Medical Laboratory Science
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field focused on the analysis of biological specimens to assist in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. Students in this course gain a comprehensive understanding of laboratory techniques, instrumentation, and safety procedures while studying key disciplines such as clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. The curriculum emphasizes both theoretical foundations and hands-on laboratory experience, preparing graduates for roles in clinical laboratories, research, and public health environments. Emphasis is also placed on developing skills in data interpretation, quality assurance, and ethical conduct within the healthcare setting.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology Serology in Laboratory Medicine 5th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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33 Chapters
851 Verified Questions
851 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Overview of Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) B lymphocytes respond to:
A) antigens presented on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell.
B) antigens on microorganisms or other living cells.
C) native antigenic determinants of appropriate fit.
D) antigens floating in body fluids.
Answer: C
Q2) The immune system has distinctive characteristics,such as specificity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) An early form of immunization was practiced by the:
A) Romans.
B) Greeks.
C) Chinese.
D) Native Americans.
Answer: C
Q4) The immune system has distinctive characteristics,such as immobility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specificity
A)Noncovalent combination of antigen with its respective specific antibody
B)Functional combining strength of an antibody with its antigen
C)Initial force of attraction that exists between a single Fab site on an antibody molecule and a single epitope on the corresponding antigen
D)A portion of antibodies directed against one type of antigen will also react with another type of antigen.
E)Ability of a particular antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another
Answer: E
Q2) An antigenic determinant:
A) is a specific chemical or molecular configuration against which the immune response is directed.
B) can result in the production of antiimmunoglobulins.
C) can result in the production of antiglobulins.
D) all of the above..
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Granulocytes and Mononuclear Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gaucher's disease
A)Deficiency of sphingomyelinase
B)Deficiency of a-glucocerebrosidase
Answer: B
Q2) The name of the structure formed within a phagocytic cell by the fusion of an engulfed (phagocytized)particle and enzymatic granules is a:
A) vacuole.
B) cyst.
C) phagosome.
D) phagolysosome.
Answer: C
Q3) Basophil
A)Principal leukocyte associated with phagocytosis
B)High concentrations of heparin and histamine
C)Homeostatic regulator of inflammation
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Lymphocytes and Plasma Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone marrow
A)Primary
B)Secondary
Q2) Functions of an activated T lymphocyte include:
A) proliferation and differentiation.
B) production of cytokines.
C) development of effector function.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes,or T cytotoxic (Tc)cells
A)Effector cells that can directly destroy virally infected target cells
B)Downregulate the actions of other T and B cells
C)Relatively high avidity for self-antigens
Q4) Regulatory T (Treg)
A)Play a greater role in the regulation of antibody production and the release of cytokines required for B cell differentiation
B)Responsible for cell-mediated effector mechanisms
C)An immunoregulatory type of Th cells
Q5) Lymph nodes
A)Primary
B)Secondary
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Chapter 5: Soluble Mediators of the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons:
A) are the principal mediator of the acute inflammatory response to gram-negative bacteria.
B) mediate interactions between leukocytes.
C) mediate the early immune response to viral infections.
D) stimulate cell differentiation.
Q2) The measurement of C-reactive protein (CRP)can be used for all the following except:
A) monitoring healing after acute myocardial infarction.
B) monitoring drug therapy with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
C) predicting risk of myocardial infarction.
D) diagnosis of viral septicemia.
Q3) C4
A)Acute-phase protein
B)Most common complement deficiency
C)Useful with results of anti-DNA in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D)Associated with Raynaud's phenomenon
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Chapter 6: Safety in the Immunology-Serology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contact lenses can be manipulated with gloved hands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infectious waste should be discarded by:
A) incineration.
B) autoclaving.
C) soaking in bleach.
D) both a and b
Q3) Gloves should be worn when performing fingersticks and heelsticks on infants and children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Infectious disease safety practices include:
A) educating and training all health workers in Standard Precautions.
B) providing disposable gloves.
C) monitoring compliance with protective biosafety policies.
D) all of the above.
Q5) Gloves should be changed between each patient contact.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Quality Assurance and Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a preanalytical error is:
A) specimen obtained from the wrong patient.
B) lack of frequent preventive maintenance.
C) reporting of laboratory results by phone.
D) poorly trained phlebotomists.
Q2) Nonanalytical factors in quality assessment include:
A) qualified personnel.
B) established laboratory policies.
C) quality control charts.
