Medical Laboratory Science
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the analysis of biological samples to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. Students in this course gain foundational knowledge in areas such as clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. The curriculum emphasizes both theoretical understanding and practical laboratory skills, including the use of advanced diagnostic instruments and adherence to rigorous safety and quality control standards. Graduates are equipped to play a critical role in healthcare teams, providing essential data that informs patient care and supports clinical decision-making in hospitals, research institutes, and public health settings.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas)to another genus (Burkholderia)would be correctly noted as which one of the following?
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia)
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas)
C)Pseudomonas,formerly Burkholderia
D)Burkholderia,formerly Pseudomonas
Answer: B
Q2) Colonial and microscopic morphologic properties,along with the pigmentation of colonies,would belong to a microorganism group of ________ characteristics.
A)genotypic
B)taxonomic
C)phenotypic
D)subspecies
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) The structure of bacterial chromosomes differs from that of eukaryotic organisms in all of the following except:
A)bacterial chromosomes are typically circular.
B)the genes are polycistronic.
C)the bacteria have two copies of each chromosome.
D)bacterial mutations are easily transmitted or inherited.
Answer: C
Q2) Mutation is defined as the:
A)change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.
B)internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism's genome.
C)process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another.
D)uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient's homologous DNA.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) Following the attachment and invasion of a microorganism,in order to be classified as a disease the microorganism must be capable of:
A)causing inflammation and tissue destruction.
B)creating pain and requiring antibiotic treatment.
C)multiplication and dissemination to deeper tissues.
D)killing the resident microbiota.
Answer: C
Q2) Infectious processes that develop and slowly progress are known as
infections.
A)chronic
B)latent
C)acute
D)nosocomial
Answer: A
Q3) Latent infections are those that:
A)develop and progress slowly.
B)develop quickly and end soon.
C)exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect.
D)develop quickly but last long.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Biosafety Level 1 agents:
A)include those that are the common agents of an infectious disease.
B)require only standard good laboratory techniques.
C)include Mycobacterium tuberculosis,M.gordonae,and Brucella.
D)require the use of maximum containment facilities.
Q2) The primary action in hand washing that prevents the distribution or transmission of microorganisms is:
A)the amount of soap used.
B)the temperature of the water.
C)the mechanical action of rubbing.
D)the chemical activities in the soap.
Q3) Air flow in a microbiology laboratory should be:
A)from lower to higher risk areas.
B)minimized as much as possible.
C)optimized to prevent the settling of dangerous aerosols.
D)well-filtered by recirculating it through numerous filters before recycling.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Rejection of inappropriately collected or transported specimens:
A)is the sole responsibility of the laboratory and should be performed without regard to physician requests.
B)should be initiated by laboratory personnel but approved by the nurses or physicians responsible for the care of the patient.
C)is not in the best interest of patient care and should not be considered appropriate.
D)is the responsibility of the nursing staff and should not be an issue for laboratory personnel.
Q2) A principal role of the clinical microbiologist includes:
A)quickly and accurately communicating information about the patient in both verbal and written formats.
B)assisting nurses and/or phlebotomists on the floor when drawing blood cultures.
C)diagnosing and treating patients.
D)designing software for microbial databases.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The acid-fast stain is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain:
A)teichoic acids.
B)mycolic acids.
C)peptidoglycan.
D)disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits.
Q2) Magnifications in excess of 100,000 times are achieved by ________ microscopy?
A)bright-field
B)electron
C)dark-field
D)phase-contrast
Q3) It is important to differentiate white blood cells in a preliminary direct smear because
A)the type of white blood cell present definitively indicates whether or not an infection is bacterial.
B)neutrophils are the only white blood cell present during bacterial infections.
C)it is not appropriate,because various types of white blood cells are indicative of different bacterial infections.
D)white blood cells are not noted on preliminary direct smear results.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Colonies that appear white and shinny are also considered:
A)translucent.
B)transparent.
C)mucoid.
D)opaque.
Q2) The role of the agar ingredient in culture medium is to:
A)provide a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism.
B)solidify the medium and provide a stable culture surface.
C)sterilize the medium and prevent contamination.
D)support the growth of only pathogenic organisms.
Q3) When streaking for isolation and utilizing semi-quantitative methods,the numbers of colonial growth in successive quadrants correlates directly with:
A)the microbiologist's streaking technique.
B)the relative amount of organism present in the original specimen.
C)the ability of the organism to grow on the media.
