Medical Laboratory Science
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the analysis of biological samples to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. Students in this course gain a strong foundation in biology, chemistry, and clinical laboratory techniques, learning to perform and interpret a variety of tests on blood, tissues, and other bodily fluids. The curriculum covers areas such as microbiology, hematology, immunology, and clinical biochemistry, emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills. Graduates are prepared for roles in hospitals, research laboratories, public health organizations, and other healthcare settings, where accuracy and attention to detail are essential for patient care and medical decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3886
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77408
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following behaviors is a violation of standard precautions?
A) Handwashing after glove removal
B) Use of impermeable laboratory gowns
C) Use of goggles and face shields
D) Placing laboratory notebooks on laboratory work area
Answer: D
Q2) Tube length when referring to the microscope is the:
A) Resolution power of the objective
B) Distance from the eyepiece to the objective
C) Numerical aperture
D) Magnitude of the image on the stage
Answer: B
Q3) Control materials are:
A) Analyzed concurrently with the unknown samples
B) Substances with a known amount of analyte
C) Used to calibrate the method
D) All of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen harbors _of the circulatory platelet mass.
A) one-quarter
B) one-third
C) one-half
D) three-quarters
Answer: B
Q2) Patients with moderate anemias (7 to 10 g/dL) may be asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Correlation checks between the red blood cell count, the hemoglobin, and the hematocrit are significant parts of QA (quality assurance) in the hematology lab.These correlations are known as:
A) Delta checks
B) The rules of three
C) Quality control
D) Analytical variables
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77406
Sample Questions
Q1) Pappenheimer bodies are composed of:
A) Iron
B) Denatured hemoglobin
C) DNA
D) RNA
Answer: A
Q2) The hemoglobin molecule consists of:
A) One heme molecule, one globin chain
B) One heme molecule, four globin chains
C) Two heme molecules, two globin chains
D) Four heme molecules, four globin chains
Answer: D
Q3) The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by a/an:
A) Red cell count
B) Reticulocyte count
C) M:E ratio
D) Hemoglobin determination
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physiologic conditions in the body that can decrease hemoglobin's oxygen affinity include:
A) Increased pH
B) Decreased 2,3-DPG
C) Increased body temp
D) The presence of abnormal hemoglobins
Q2) Fetal hemoglobin consists of which of the following chains?
A) \(\alpha\)2\(\beta\)2
B) \(\alpha\)2\(\gamma\)2
C) \(\alpha\)2\(\sigma\)2
D) \(\alpha\)2\(\varepsilon\)2
Q3) Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hemoglobin begins to be synthesized at the polychromatophilic stage of red cell development.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic disease
B) Infection
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Inflammation
Q2) A 15-year-old Lebanese boy was sent to the laboratory for an evaluation of anemia and had the following lab results:
A) WBC = 7.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) RBC = 5.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
C) Hgb = 11.6 g/dL
D) Hct = 36%
Q3) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The alpha thalassemias result from:
A) Gene deletion
B) Defective alpha genes
C) Iron overload
D) Excessive production of alpha chains
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate M:E ratio in the case of megaloblastic anemia would be:
A) 1:3
B) 4:1
C) 5:1
D) 1:10
Q2) One of the most common pathophysiologies that contribute to folic acid deficiency is:
A) Tropical sprue
B) Intrinsic factor deficiency
C) IDA
D) Infection with Diphyllobothrium latum
Q3) The cell pictured above may be seen in which of the following conditions?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Megaloblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary hemochromatosis
Q4) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An osmotic fragility test is performed on a patient's sample.Initial hemolysis occurs at 0.75% NaCl and complete hemolysis occurs at 0.50% NaCl.These results are indicative of which of the following disorders?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Hgb C disease
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary spherocytosis
Q2) Which of the following red blood cell membrane defects results in an increased sensitivity to complement lysis?
A) Cold agglutinin syndrome
B) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia
C) Diamond Blackfan anemia
D) Hereditary spherocytosis
Q3) The cells circled below show an eccentric "puddling" of their hemoglobin contents.This is most closely associated with:
A) Stomatocytosis
B) Xerocytosis
C) G6PD deficiency
D) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by Hemoglobinopathies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alkaline electrophoresis will not separate hemoglobin C from:
A) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
B) Hemoglobin F
C) Hemoglobin S
D) Hemoglobin A
Q2) The Benin haplotype of sickle cell disease is prevalent in which country or countries?
A) Saudi Arabia and Asia
B) Senegal
C) West Africa
D) Central and South Africa
Q3) In hemoglobin C disease, is substituted for glutamic acid.
A) valine
B) adenine
C) lysine
D) leucine
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "marginating pool" of neutrophils is located:
A) In the kidneys
B) In the tissue
C) Next to marrow sinuses
D) On the blood vessel walls
Q2) Which of the following CD markers is more appropriately associated with the myelocyte?
A) CD4, CD8
B) CD33, CD13, CD14
C) CD45, CD33, CD13
D) CD19, CD22
Q3) Identify the cell at the end of the pointer.
A) Lymphocyte
B) Myeloblast
C) Promyelocyte
D) Monocyte
Q4) The absolute WBC count refers to the percentage of a particular cell counted from the 100 WBC differential.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best corrective action for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitism on peripheral blood smear is to:
A) Make a duplicate slide and see if this phenomenon disappears
B) Warm the tube of blood
C) Redraw the sample in sodium citrate
D) Vortex the sample of blood
Q2) In which white cell disorder will you see gray-green cytoplasmic granules in the neutrophils?
