Medical Laboratory Science
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field that equips students with the knowledge and skills required to perform diagnostic tests essential for detecting, diagnosing, and treating diseases. The course covers fundamental topics such as clinical biochemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics, integrating theoretical instruction with practical laboratory experience. Students learn to operate sophisticated laboratory equipment, adhere to quality control standards, and interpret laboratory findings in a healthcare setting. Graduates are prepared to play a vital role in patient care by ensuring the accuracy and reliability of laboratory test results used by healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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1728 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first cells appeared about ___ billion years ago.
A)5
B)4
C)3.5
D)2
E)1.5
Answer: C
Q2) The term sterile means free of all life forms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's five kingdoms.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature to encourage growth.
A)streaked
B)poured
C)incubated
D)contaminated
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is
A)bright field.
B)dark field.
C)phase contrast.
D)fluorescence.
E)electron.
Answer: B
Q3) Bacterial cultures are easily identified from their microscopic appearance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The site(s)for most ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is(are)the A)ribosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)cell wall.
D)inclusions.
E)cell membrane.
Answer: E
Q2) The cell _____ can be composed of three layers: the cytoplasmic membrane,the cell wall,and the outer membrane.
A)glycocalyx
B)envelope
C)pathogenic package
D)slime coat
E)None of the choices is correct.
Answer: B
Q3) The slime layer provides bacteria greater pathogenicity as compared to the capsule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?
A)in kingdom Protista
B)parasitic worms
C)eggs and sperm used for reproduction
D)often alternate hosts in complex life cycles
E)have various organ systems
Q2) Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parasitic worms have a highly developed ______ system.
A)digestive
B)nervous
C)respiratory
D)muscular
E)reproductive
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the Harters leave for the hospital,you recall the challenges and limitations researching animal viruses such as RSV.Which of the following is not utilized in the cultivation of animal viruses?
A)bacterial cells
B)embryonated chicken eggs
C)cultured animal cells
D)live animals such as mice
Q2) A bacterium acquiring a new trait from a bacteriophage is a phenomenon called A)the cytopathic effect.
B)lytic conversion.
C)lysogenic conversion.
D)in vitro cultivation.
Q3) Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A)latent.
B)oncogenic.
C)prions.
D)viroids.
E)delta agents.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers?
A)relaxation of arterial smooth muscle
B)relaxation of venous smooth muscle
C)relaxation of venous smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction
D)relaxation of arterial smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction
Q2) You are preparing to administer hypertonic saline.Which of the following solutions would you expect the physician to order to produce the desired physiological effect in the patient?
A)0.45% sodium chloride
B)0.9% sodium chloride
C)0.9% sodium chloride with dextrose
D)3% sodium chloride
Q3) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO<sub>2</sub> environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fermentation process always produces alcohol as at least one of its products.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biochemical testing reveals that the organism further reduces nitrite to produce nitrous oxide.Based upon this by-product,which of the following is the most likely catabolic pathway utilized by this organism?
A)aerobic respiration
B)anaerobic respiration
C)fermentation
D)Aerobic and anaerobic respiration,as well as fermentation,can all lead to the production of nitrous oxide
Q3) Based upon knowledge of enzymes and metabolic processes,which of the following outcomes would you educate the parents to expect if the deficiency is not treated?
A)no effect on the patient's health
B)reduced immunity in adulthood in the patient
C)mildly impaired vision in the patient
D)permanent damage to organ systems and/or death of the patient
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription.
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA polymerase III
C)RNA polymerase
D)mRNA
E)rRNA
Q2) Geneticists can make complimentary DNA from messenger,transfer,and ribosomal RNA by using A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptase.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
Q3) A permanent,inheritable change in the genetic information is called A)translation.
B)transcription.
C)mutation.
D)alteration.
E)regeneration.
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) While preparing to insert the urinary catheter,the patient moves her leg and touches the sterile field.What is the most appropriate action for you to take as the RN?
A)continue the procedure and place the catheter appropriately.
B)clean the catheter with alcohol,and then continue the procedure.
C)discard the sterile field and obtain new supplies.
D)clean the catheter with iodine,and then continue the procedure.
Q2) Microbicidal agents are sterilants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ionizing radiation is more effective than nonionizing radiation in killing microbes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Placing organisms at 4<sup>o</sup>C is
A)bacteriocidal.
B)bacteriostatic.
C)decontamination.
D)sterilization.
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is better to use a broad-spectrum drug instead of a more specific narrow-spectrum drug.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the lab,the urine specimen is spread on an agar plate with antibiotic discs placed to determine antimicrobial susceptibility.Following incubation,the clear area around each disc is measured.What term describes the observed area of antimicrobial action around each disc?
A)zone of inhibition
B)zone of susceptibility
C)zone of resistance
D)antibiogram
Q3) Which newer synthetic drug is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections?