D)the type of incubation conditions.
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9
Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) While developing a new hybridization-based molecular test for Cryptosporidium,a protozoan parasite that causes diarrheal illness,a laboratory technician examines the hybridization ability with a closely related,but nontarget,protozoan and also gets a positive test result.In order to improve the stringency of the hybridization reaction for detection of Cryptosporidium only,the technician can do which of the following?
A)Decrease the salt concentration in the hybridization buffer
B)Increase the salt concentration in the hybridization buffer
C)Reduce the reaction temperature during hybridization
D)Remove destabilizing agents,such as formamide,from the hybridization buffer
E)None of the above
Q2) Analytical sensitivity is concerned primarily with which of the following PCR parameters?
A)Target specificity
B)Limit of detection
C)Head-to-head comparison to a gold-standard test
D)Gram staining
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Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) Cell-mediated immune responses,such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells that are damaged or infected,are carried out by:
A)lymphocytes of the thymus-derived (T)class.
B)lymphocytes of the bone marrow-derived (B)class.
C)neutrophils.
D)nasophils.
Q2) Antibody-mediated immune responses produced by specific proteins are generated by:
A)lymphocytes of the T class.
B)lymphocytes of the B class.
C)neutrophils.
D)basophils.
Q3) The antibody that is predominantly found in tears,saliva,and intestinal secretions is:
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Klebsiella spp.were isolated from a sputum sample,and susceptibility testing was performed.The isolates were sensitive to several antibiotics;however,they were resistant to ampicillin.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The ampicillin disk is most likely expired.
B)Because Klebsiella spp.should be sensitive to ampicillin,a technical error is to blame.
C)Ampicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis.In addition,because Klebsiella spp.do not have a cell wall,they should not have been tested for ampicillin.
D)No discrepancy is present;Klebsiella spp.are normally resistant to ampicillin.
Q2) Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive organism that produces the enzyme -lactamase,which renders certain types of antibiotics inactive.The mode of action that is prevented in certain antibiotics sensitive to this enzyme is:
A)cell wall synthesis.
B)protein synthesis to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
C)protein synthesis to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
D)deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)synthesis.
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Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Data review process for AST profiles:
A)requires susceptibility testing results only.
B)is the responsibility of a single individual in the laboratory.
C)can be done on "as needed" basis,no less frequently than weekly.
D)allows for troubleshooting of unusual profiles and results to be held until resolved.
Q2) As a result of the organism going through several doubling generations of growth before inhibition,a haze of bacterial growth occurs on the agar around the disk.This phenomenon,which should be ignored,can be observed when testing which class of antibiotics?
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Sulfonamides
C)Penicillins
D)Cephalosporins
Q3) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to:
A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins.
D)levofloxacin.
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Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The species of Staphylococcus,which is one of the most important human pathogens,is:
A)S.lentus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)S.mucilaginosus.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
Q2) A tube coagulase test was performed on catalase-positive,gram-positive cocci that were -hemolytic and grew on mannitol salt agar.The tube was checked after overnight incubation and was negative.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)A tube coagulase should not be performed on a catalase-positive organism.
B)A -hemolytic colony,which is catalase positive and grows on mannitol salt,is normally coagulase negative.
C)The test should have been read in 1 to 4 hours in case any hemolysins are present.
D)No discrepancy is present;the results are accurate.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
Q2) Erythrogenic toxin,hyaluronidase enzyme,and hemolysins S and O are extracellular products of:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
Q3) Enterococci can be described as:
A)able to hydrolyze bile esculin.
B)usually -hemolytic.
C)a major cause of pharyngitis.
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
Q2) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)are available that can serologically identify which Bacillus species?
A)B.cereus
B)B.subtilis
C)B.thuringiensis
D)B.anthracis
Q3) Which of the following is described as a spore-forming,gram-positive Bacillus that is -hemolytic,motile,Voges-Proskauer (VP)-positive,and citrate-positive and causes two types of food poisoning as a result of toxin release?
A)C.diphtheria
B)B.anthracis
C)B.cereus
D)C.jeikeium
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive,gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast,does not branch,and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q2) A 13-year-old girl presented to her physician complaining of being tired,having a mild sore throat and fever.She appears to have a grey coating on her tonsils when examined by the physician.The most logical etiologic agent associated with the patient's illness is:
A)Streptococcal pharyngitis.
B)diphtheriae.
C)scarlet fever.
D)Tonsillitis.
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative,non-spore forming,nonbranching,gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:
A)Corynebacterium.