A) May-Hegglin anomaly
B) Alder's anomaly
C) Pelger-Huët anomaly
D) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Q3) Pelger-Huët anomaly is characterized mainly by:
A) Neutrophils with gray-green granules
B) Lipid depositions in the cytoplasm
C) Giant platelets
D) Hyposegmentation of the nucleus in the neutrophils
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-risk ALL pediatric clinical trials require the WBC count to be less than:
A) 20 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 50 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 60 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 75 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q2) The cells pictured above are most consistent with:
A) Acute myeloid leukemia
B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D) Acute erythroid leukemia
Q3) A patient presents with generalized lymphadenopathy and a WBC of 100 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L.This hematologic picture would most likely be seen in:
A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Hairy cell leukemia
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A "dry tap" is a characteristic of myeloid fibrosis with myeloid metaplasia due to:
A) Increased infiltration of blast cells
B) Increased infiltration of abnormal platelets
C) Increased infiltration of abnormal red cells
D) Increased infiltration of fibrotic elements
Q2) Tyrosine kinase is an important mediator in leukocyte metabolic pathways because it suppresses:
A) Opsonization
B) Phagocytosis
C) Leukoerythroblastosis
D) Apoptosis
Q3) The JAK2 chromosomal mutation is associated with:
A) Polycythemia vera
B) CML
C) Leukemoid reaction
D) Myelofibrosis
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14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A peripheral blood picture dominated by cells that appear convoluted with an ovoid nucleus and clefting would most likely be seen in:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) Burkitt's lymphoma
C) CLL
D) Infectious mononucleosis
Q2) All of the following are related to the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma except:
A) Acceleration of plasma cells in the bone marrow
B) Increased levels of tyrosine kinase activity
C) Activation of osteoclasts
D) Production of an abnormal monoclonal protein
Q3) Patients with CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukemia):
A) Die most often of blast crisis
B) Are usually younger than 40 years
C) May develop monoclonal spikes
D) Often are immunocompromised
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15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone marrow and peripheral smear of a patient with an MDS will show dysplastic changes in _over time.
A) white cells
B) red cells
C) platelets
D) All of the above
Q2) All of the following are features of the myelodysplastic syndromes except:
A) Anemia
B) Organomegaly
C) Dysplasia
D) Hypercellular marrow
Q3) The correct name for the cell at the end of the pointer is a:
A) Ringed sideroblast
B) Reticulocyte
C) Giant platelet
D) Siderocyte
Q4) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prothrombin group of factors consists of factors:
A) I, V, VIII, and XIII
B) XI, XII, prekallikrein, and HMWK
C) II, VII, IX, and X
D) III, VIII, IX, and X
Q2) The first response of a cut vessel is:
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Platelet aggregation
C) Activation of the intrinsic pathway
D) Vasodilation
Q3) Factor III
A)Stabile factor
B)Labile factor
C)Thromboplastin
D)Calcium
E)Anti-hemophiliac factor
F)Fibrinogen
G)Prothrombin
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Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A coagulation disorder commonly associated with umbilicus bleeding and post-circumcision bleeding is known as:
A) von Willebrand's disease
B) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
D) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Q2) Which the following test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand's disease?
A) Bleeding time
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time
C) Platelet count
D) Factor VIII and vWF levels
Q3) In hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which of the following statements is the most accurate?
A) The organ most affected is the spleen.
B) The toxin responsible for this syndrome is produced by E. coli O157:H7.
C) Impaired neurological function is one of the primary symptoms.
D) Platelets are permanently impaired.
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factor V Leiden is a genetic mutation of:
A) Factor IV
B) Factor V
C) The prothrombin molecule
D) Hemophilia A
Q2) Hemophilia B is best treated with:
A) A mixture of factors II, VII, IX, and X
B) Factor X concentrate
C) Factor VIII concentrate
D) Vitamin K
Q3) The only clotting factor not synthesized exclusively by the liver is:
A) Factor V
B) Factor VII
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor IX
Q4) The treatment of choice for hemophilia A individuals is:
A) Cryoprecipitate
B) Factor VIII concentrate
C) Prothrombin complex
D) DDAVP
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Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) D-dimers may be elevated in which of the following?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Q2) The D-dimer test measures:
A) Fibrinogen deposition
B) Fibrinogen degradation
C) Fibrin degradation
D) Fibrin deposition
Q3) The reference range for a thrombin time is:
A) 20 to 40 seconds
B) 100 to 120 seconds
C) 40 to 60 seconds
D) 11 to 15 seconds
Q4) A patient with DIC will have the following coagulation test results except:
A) An increased PT/INR
B) An increased aPTT
C) An increased fibrinogen
D) An increased D-dimer
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) usually:
A) Occurs as a result of protein C deficiency
B) Will show an increase in platelets
C) Occurs 5 to 14 days after heparin therapy
D) Occurs only in males
Q2) Antithrombin inhibits all of the following factors except:
A) II a
B) VII a
C) IX a
D) XI a
Q3) All of the following statements describe factor V Leiden except:
A) It is a cause of activated protein C resistance.
B) It is associated with thrombocytopenia.
C) It is associated with increased risk of thrombosis.
D) Is an inherited disorder.
Q4) Factor VIII inhibitors:
A) Are associated with thrombosis
B) Are associated with decreased fibrinogen levels
C) Are usually time and temperature dependent
D) Are corrected with the addition of normal plasma
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