fall
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Q1) Which statement about the direct antiglobulin test (DAT)in the postpartum period is true?
A)If the DAT on a cord blood specimen is positive,an eLu te should always be prepared and tested against the biological father's red blood cells.
B)If the mother has a clinically significant antibody,a DAT should be performed on a blood specimen from the newborn.
C)Laboratory standards mandate that a DAT be performed on cord blood collected from every live birth.
D)The strength of the DAT in cases of ABO compatibility is indicative of the severity of the hemolytic process.
Q2) How can pregnancy cause a woman to make an antibody to a red blood cell antigen?
A)Fetal cells carrying an antigen inherited from the mother and foreign to the father cross the placenta
B)Fetal cells carrying an antigen inherited from the father and foreign to the mother cross the placenta
C)Fetal cells carrying a homozygous dose of an antigen cross the placenta
D)Fetal cells carrying a heterozygous dose of an antigen cross the placenta
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Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic Anemias
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Q1) Which is used as the primary means for determining whether immune-mediated destruction of red blood cells is contributing to a patient's anemia?
A)Antigen typing test
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Donath-Landsteiner test
D)Indirect antiglobulin test
Q2) What is the most common underlying etiology of cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)?
A)Autoimmune conditions
B)Bacterial or viral infections
C)Lymphoproliferative disorders
D)Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q3) Typical antihuman globulin reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test (DAT)may be directed against all of the following except
A)IgG only
B)IgM only
C)C3b and C3d
D)IgG,C3b,and C3d
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Q1) An advantage of platelet crossmatching is
A)the immediate availability of compatible units
B)the fact that it decreases the overall transfusion time
C)that platelets have a shelf-life of 5 days
D)that crossmatched platelets perform better than high-grade HLA-matched products
Q2) All of the following are factors that influence alloimmunization except
A)Antigen dose
B)Consumption rate
C)Immune status
D)Prior exposure
Q3) Currently how many human platelet antigens (HPAs)have been identified?
A)12
B)18
C)24
D)32
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Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Q1) Red blood cell and platelet transfusions are used as supportive therapy in patients who have undergone a hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant until when?
A)Chemotherapy is complete
B)CMV reactivation occurs
C)Engraftment occurs
D)Factor levels reach 70%
Q2) What is the goal of plasmapheresis in patients who will be receiving an
ABO-incompatible kidney transplant?
A)Decrease white blood cell count
B)Decrease hemagglutinin titers
C)Increase haptoglobin
D)Increase hemoglobin
Q3) Which of the following is a self-limited process that subsides with donor lymphocyte death?
A)Graft versus host disease
B)Hyperacute rejection
C)Iron overload
D)Passenger lymphocyte syndrome
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Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Q1) When matching a recipient and donor for hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant,how many alleles should be identified in the donor and recipient?
A)8
B)10
C)12
D)16
Q2) All of the following are true about HLA class I molecules except A)Are expressed only on antigen presenting cells
B)Includes a 45 kDa glycoprotein heavy chain
C)Includes a 12 kDa -2 microglobulin light chain
D)Has a peptide-binding cleft that reacts with short peptides
Q3) Which chromosome carries the genes for the HLA system?
A)1
B)3 C)6
D)9
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Q1) Mendel's laws of genetics requires ________ of the alleles in the child's sample to be traceable to each parent.
A)one-half
B)one-third
C)one-quarter
D)one-sixth
Q2) How many loci are included in the core loci originally defined by the FBI for use in identification of individuals by genetic testing?
A)9
B)13
C)15
D)18
Q3) In what year were DNA typing procedures incorporated into parentage testing standards?
A)1953
B)1967
C)1985
D)1992
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Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Q1) All deaths in the United States that are related to blood donation or blood transfusion must be reported to
A)CBER
B)CMS
C)FDA
D)NIH
Q2) Which organization represents one of the most common voluntary accreditations that apply to medical laboratories?
A)American Association of Bioanalysts
B)American Medical Technologists
C)Board of Certification of the American Society of Clinical Pathologists
D)College of American Pathologists
Q3) Which code of federal regulations contains the rules for blood product safety?
A)CFR title 10
B)CFR title 21
C)CFR title 29
D)CFR title 42
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Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a quality assurance activity?
A)Trend analysis
B)Strategic planning
C)Vendor selection
D)Visual inspection
Q2) Which agency is responsible for regulating transfusion services in the United States?
A)AABB
B)CAP
C)FDA
D)JCAHO
Q3) All of the following are true about quality control except
A)acceptable results or ranges must be predetermined
B)frequency and method for performance is determined by the manufacturer's requirements and/or regulatory or accreditation requirements
C)results must be documented within 7 days
D)routinely includes testing a specified number of each type of component when monitoring blood component production processes
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