B)Bacillus.
C)Actinomyces.
D)Erysipelothrix.
Q2) A farmer has a localized,painful skin infection.Cultures are set up,and -hemolytic,catalase-negative,and gram-positive bacilli are isolated.Based on this information,which of the following biochemical results are expected-urease,H S production in TSI,and nitrate reduction?
A)Positive urease,positive TSI,and positive nitrate
B)Positive urease,negative TSI,and negative nitrate
C)Negative urease,positive TSI,and negative nitrate
D)Negative urease,negative TSI,and negative nitrate
Q3) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A)G.vaginalis
B)Lactobacillus
C)Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D)A.haemolyticum
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Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Nocardia.
C)Gordonia.
D)Tsukamurella.
Q2) A chronic,granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues,which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts,is referred to as:
A)actinomycetoma.
B)infectious granulomas.
C)lymphocytoma.
D)Actinomadura.
Q3) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:
A)Nocardia.
B)Mycobacteria.
C)Streptomyces.
D)Actinomadura.
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Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of:
A)E.coli.
B)Shigella spp.
C)Salmonella spp.
D)Vibrio spp.
Q2) E.coli can produce a toxin similar to S.dysenteriae and can cause hemorrhagic colitis.What other organ does it affect?
A)Heart
B)Lungs
C)Liver
D)Kidney
Q3) This organism,belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae,grows best at 25°C to 30°C.Domestic and wild rats and other animals can carry this organism.What is the medium of choice?
A)MacConkey agar
B)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD)agar
C)Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar
D)Hektoen enteric (HE)agar
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Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is oxidase-negative,oxidizes glucose,and is a nonlactose fermenter?
A)Escherichia
B)Pseudomonas
C)Acinetobacter
D)Moraxella
Q2) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as the: A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by: A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)nitrate reduction.
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21
Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Overproduction of what substance is associated with biofilm production and mucoid phenotype of P.aeruginosa isolates found in cystic fibrosis patients?
A)Alginate
B)Exoenzyme T
C)Phospholipase C
D)Pyocyanin
Q2) In addition to cystic fibrosis patients,patients with which other disease are at greatest risk of death due to fulminant lung infections and/or bacteremia caused by B.cepacia?
A)Cardiovascular disease
B)Chronic kidney disease
C)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D)Chronic granulomatous disease
Q3) Production of exotoxin A and several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins are factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of which organism?
A)P.aeruginosa
B)Burkholderia cepacia
C)Ralstonia pickettii
D)Burkholderia mallei
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although validated susceptibility testing methods do not exist for this group of organisms,in vitro data suggest that certain cephalosporins and aminoglycosides are effective against which one of the following groups of organisms?
A)O.anthropi
B)S.putrefaciens
C)P.yeei
D)R.radiobacter
Q2) The natural habitat of Ochrobactrum spp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) The reservoir for O.anthropi is:
A)environment only,not human flora.
B)animal oral and respiratory flora.
C)environment,cold climates.
D)environment and human flora.
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Chapter 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Decontamination strategies used for potable water and the control of E.meningoseptica are similar to those utilized for which organism?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Legionella spp.
Q2) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?
A)E.meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis
B)Chryseobacterium spp.and E.meningoseptica
C)E.meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum
D)Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum
Q3) This organism is often associated with infections in patients with leukemia or lymphoma,as well as preterm infants:
A)S.multivorum
B)C.indologenes
C)E.meningoseptica
D)Bergevella zoohelicum
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Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The mode of transmission of A.denitrificans can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) Pertussis (whooping cough),an epidemic disease,is a highly contagious,acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the _________ species.
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
Q3) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:
A)Bordetella.
B)Oligella.
C)Achromobacter.
D)Roseomonas.
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25
Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Vibrio spp. ,Aeromonas spp. ,Plesiomonas shigelloides,and Chromobacterium violaceum?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are limited to the gastrointestinal tract.
C)Habitats are mostly soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to soil.
Q2) The transmission of Vibrio spp.to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q3) A vibriostatic test using 0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine)-impregnated disks differentiates vibrio cells,which are susceptible,and _________,which are resistant.
A)Enterobacteriaceae
B)Plesiomonas spp.
C)aeromonads
D)Chromobacterium spp.
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Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A yellow-pigmented,gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive,motile by wet mount,and has the ability to oxidize glucose,xylose,and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Sphingomonas
Q2) When performing quality control on motility media,which of the following organisms should be used?