D) both a and b
Q3) Mode
A)Middle value in a body of data
B)Value that occurs most frequently in a mass of data
C)Mathematical average calculated by dividing the sum of all individual values by the number of values
Q4) Specimen collection and storage
A)Quality control
B)Sources of error
C)Principle and purpose of the test
D)Procedural protocol
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Chapter 8: Basic Serologic Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemolysis
A)Rupturing of red blood cells that produces a pink or reddish color to serum or plasma
B)Emulsion of fat globules that often appears in serum after eating,during digestion
C)Yellowish color to plasma or serum
Q2) Icteric
A)Rupturing of red blood cells that produces a pink or reddish color to serum or plasma
B)Emulsion of fat globules that often appears in serum after eating,during digestion
C)Yellowish color to plasma or serum
Q3) A graduated pipette can be used when:
A) extreme accuracy is needed.
B) very precise accuracy is needed.
C) great accuracy is not needed.
D) speed is more important than precision.
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10
Chapter 9: Point-Of-Care Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A minimum of two laboratory staff members are required to be responsible for each POCT program.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ectopic pregnancy cannot be distinguished from normal pregnancy by using only hCG measurements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Important characteristics to consider when selecting a POCT kit include easy to perform protocol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Highly complex tests
A)More complex than waived tests but usually automated
B)Usually nonautomated or complicated tests requiring considerable judgment
C)Simple procedures
D)Slide examinations
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11
Chapter 10: Agglutination Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coagglutination
A)Uses antibodies bound to a particle to enhance the visibility of the reaction
B)Based on the interaction of soluble antigen with antibody
C)Detects antibodies with erythrocyte antigens
Q2) 2+
A)Tiny aggregates
B)No aggregates
C)Medium-sized aggregates,some free red blood cells (RBCs)
D)Clear supernatant
Q3) The most efficient type of antibodies in agglutination reactions are:
A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
Q4) Prozone phenomenon
A)Dilute patient's serum and retest.
B)Wash cells according to directions;use positive and negative quality control (QC)steps.
C)Repeat blood specimen should be collected a week or more later.
D)Calibrate centrifuge to proper speed and time.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Electrophoresis Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) In immunoelectrophoresis (IEP),when a favorable antigen-to-antibody ratio (equivalence point)is reached,the antigen-antibody complex becomes visible as:
A) precipitation lines.
B) precipitation bands.
C) a line representing one specific protein.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)can divide the proteins of normal serum into _______________ distinct precipitation bands.
A) 5 to 10
B) 15 to 20
C) 25 to 40
D) 45 to 100
Q3) Homogeneous
A)The antigen-antibody precipitation line resembles a segment or arc of a circle.
B)The antigen-antibody precipitation line assumes an elliptical shape.
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13
Chapter 12: Labeling Techniques in Immunoassay
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Sample Questions
Q1) The serologic method most widely used for the detection of diverse antibodies is:
A) the direct immunofluorescent assay.
B) the inhibition immunofluorescent assay.
C) the indirect immunofluorescent assay.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Competitive chemiluminescence
A)A fixed amount of labeled antigen competes with unlabeled antigen from a patient specimen for a limited number of antibody-binding sites.
B)The sample antigen binds to an antibody fixed onto a solid phase;a second antibody,labeled with a chemiluminescent label,binds to the antigen-antibody complex on the solid phase.
C)A fixed amount of labeled antibody competes with unlabeled antibody from a patient specimen for a limited number of antigen-binding sites.
D)The sample antibody binds to an antigen fixed onto a solid phase;a second antigen,labeled with a chemiluminescent label,binds to the antigen-antibody complex on the solid phase.
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14
Chapter 13: Automated Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major application(s)of flow cell technology is (are):
A) identification of cells.
B) cell sorting before further analysis.
C) diagnosis of autoimmune disease.
D) both a and b
Q2) Specimen labeling
A)Preanalytical
B)Analytical
C)Postanalytical
Q3) The principle of flow cytometry is based on:
A) antigen-antibody reactions.
B) the formation of immune complexes.
C) the reaction of dyes with the cellular component of interest.
D) the reaction of dyes with immune complexes.
Q4) A blood specimen for testing for the presence of cryoglobulins should be:
A) immediately placed in warm water after collection.
B) immediately placed on ice after collection.
C) immediately refrigerated at 4° C.
D) not treated in any special way.
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Chapter 14: Molecular Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Northern blot
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Use of labeled antibodies specific for the protein of interest
Q2) Liquid-phase hybridization
A)Hybridization occurs only if the patient's DNA contains base sequences that are 100% complementary to those of the probe.
