Medical Laboratory Science Exam Preparation
Guide
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the analysis of biological samples to assist in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and hands-on laboratory experience, students learn to perform complex tests on blood, tissues, and other body fluids, utilizing advanced instrumentation and molecular techniques. The course covers core topics such as clinical biochemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and transfusion science, while also emphasizing laboratory safety, quality assurance, and ethical considerations. Graduates are prepared for critical roles in healthcare, supporting physicians and other healthcare professionals with essential laboratory data for patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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62 Chapters
948 Verified Questions
948 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a double genus in a microorganism's label such as Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) indicates that
A)the bacterium does not fit well in either group but has some characteristics of both groups.
B)the bacterium is a genetic cross between the two groups.
C)the bacterium has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia).
D)the bacterium has been moved from one genus (Burkholderia) to another genus (Pseudomonas).
Answer: C
Q2) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is A)genus.
B)species.
C)class.
D)kingdom.
E)order.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Q1) "Miniature" chromosomes composed of several genes in double-stranded, closed, circular structures are called A)transposons.
B)insertion sequences.
C)plasmids.
D)chromatoids.
Answer: C
Q2) The mechanism of genetic control in which genes are induced only when the substrate to be degraded by enzymatic action is present is called A)repression.
B)mutation.
C)transduction.
D)induction.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells?
A)B lymphocytes
B)T lymphocytes
C)Natural killer cells
D)Neutrophils
Answer: C
Q2) Nosocomial infections are those that
A)develop and progress slowly.
B)develop quickly.
C)are contracted in the hospital environment.
D)develop quickly but last longer.
Answer: C
Q3) The antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections is
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) The agency that requires health care facilities to provide employees with all devices and mechanisms necessary to protect them from the hazards encountered in the laboratory is
A)DHEC.
B)OSHA.
C)CDC.
D)HEPA.
Q2) The autoclave sterilizes material by
A)applying dry heat at high temperatures and pressure.
B)infusing gaseous chemicals that kill organisms.
C)applying moist heat at high temperatures and increased pressure.
D)cleaving protein bonds found in most biological agent cell walls.
Q3) A cleaning solution used on the venipuncture site to avoid skin contamination of the blood sample is called a/an
A)surfactant.
B)disinfectant.
C)biocide.
D)antiseptic.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Microaerophiles grow best in
A)ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide.
B)increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O .
C)Five percent to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O .
D)Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%).
Q2) Holding media such as Stuart's medium and Amie's medium are used
A)to maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen.
B)to support the growth and multiplication of any pathogenic organisms present.
C)to prevent clotting of specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%) is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) After which step in the Gram stain are gram-positive bacteria FIRST distinguished from gram-negative?
A)Crystal violet
B)Iodine mordant
C)Gram's decolorizer
D)Safranin
Q2) The third step in the Gram stain is the application of the A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q3) The first step in the Gram stain is the application of the primary stain A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Cultivation of most medically important bacteria sought in the medical laboratory is done using incubators with temperatures maintained in what range?
A)35° to 37° C
B)30° to 35° C
C)37° to 39° C
D)25° to 35° C
Q2) Which type of media is designed to distinguish microorganisms on the basis of certain growth characteristics?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q3) The role of the agar ingredient in culture medium is to
A)provide a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism.
B)solidify the medium and provide a stable culture surface.
C)sterilize the medium and prevent contamination.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Nucleic acid sequencing methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
Q2) Determination of the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an unknown organism.
A)Hybridization
B)Sequencing
C)Amplification (PCR)
D)Genotypic
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10
Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polyclonal antibodies are those that A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q2) The difference between latex agglutination and coagglutination is A)the type of particle used to carry the antibody.
B)the type of target organism involved.
C)that coagglutination is less specific but more sensitive.
D)coagglutination can be used for direct antigen detection but not latex agglutination.
Q3) The precipitin test that involves antigen and antibody diffusing toward each other, producing a visible precipitin band at the point at which they meet is referred to as A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific proteins produced by cells of the immune system in response to the presence of foreign molecules that circulate in the serum and are present in secretions such as saliva are called A)antigens.
B)immunoglobulins.
C)cytokines.
D)phagogens.