A)Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)group IIc and CDC group IIe
C)CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D)CDC group IIh and A.facilis
Q3) This bacterium is unique in that it does not possess a flagellum but is motile by gliding motility.
A)Acidovorax spp.
B)Sphingobacterium spp.
C)Spingomonas spp.
D)Pseudomonas spp.
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Chapter 26: Moraxella
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Q1) The commensal Neisseria spp.are often confused with pathogenic gram-negative diplococci.A simple test utilizing a blood agar plate and an antibiotic disk resulting in elongation of the cells assists in the differentiation of these organisms.Which antibiotic disk is utilized in this application?
A)Cephalosporin
B)Vancomycin
C)Penicillin
D)Metronidazole
Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of deoxyribonuclease (DNase)media?
A)M.atlantae and M.lacunata
B)M.lacunata and M.lincolnii
C)M.nonliquefaciens and M.canis
D)M.osloensis and M.lacunata
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Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) E.corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A)pink pigmentation.
B)grapelike odor.
C)large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D)bleachlike odor.
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic,oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar,which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q3) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase,indole,and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A)E.corrodens
B)W.virosa
C)P.maltophilia
D)S.paucimobilis
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Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which test is used to differentiate P.multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A)Indole
B)Catalase
C)Nitrate
D)Sucrose
Q2) An organism that causes infection as a result of a dog or cat bite was tested for catalase,resulting in a positive reaction.What could be the possible source of the error?
A)The catalase reagent could be expired.
B)This organism is normally negative for catalase;therefore a mutation may have occurred.
C)A false-positive result occurred because of the catalase production of the red blood cells in the 5% sheep blood agar.
D)No error is present.This organism is catalase-positive.
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Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which antimicrobial regimen should be administered to a patient suspected of having endocarditis as a result of infection with C.hominis?
A)Chloramphenicol and tetracycline
B)Erythromycin and ciprofloxacin
C)Ampicillin and ceftriaxone
D)Penicillin,with or without an aminoglycoside agent
Q2) Which of the following biochemical reactions identifies an organism associated with blood,bone,and joint infections in young children?
A)Positive catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
B)Negative catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
C)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and positive indole
D)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and negative indole
Q3) Which organism is slightly a-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A)K.kingae
B)C.hominis
C)A.suis
D)Capnocytophaga spp.
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Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) Isolates from CSF that are gram-negative coccobacilli,grow on chocolate agar in CO but not blood agar,require factor V but not X,and are nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as:
A)H.parainfluenzae.
B)H.influenzae.
C)H.aphrophilus.
D)H.ducreyi.
Q2) A 6-year-old boy was diagnosed with purulent conjunctivitis caused by a species of Haemophilus.What would the biochemical profile of the organism be?
A)Growth requirements require both X and V factors;the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
B)Growth requirements require both X and V factors;the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
C)Growth requirements require V factor;the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
D)Growth requirements require X factor;the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
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32
Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bacteremia,endocarditis,bacillary angiomatosis,cat-scratch disease,and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:
A)Afipia felis.
B)Bartonella quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
Q2) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
Q3) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Wright's stain
C)Trichrome stain
D)Warthin-Starry silver stain
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Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Which of the following genes may attribute to the virulence of H.pylori by encoding for outer membrane proteins that mediate adherence to a specific blood group antigen on the surface of gastric epithelial cells?
A)babA
B)iceA
C)cagA
D)vacA
Q2) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample,which would reveal many:
A)large,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) Virulence determinants of H.pylori include:
A)proteases.
B)urease enzyme.
C)hemolysins.
D)exotoxins.
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Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining,thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as:
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q3) Who is at most risk to develop legionnaires' disease?
A)65-year-old transplant recipient
B)14 year old swimming in a lake
C)90 year old living in an apartment complex
D)Newborn baby to a mother infected with hepatitis
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Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q3) Facultative,intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A)be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) Acceptable specimens for the detection of B.pertussis are:
A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swabs.
Q2) A nasopharyngeal aspirate is cultured on Bordet-Gengou agar,and growth is observed.The colonies are also subjected to a direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)stain,which is also positive.On the basis of these findings,the antimicrobial therapy that should be administered to the patient is:
A)azithromycin.
B)gentamycin.
C)streptomycin.
D)imipenem.
Q3) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
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Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) Which assay is available to identify F.tularensis serologically?
A)Complement fixation
B)Direct fluorescent antibody test
C)Immunodiffusion assays
D)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)
Q2) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A)blood.