B)Both the target nucleic acid and labeled probe interact in solution.
C)This detects single-base mutations using allele-specific oligonucleotides (ASOs).
Q3) Nucleic acid sequence amplification
A)This amplifies target nucleic acid without the use of a thermocycler.A double-stranded DNA fragment is created and becomes the target for exponential amplification.
B)An isothermal assay that targets either DNA or RNA but generates RNA as its amplified product.
C)Oligonucleotide pairs hybridize to target sequences within the gene or the cryptic plasmid.
D)Only RNA is targeted for amplification.
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Chapter 15: The Immune Response in Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The TORCH immunoglobulin M (IgM)and IgG assay includes detection of all the following except:
A) cytomegalovirus (CMV).
B) Epstein-Barr virus.
C) rubella.
D) infectious mononucleosis.
Q2) Toxoplasmosis
A)The most common congenital virus infection
B)A spectrum of congenital defects
C)Hydrocephalus,intracranial calcification,and retinochoroiditis-the most common manifestations of tissue damage
D)Sequelae of virus infection (include three distinct neurologic syndromes)
Q3) Primary infection with the virus results in the clinical manifestations of
A)Shingles
B)Chickenpox
Q4) Aspergillosis
A)Latex particle agglutination
B)ImmunoCAP system
C)Fungus media nucleic acid probe
Page 17
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Chapter 16: A Primer on Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogens adapted for biologic warfare include which of the following?
1)Smallpox
2)Bacillus anthracis
3)Chickenpox
4)Q fever
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,4
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,3,4
Q2) The earliest host response to vaccination is a(n):
A) innate immune response.
B) memory response.
C) anamnestic response.
D) both a and b
Q3) Hay fever vaccine
A)Protection against bioterrorism
B)Protection against cervical cancer
C)Not available for preventing congenital infection
D)DNA-based vaccine
E)Annual vaccination required
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Chapter 17: Streptococcal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) M protein contributes to S.pyogenes invasiveness because it:
A) neutralizes complement.
B) blocks antigen recognition.
C) blocks an antibody response.
D) impedes phagocytosis.
Q2) Members of the S.pyogenes species are almost always _____-hemolytic.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) alpha or beta
Q3) M protein:
A) can cause infection,even without strains of S.pyogenes.
B) is a major virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) promotes phagocytosis.
D) is the basis for the subclassification of group B streptococci.
Q4) The classic antistreptolysin O (ASO)procedure has been replaced by a(n):
A) optical immunoassay procedure.
B) direct immunofluorescence.
C) radioimmunoassay (RIA).
D) both a and b
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Syphilis
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Sample Questions
Q1) RPR test
A)Treponemal method
B)Nontreponemal method
Q2) If an RPR assay is negative but has a rough appearance,what is an appropriate follow-up step?
A) Report as a negative assay result.
B) Repeat the assay.
C) Repeat the assay with serial dilutions.
D) Request a new blood specimen for repeat testing.
Q3) Yaws
A)Common in the Caribbean,Latin America,Central Africa,and Far East
B)Found only in Latin America;infection limited to the skin
C)Found in eastern Mediterranean countries,the Balkans,and the cooler areas of North Africa
Q4) Primary syphilis
A)Diagnosis only by serologic methods
B)Presence of gummas
C)Development of a chancre
D)Generalized illness followed by macular lesions in most patients
E)Very early in infection,even before the first lesions
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Chapter 19: Vector-Borne Diseases
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Q1) Patients with Lyme arthritis should demonstrate positive findings for:
A) serum antinuclear antibodies.
B) rheumatoid factor.
C) the VDRL test.
D) antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi.
Q2) The diagnosis of Lyme disease in the United States is based on:
A) characteristic clinical findings.
B) history of exposure in endemic area.
C) erythema migrans (EM)or an antibody response to Borrelia burgdorferi observable by the ELISA or Western blot test.
D) all of the above.
Q3) One of the most widely available assays for antibody in Lyme disease is:
A) EIA for total IgM or IgG antibodies.
B) Southern blot test.
C) indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA).
D) RIA.
Q4) Preferred host for larval and nymphal stages of I.scapularis.
A)White-footed mouse
B)White-tailed deer
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Chapter 20: Toxoplasmosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)suggests that any confirmed equivocal or ____________ test results for toxoplasmosis should be retested using a different assay.
A) positive
B) negative
C) questionable
D) prenatal
Q2) The preferred method for detection of T.gondii is:
A) culture.
B) ELISA.