A)synercid
B)clindamycin
C)linezolid
D)azithromycin
E)clarithromycin
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are diligent to prevent the spread of disease to other patients.Which of the following is the most appropriate type of isolation for this patient,considering the portal of exit for the pathogen in this case?
A)standard isolation (gloves)
B)contact isolation (gown and gloves)
C)droplet isolation (gown,gloves,and mask)
D)airborne isolation (gown,gloves,mask,and negative airflow room)
Q2) Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?
A)fomites
B)water
C)droplet nuclei
D)aerosols
E)droplets
Q3) Which of the following is not a method of adhesion?
A)fimbriae
B)surface proteins
C)specialized receptors
D)adhesive slime or capsules
E)cilia
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body.
A)heat
B)pain
C)chill
D)sweat
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit,groin,and neck?
A)lymph nodes
B)thymus
C)spleen
D)GALT
E)tonsils
Q3) At this phase of injury,how would you expect the area surrounding the injury to present?
A)cool and blue
B)pink,warm,and dry
C)red and hot
D)dusky,gray,and clammy
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antigen-presenting cells
A)include dendritic cells.
B)include macrophages.
C)engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
D)hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response
Q3) The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clonal selection can be stimulated by foreign or self antigens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)food allergy - type I hypersensitivity
B)poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity
C)serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity
D)transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity
E)hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
Q2) A viral infection can cause type I diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n)
A)isograft.
B)autograft.
C)allograft.
D)xenograft.
E)hypograft.
Q4) Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In precipitation tests,the antigen
A)is a soluble molecule.
B)is an insoluble molecule.
C)is a whole cell.
D)antibody complex settles to the bottom of the tube.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Which test is used to confirm scarlet fever?
A)ELISA
B)Western blot
C)Widal test
D)complement fixation
E)antistreptolysin O
Q3) Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tuberculin test is an example of an in vitro serological test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage.
A)croup
B)mumps
C)influenza
D)measles (rubeola)
E)rubella
Q3) The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
A)smallpox
B)herpes simplex
C)vaccinia
D)herpes virus 6
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) Herpesviruses are double-stranded,nonenveloped DNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about rabies?
A)is a zoonotic disease
B)wild populations of bats,skunks,raccoons,cats,and canines are primary reservoirs
C)transmission can involve bites,scratches,and inhalation
D)average incubation in human is 1 week
E)symptoms include anxiety,agitation,muscle spasms,convulsions,and paralysis
Q2) Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
A)Listeria monocytogenes
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Neisseria meningitidis
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
E)Streptococcus agalactiae
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the
A)pia mater.
B)dura mater.
C)subarachnoid space.
D)arachnoid mater.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect regarding Q fever?
A)transmitted by lice
B)pathogen produces resistant spores
C)humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread
D)causes fever,muscle aches,rash,and sometimes pneumonia
E)is a zoonosis
Q2) The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream.
A)Viremia
B)Fungemia
C)Hemovirus
D)Bacteremia
E)Septicemia
Q4) A vaccine for Lyme disease is available.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common causative agent of otitis media is
A)Aspergillus fumigatus.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Corynebacterium.
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Q2) An induration of less than 5 mm in the Mantoux test is negative for TB.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You come to work the next day to find the laboratory report on your patient.It concludes that the child was infected with influenza B virus.The physician has left you a message to call in a script for which medication for the child?
A)amantadine
B)rimantadine
C)acyclovir
D)oseltamivir
Q4) A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helicobacter pylori causes A)gastritis.
B)duodenal ulcers.
C)stomach ulcers.
D)increased risk for stomach cancer.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) General symptoms of helminth infection include all of the following except A)eggs,larvae,or adult worms found in feces.
B)increased sensitivity to helminth antigens.
C)intense abdominal pain.
D)increased eosinophil count.
E)vague nausea.
Q3) Which is true of Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?
A)Y.pseudotuberculosis causes tuberculosis.
B)They cause intense pain from inflammation of the ileum.
C)They cause Guillain-Barre syndrome.
D)They are gram positive.
E)They do not cause fever.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections?
A)Proteus mirabilis
B)Schistosoma haematobium
C)Treponema pallidum
D)group B Streptococcus
E)Gardnerella
Q2) Leptospirosis
A)has only humans as a reservoir.
B)is communicable.
C)can be contracted from the environment.
D)is strictly transmitted by sexual contact.
E)is contracted by the fecal-oral route.
Q3) Group B streptococcal infections can cause serious infections in infants through vertical transmission.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chlamydias can cross the placenta and cause intrauterine infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: One Health: The Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Q1) Which is the first step in water purification?
A)chlorination
B)aeration and settling
C)sedimentation
D)storage
E)filtration
Q2) As wastewater moves through the wastewater treatment process,its biological oxygen demand increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Potable water is
A)contaminated.
B)polluted.
C)safe to drink.
D)foul tasting.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) The decomposition that occurs in a sanitary landfill is largely
A)aerobic
B)anaerobic
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