B)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C)lymph nodes.
D)urine.
Q3) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) A patient has an infection caused by S.moniliformis.Which of the following is the preferred antibiotic choice?
A)Penicillin
B)Tetracycline
C)Streptomycin
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired Spirillum minus is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Gram-negative diplococci are isolated from a genital specimen and yield the following results:
·Glucose: positive
·Maltose: negative
·Lactose: negative
The organism can be identified as:
A)N.gonorrhoeae.
B)Neisseria meningitidis.
C)Neisseria lactamica.
D)M.catarrhalis.
Q2) An advantage of all molecular assays is:
A)the ability to test for C.trachomatis from the same specimen at the same time.
B)the ability to use these tests for assessing the successfulness of treatment.
C)their role as evidence in medicolegal cases.
D)the ability to detect the capsular antigen in body fluids.
Q3) N.gonorrhoeae is spread by:
A)person-to-person nosocomial spread by respiratory droplets.
B)person-to-person spread by sexual contact.
C)from infected mother to newborn during birth.
D)B and C only.
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) PEA agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q2) Expectorated sputum is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q3) Urine via catheter is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q4) Thioglycollate broth
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Characteristics that strongly indicate the presence of pigmented Prevotella or Porphyromonas in a clinical specimen include:
A)yellow-green fluorescence.
B)rhizoid margins resembling a "Medusa head" on anaerobic blood agar.
C)brick-red fluorescence under long-wavelength ultraviolet (UV)light.
D)chartreuse fluorescens.
Q2) Fecal cultures to isolate Clostridium difficile are plated on:
A)anaerobic blood agar.
B)LKV blood agar.
C)aerobic 5% sheep blood agar.
D)cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA).
Q3) Nonpigmented Prevotella
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
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42
Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The stain that does not require heating the slide for better penetration of stain into the mycobacterial cell wall is known as the:
A)Kinyoun's.
B)Ziehl-Neelsen.
C)immunofluorochrome.
D)carbolfuchsin.
Q2) A positive tuberculin skin test,or PPD test,is characterized by:
A)erythema and induration.
B)redness and rash.
C)swelling and erythema.
D)edema and rash.
Q3) The recent emergence of epidemic multidrug-resistant strains of M.tuberculosis,in conjunction with the end of the downward trend of reported cases of tuberculosis in the United States,has been largely attributed to:
A)human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)epidemic.
B)ineffective treatment regimens.
C)political factors.
D)shortened treatment regimens.
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43
Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The C.burnetii,an acute systemic infection,primarily affects the lungs and can exist in two antigenic states.The reference method that is both highly specific and sensitive and is recommended for identification is:
A)immunofluorescent antibody (IFA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)Western blot.
D)latex agglutination.
Q2) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages,which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein,in almost every organ system.Without treatment,this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)IFA.
C)immunoblotting.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which group of drugs is effective against M.pneumoniae infections?
A) -Lactams
B)Sulfonamides
C)Cephalosporins
D)Fluoroquinolones
Q2) Media that can be used for the isolation of Mycoplasma include:
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)hemin and nicotinamide-adenine-dinucleotide (NAD)supplements.
Q3) The natural habitat of Mycoplasma spp. ,which causes infectious disease in humans,can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of humans.
B)aquatic environment.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Gelatin particles
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q2) Recombinant antigens
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q3) Systemic symptoms,such as fever,weight loss,malaise,and a loss of appetite,along with a widespread rash,can be observed in patients suffering from _________ syphilis.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)latent
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46
Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) A medical laboratory scientist (MLS)is examining a thin blood film from a patient suspected of having a Plasmodium infection.After examining the slide for 5 minutes and viewing approximately 100 oil immersion fields,the MLS does not observe any structures associated with Plasmodium.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The stain may have been contaminated.
B)The MLS should have examined each field under high dry magnification;therefore the magnification is not correct.
C)The MLS may have missed the organism;more than 300 fields should be viewed.
D)No discrepancy is present.Plasmodium spp.are not found in blood;therefore the results are accurate.
Q2) Wuchereria,Brugia,Loa,and Onchocerca are all classified as:
A)intestinal cestodes.
B)tissue nematodes.
C)filarial nematodes.
D)blood trematodes.
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Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) The organism Sarcocystis has an obligatory two-host life cycle-an intermediate host and definitive host.The sporocysts found in a stool specimen,which measure 9 to 16 µm,are broadly oval with slightly ___________ ends.