C) IFA.
D) PCR.
Q3) Congenital toxoplasmosis can result in:
A) central nervous system (CNS)malformation.
B) prenatal mortality.
C) congenital heart defects.
D) both a and b
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cytomegalovirus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)is ____________ worldwide.
A) epidemic
B) endemic
C) infrequently seen
D) rarely seen
Q2) Primary and recurrent maternal CMV infections cannot be transmitted in utero.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reinfection
A)CMV strain in the donor's blood that differs from the strain originally infecting the recipient
B)Seronegative recipient is transfused with blood from actively or latently infected donor
C)Seropositive recipient is transfused with blood from CMV antibody-positive or CMV antibody-negative donor
Q4) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)is related to:
A) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
B) herpes simplex 1.
C) herpes simplex 2.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Mononucleosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of horse erythrocytes in rapid slide tests for infectious mononucleosis increases the:
A) readability.
B) sensitivity.
C) specificity.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)is:
A) a DNA herpesvirus.
B) harbored by B lymphocytes in latent infections.
C) the most ubiquitous virus known to humans.
D) all of the above.
Q3) A blood transfusion from an immune donor to a nonimmune recipient may produce:
A) no effect.
B) a primary infection.
C) a secondary infection.
D) a reactivated infection.
Q4) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)heterophil antibody is characterized by no reaction with EBV-specific antigens.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Viral Hepatitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis C virus
A)Complex DNA virus
B)Small,RNA-containing picornavirus
C)Small,enveloped,single-stranded RNA virus
Q2) Which of the following hepatitis viruses can result in chronic infection and the potential development of liver cancer?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Both b and c
Q3) Hepatitis A
A)Primary hepatitis virus
B)Secondary hepatitis virus
Q4) The most frequently identified hepatitis B low-level carriers have _________ in their serum.
A) anti-HBe
B) anti-HBs
C) anti-HBc IgM
D) anti-HBc
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Chapter 24: Rubella and Rubeola Infections
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Q1) Fill in the blanks.The incubation period of acquired rubella infection varies,but (1)___________ days is typical.Infected persons are usually contagious for 12 to 15 days,beginning (2)_______days before the appearance of a rash (if present).Acute rubella infection lasts from (3)_____days and generally requires minimal treatment.Permanent effects are extremely rare in those with an acquired infection.
A)3 to 5
B)5 to 7
C)12 to 14
D)12 to 15
Q2) Individuals requiring rubella immune status determination include preschool-age and school-age children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rubella infection is transmitted by:
A) blood transfusions.
B) respiratory secretions.
C) fecal contamination.
D) contaminated food.
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Chapter 25: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Q1) A positive Western blot test (WB)for HIV infection is indicated by the presence of __________ bands.
A)p24
B)gp60 and gp160
C)p24 and p31
D)p24 and gp41
Q2) The HIV infectious process begins when the protein on the viral envelope binds to the protein receptor _______ on the surface of a target cell.
A)CD8
B)CD4
C)p24
D)p26
Q3) The most frequent malignancy or opportunistic infection observed in AIDS patients is:
A) Pneumocystis jiroveci.
B) Kaposi's sarcoma.
C) toxoplasmosis.
D) non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
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Chapter 26: Hypersensitivity Reactions
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Q1) Type I hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by:
A) activation of complement.
B) antigen cross-links with IgE on mast cells.
C) being potentially fatal.
D) both b and c
Q2) The Arthus reaction is associated with the immune phenomenon of:
A) deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels.
B) release of histamine from tissue basophils.
C) destruction of body tissue by cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
D) phagocytosis of IgG-coated erythrocytes.
Q3) The components involved in a positive skin test for tuberculosis (TB)are:
A) T lymphocytes and macrophages.
B) segmented neutrophils and monocytes.
C) B lymphocytes and macrophages.
D) IgE antibodies.
Q4) Delayed hypersensitivity
A)Cell-mediated
B)Antibody-mediated
C)Dependent on the host's response to a subsequent exposure of antigen
D)Not mediated by antigen-antibody interaction
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Chapter 27: Immunoproliferative Disorders
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Q1) Patients with multiple myeloma (MM)have defects in ______________ but not in
A) cellular immunity;humoral immunity
B) humoral immunity;cellular immunity
C) blood cell multiplication;protein synthesis
D) complement;the structure of other protein molecules
Q2) Fill in the blanks,choosing the correct temperature.
Bence Jones (BJ)proteins are soluble at room temperature,become insoluble near (1)_______,and then resolubilize (dissolve)at (2)________.