A)blunt
B)tapered
C)rounded
D)flattened
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with a severe intestinal disease caused by E.histolytica.Which of the following treatments should be administered?
A)Diloxanide furoate
B)Metronidazole
C)Metronidazole plus iodoquinol
D)Iodoquinol and diloxanide furoate
Q3) Asexual amplification,called merogony,is associated with the life cycle of which organism?
A)Cyclospora
B)Cryptosporidium
C)Toxoplasma
D)Sarcocystis
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) P.vivax is suspected in a patient who has been traveling for months in the tropics.Blood was collected in a lavender top tube;however,the slide was not prepared for examination until the next day because the specimen came in on the night shift.Once the slide was prepared and examined,Schüffner dots were not visible.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Schüffner dots are not characteristic of P.vivax infections.
B)The blood film was most likely incorrectly prepared.
C)The blood should have been collected in a red top tube.
D)The blood remained in the tube too long,yielding false-negative results.
Q2) T.brucei gambiense
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
Q3) P.falciparum
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) Primates,as well as dogs,sheep,and horses,have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?
A)N.fowleri
B)Acanthamoeba spp.
C)Toxoplasma gondii
D)Balamuthia mandrillaris
Q2) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q3) The troph of the motile T.vaginalis organism measures 7 to 23 mm long and 5 to 15 mm wide.The recommended treatment of choice for this urogenital infection is:
A)tetracycline.
B)metronidazole.
C)penicillin.
D)ketoconazole.
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) Direct penetration of which of the following worms results in tissue damage at the site of attachment,blood loss,and an acute gastrointestinal phase demonstrated by an increased eosinophilia?
A)Whipworm
B)Pinworm
C)Threadworm
D)Hookworm
Q2) A 4-year-old boy attended day care 3 days per week.He was irritable,and his parents noticed that he had persistent perianal itching.A sticky paddle was pressed against the perianal region and sent to the laboratory for testing.The eggs microscopically observed would most likely have which one of the following morphologic features?
A)Long with a short buccal cavity
B)Thin shell with internal granules
C)Bipolar plugs
D)Flat-sided,football-shaped
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Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) Crabs
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) Systemic involvement is rare in infection caused by Ancylostoma braziliense or Ancylostoma caninum;however,pneumonitis may occur.The antihelminthic therapy used to treat this infection is:
A)ivermectin or thiabendazole.
B)metronidazole or thiabendazole.
C)mebendazole or ivermectin.
D)albendazole or diethylcarbamazine.
Q3) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
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Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) O.volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q2) Chyluria is a result of lymphatic rupture and fluid entering the urine.Another lymphatic condition caused by W.bancrofti is:
A)calabar swelling.
B)elephantiasis.
C)river blindness.
D)pruritic rash.
Q3) A Giemsa stain is performed on an eye exudate on a patient with calabar swelling,eosinophilia,and a recent travel history to Africa.L.loa is suspected;however,the sheath in the adult worm recovered does not stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The worm recovered is not L.loa.
B)The specimen should have been stained with trichrome stain.
C)The Giemsa stain is most likely expired.
D)No discrepancy is present.The sheath does not stain with Giemsa stain.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The double-pored tapeworm,Diphyllobothrium caninum,consisting of many small proglottids,measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A)dog.
B)cat.
C)flea.
D)human.
Q2) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is: A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
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54
Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism,E.multilocularis,are:
A)foxes.
B)coyotes.
C)rodents.
D)humans.
Q2) In E.granulosus infections,the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A)Stomach
B)Brain
C)Intestines
D)Liver
Q3) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A)T.solium
B)Echinococcus granulosus
C)Spirometra mansonoides
D)Echinococcus multilocularis
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Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm,which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore,has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs,cats,and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater: A)snails.
B)fish.
C)crabs. D)shrimp.
Q2) A 36-year-old man who has traveled for several weeks in the orient is experiencing abdominal pain and diarrhea with a large amount of mucus.A H.heterophyes egg measuring 28 by 15 µm is identified in the stool.The treatment of choice for this intestinal trematode is:
A)metronidazole.
B)chloroquine.
C)albendazole. D)praziquantel.
Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A)fish. B)snails.
C)crabs. D)crayfish.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Chinese liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q2) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?
A)Snail
B)Crustacean
C)Copepod
D)Freshwater fish
Q3) Southeast Asian liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
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Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A)Schistosoma mansoni
B)Schistosoma japonicum
C)S.haematobium
D)Schistosoma mekongi
Q2) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A)copepod.
B)crustacean.
C)freshwater snail.
D)freshwater fish.
Q3) An egg of the organism of S.mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel;however,his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Metrifonate should have been administered.
B)Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C)Steroids should have been initially administered.
D)A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) Colonies are isolated 4 days after incubation from a skin infection that disseminated in a burn victim.A fungal infection is suspected.Which of the following is a possible organism that may be identified?
A)Epidermophyton floccosum
B)Fusarium spp.
C)Cladosporium spp.
D)Microsporum audouinii
Q2) If a fungal colony is described as rugose,then it means that the colony:
A)is furrowed or convoluted.
B)is slightly raised in the center.
C)furrows radiate out from the center.
D)has a smooth surface with no aerial mycelium.
Q3) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:
A)inoculation.
B)inhalation.
C)arthropod.
D)blood.
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Chapter 58: Hyaline
Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular,white-to-blue green colony?
A)A.niger
B)A.flavus
C)A.fumigatus
D)A.terreus
Q2) Single bud connected to the parent cell by broad base
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q3) Which two assays should be used together for detecting antibodies toward B.dermatitidis,H.capsulatum,and C.immitis?
A)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)and direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
B)Complement fixation and immunodiffusion
C)Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)and Western blot
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)and latex agglutination
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) Sinusitis
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q2) Conidia are arranged sympodially,golden brown,multicelled,and curved with a central swollen cell.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q3) Which dematiaceous fungus causes a condition known as chromoblastomycosis?
A)P.boydii
B)Hortaea werneckii
C)Phialophora spp.
D)Exophiala jeanselmei
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Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
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Q1) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q2) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify P.jirovecii?
A)Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B)Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C)Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D)Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q3) The cell membrane of P.jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______,which differentiates it from other fungi.
A)sterols;cholesterol
B)ergosterol;sterols
C)cholesterol;ergosterol
D)sitosterol;sterols
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Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) Which yeast identification system uses chromogenic substrates to assess specific enzyme activity usually detected within 4 hours?
A)Vitek
B)MicroScan
C)API-20C AUX
D)Uni-Yeast-Tek
Q2) A patient with diabetes is experiencing creamy patches on his tongue and mucous membranes.Cultures are performed,and yeast is recovered.His diagnosis is most likely: A)paronychia.
B)onychomycosis.
C)candidemia.
D)thrush.
Q3) If cornmeal agar is set up and chlamydoconidia are produced,the organism is most likely:
A)C.krusei.
B)C.glabrata.
C)C.albicans.
D)C.tropicalis.
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63
Chapter
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Q1) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) A patient who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is diagnosed with a Cryptococcus neoformans infection.The attending resident prescribed Griseofulvin;however,the patient's condition did not seem to improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The dose should be increased to penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
B)Nystatin,which would have been more effective,should have been prescribed.
C)Griseofulvin is not effective against C.neoformans;therefore the therapy should be changed.
D)Potassium iodide is the therapy of choice,not griseofulvin.
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64
Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Which assay is the current recommended method of detection in most laboratories for influenza A and B viruses?
A)Conventional cell culture
B)Enzyme immunoassays
C)Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
D)Shell vial culture
Q2) Continuous cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
Q3) Urine
A)Varicella-zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q4) Diploid cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
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Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) An 8-month-old female infant is admitted to the emergency department in respiratory distress on Christmas Eve.A nasopharyngeal aspirate is obtained and sent to the laboratory on ice for analysis.The most probable organism that would be isolated is:
A)varicella-zoster virus.
B)respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
C)rotavirus.
D)coxsackievirus.
Q2) Congenital disease
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV)8
Q3) Pleurodynia
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) Quantifies the amount of viruses infected in cells.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q2) Viable cells take up neutral red dye.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q3) The only virus that has been globally eradicated is:
A)chicken pox.
B)cowpox.
C)smallpox.
D)swinepox.
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) In the case of infants and small children,how much blood is usually drawn for bacterial culture?
A)0.5 mL
B)1 mL
C)1 to 5 mL
D)No more than 10 mL
Q2) If tachyzoites are found circulating in blood,then the infection would be classified as a:
A)parasitemia.
B)bacteremia.
C)viremia.
D)fungemia.
Q3) A 76-year-old man with intermittent fevers has blood cultures drawn three times.The second set is positive and grew out of a Corynebacterium spp.This organism is considered:
A)pathogenic.
B)virulent.
C)a contaminant.
D)normal flora.