A)37° C
B)50° C
C)60° C
D)100° C
Q3) When an M spike is observed on serum protein electrophoresis,the suggested sequence of testing includes testing by:
A) immunoelectrophoresis.
B) immunofixation.
C) flow cytometry.
D) both a and b
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Autoimmune Disorders
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Q1) ANA
A)Measures antibody to nuclear antigens
B)Produces a characteristic granular cytoplasmic staining pattern to cytoplasmic constituents of granulocytes
C)An antibody to a basic nonhistone nuclear protein
D)Found in about 80% of patients with pernicious anemia
Q2) Pernicious anemia (PA)is characterized by:
A) deficiency of vitamin B12.
B) presence of antiparietal antibodies.
C) presence of intrinsic factor (IF)-blocking antibodies.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The definition of autoimmunity is a(n):
A) increase in tolerance to self antigens.
B) increase in immunosuppressive activities.
C) increased sensitivity to foreign antigens.
D) decreased tolerance to self antigens.
Q4) Parenchymal destruction by questionable cell-mediated hypersensitivity or antibodies.
A)Organ-specific
B)Organ- nonspecific
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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Q1) Which autoimmune disorder is indicated by an increased titer of anti-Sm (anti-Smith)antibody?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Progressive systemic sclerosis
D) Polymyositis
Q2) A major cellular immunologic feature of SLE is:
A) lack of generalized suppressor T cell function.
B) reduction of generalized suppressor T cell function.
C) hyperproduction of helper T cells.
D) all of the above.
Q3) SLE is more common in:
A) female infants.
B) male infants.
C) adult women.
D) adult men.
Q4) The most common form of lupus is:
A) discoid.
B) systemic.
C) drug-induced.
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Chapter 30: Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51620
Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogenic mechanisms hypothesized for rheumatoid arthritis include:
A) an infective agent or other stimulus binds to receptors on dendritic cells (DCs).
B) activated T lymphocytes proliferate and migrate into the joint.
C) complement activation.
D) both a and b
Q2) Prognostic markers that may help identify patients with more severe RA who are still in the early stages of the disease include the presence of certain HLA class I alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The laboratory serum agglutination assay for rheumatoid factor (RF):
A) detects IgG rheumatoid factors.
B) detects IgM rheumatoid factors.
C) does not generate many false-positive results.
D) is sensitive to changes in RF titer.
Q4) Being rheumatoid factor (RF)-positive correlates with the severity of the disease (in general).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Solid Organ Transplantation
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51621
Sample Questions
Q1) Xenograft
A)Graft between individuals of different species (e.g. ,pig heart valve to a human heart)
B)Graft transferred from one position to another in the same individual (e.g. ,skin,hair,bone)
C)Graft between genetically different recipient and donor of the same species;grafted donor tissue or organ contains antigens not present in recipient
D)Graft transplanted between different but identical recipient and donor (e.g. ,kidney transplant between monozygous twins)
Q2) The stronger the antigen difference,the more severe the graft-versus-host reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Children with severe congenital immunodeficiency syndromes involving T lymphocytes
A)High-risk patients
B)Intermediate-risk patients
C)Low-risk patients
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Chapter 32: Bone Marrow Transplantation
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51622
Sample Questions
Q1) Alkylating agents
A)5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
B)First agents used in bone marrow transplantation
C)Cytotoxic predominantly during M phase or G2 and M phases of cell cycle
Q2) Hematopoietic stem cells are:
A) uncommitted progenitor cells.
B) immature erythrocytes.
C) CD 34+ cells.
D) large,granular lymphocytes.
Q3) Differences between donor and recipient ABO and Rh blood groups have ______ effect on marrow engraftment.
A) no
B) some
C) a major
D) an overwhelming
Q4) Autologous
A)Stem cells from identical twins
B)Marrow from a related or unrelated donor
C)Transplant of own cells
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Chapter 33: Tumor Immunology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51623
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of pediatric cancer deaths is:
A) acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
B) tumors of the central and sympathetic nervous system.
C) malignant lymphoma.
D) renal tumors.
Q2) The term tumor is commonly used to describe a proliferation of cells that produces a(n):
A) mass.
B) inflammatory condition.
C) reaction.
D) either b or c
Q3) Tumor immunity has the following general feature-tumors express antigens that are recognized as foreign by the immune system of the tumor-bearing host.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cancer results from a series of genetic alterations that can include inactivation of oncogenes that promote cell growth.
A)True
B)False
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