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Of the various types of specimens collected to diagnose respiratory infections,which one is acceptable for the detection of anaerobic agents?
A)Tracheostomy aspirates
B)Bronchial washings
C)Gastric aspirates
D)Transtracheal aspirates (TTA)
Q2) Respiratory syncytial virus is one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
Q3) The sputum of a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)is stained with Kinyoun's carbolfuchsin stain.Which organism would test positive using this stain?
A)Streptomyces spp.
B)Pneumocystis jiroveci
C)S.aureus
D)Cryptosporidium spp.
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69
Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Pharyngitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Also called acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or trench mouth,which condition is a mixed bacterial spirochetal infection of the gingival edge?
A)Laryngitis
B)Laryngotracheobronchitis
C)Epiglottitis
D)Vincent angina
Q3) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa,tongue,or oropharynx by Candida spp.is:
A)pharyngitis.
B)Vincent angina.
C)rhinitis.
D)thrush.
Page 70
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:
A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
Q2) Specialized secretory cells centrally located in the brain in the third and fourth ventricles that produce CSF are called the: A)choroid plexus.
B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
Q3) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater. B)meninges.
C)arachnoid. D)pia mater.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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Q1) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)H.influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)M.catarrhalis.
Q2) Orbital cellulitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q3) Trachoma
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeast.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)Corynebacteria.
Q2) The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is:
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Klebsiella spp.
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q3) Mucosal antibacterial properties,a valvelike mechanism,host immune responses,and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.
A)digestive
B)upper respiratory
C)urinary
D)genital
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Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) The flora of the female genital tract:
A)consists primarily of staphylococci,corynebacteria,and Neisseria.
B)consists primarily of Enterobacteriaceae,streptococci,and staphylococci.
C)consists primarily of S.agalactiae and staphylococci.
D)varies with the pH and estrogen concentration of the mucosa.
Q2) Prostatitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella,Prevotella spp. ,Porphyromonas spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N.gonorrhoeae and C.trachomatis
F)E.coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
Q3) A culture performed on a vaginal specimen collected from a 60-year-old woman would likely grow primarily:
A)group B -hemolytic streptococci.
B)staphylococci and corynebacteria.
C)Enterobacteriaceae,streptococci,staphylococci,lactobacilli,and anaerobes.
D)G.vaginalis,Prevotella spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,and Mobiluncus spp.
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Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) The transport medium that best preserves the viability of most intestinal bacterial pathogens is:
A)buffered glycerol.
B)rectal culture swab.
C)Cary-Blair.
D)Campylobacter thioglycollate broth.
Q3) Campylobacter thioglycollate broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for Campylobacter spp.
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Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) Folliculitis,furuncles,and carbuncles are localized abscesses either in or around hair follicles.Which organism is the most common etiologic agent for all three infections?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Escherichia coli
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) The causative agents of lumpy jaw are:
A)Clostridium spp.
B)Bacteroides spp.
C)Prevotella spp.
D)Actinomyces spp.
Q3) A 6-year-old girl is diagnosed with a bullous impetigo infection.Based on this information,the catalase and coagulase results of the infecting organism are expected to be catalase-_____ and coagulase-_____.
A)negative;negative
B)positive;negative
C)positive;positive
D)negative;positive
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Chapter 75: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Any tissues received in the clinical microbiology laboratory should be minced and homogenized in a biosafety cabinet.If lung tissue is sent and processed,then which organism should be examined using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)testing?
A)Listeria
B)Legionella
C)Leishmania
D)Leptospira
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis accounting for approximately 70% of infections is:
A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)H.influenzae.
C)S.aureus.
D)Streptococcus mitis.
Q3) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A)Brucellosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Leishmaniasis
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Occurring continuously through the remaining value-added steps
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q2) Nonfastidious (rapidly growing),aerobic bacterial organisms can be saved up to 1 year on __________ slants.
A)Mycosel agar
B)MacConkey agar
C)Löwenstein-Jensen medium
D)trypticase soy agar (TSA)
Q3) If a clinical laboratory receives a "blind unknown" for proficiency testing (PT),it is most likely sent by which private accrediting agency?
A)CLSI
B)National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)
C)College of American Pathologists (CAP)
D)American Society of Consultant Pharmacists (ASCP)
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Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing unique biologic or biochemical characteristics of the organism of interest is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q3) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A)autonomous
B)nosocomial
C)opportunistic
D)septic
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Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A)horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C)microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D)living beings to wage war in peacetime.
Q2) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
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