Q2) The immunochemical test that involves the agglutination of an artificial carrier particle with antigen bound to its surface with antibody present in a specimen is referred to as
A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q3) Elevations of this antibody may indicate a parasitic infection.
A)IgG
B)IgA
C)IgM
D)IgE
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antimicrobial resistance resulting from the normal genetic, structural, or physiologic state of a microorganism is referred to as
A)intrinsic resistance.
B)inherent resistance.
C)microorganism mediated resistance.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q3) Bacterial resistance to beta-lactams may be mediated by
A)enzymatic destruction of the antibiotics.
B)altered antibiotic targets.
C)decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
D)All of the above are correct.
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13
Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Criteria for establishing a bacterial isolate as clinically significant include
A)cultivation of the organism from a clinical specimen.
B)detection and/or the abundance of the organism on direct specimen Gram stain in the presence of white blood cells.
C)predominance of the organism in specimen cultures.
D)its antimicrobial susceptibility results.
Q2) An important factor that plays a key role in a patient's outcome in an infectious disease that is not taken into account by susceptibility testing is
A)antibiotic diffusion in tissues and host cells.
B)serum protein binding of antimicrobial agents.
C)drug interactions and interference.
D)status of patient defense and immune systems.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins. D)amikacin.
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) This virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares, perineum, and other skin sites of healthy people, especially in the hospital setting.
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)Staphylococcus intermedius
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)All Micrococcaceae
Q2) The tube coagulase test
A)detects bound coagulase.
B)detects extracellular coagulase.
C)is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm this positive result.
D)requires citrated reagent plasma.
Q3) The purpose of the coagulase test is to
A)detect the presence of an enzyme that binds plasma fibrinogen.
B)detect the ability of the organism to clot plasma.
C)detect the production of clumping factor.
D)help identify staphylococci.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The bacterial species that can be described as susceptible to bile and optochin, alpha hemolytic, a major cause of bacterial meningitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule is
A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)viridans streptococci.
Q2) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as A)susceptible to bile and optochin.
B)alpha hemolytic.
C)a major cause of bacterial meningitis.
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
E)All of the above are true.
Q3) What morphologic feature is a major consideration in determining an identification scheme for streptococci?
A)Colony shape and color
B)Hemolytic pattern
C)Smell
D)Consistency
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Media that can be used for isolation of Bacillus anthracis include
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)CNA blood agar.
Q2) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q3) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus sp.can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A bacterium described as being coryneform has which type of morphology?
A)Short rods with rounded ends arranged singly, in "palisades" of parallel cells
B)Short rods in pairs that remain connected after cell division to form V or L shapes
C)Bacilli that resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q3) The isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for A)listeriosis.
B)diphtheria.
C)pertussis.
D)tetanus.
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Chapter
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Q1) Large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has
A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)large numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C)large numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will reveal
A)large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods.
B)large numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C)large numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 18: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called A)surface hyphae.
B)substrate hyphae.
C)aerial hyphae.
D)topical hyphae.
Q2) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include A)Nocardia.
B)Rhodococcus
C)Gordona
D)Tsukamurella
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The organism that has been most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is A)Rhodococcus.
B)Gordonia.
C)Tsukamurella.
D)Streptomyces.
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Enterotoxigenic and enteroinvasive are terms often linked to which of the following bacterial species?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Salmonella enteritidis
C)Shigella sonnei
D)Yersinia pestis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative,
H S-positive is
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B)Proteus vulgaris.
C)Salmonella enteritidis.
D)Escherichia coli.
E)Shigella sonnei.
Q3) Alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S
A)Salmonella species
B)Escherichia coli
C)Proteus species
D)Pseudomonas species
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is A)a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin/clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
Q2) An organism that can be described as oxidase-negative, MacConkey agar-positive, glucose nonfermenter is likely
A)Escherichia.
B)Pseudomonas.
C)Acinetobacter.
D)Moraxella.
Q3) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) An organism described as oxidase-positive, TSI slant with an alkaline/no change, good growth at 42° C, and producing bright bluish green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Q2) The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Q3) Of the species of Burkholderia, which is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A)Burkholderia ralstonia
B)Burkholderia pseudomallei
C)Burkholderia mallei
D)Burkholderia cepacia
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Chapter 22: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Ochrobactrum anthropi.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
E)Environmental and human flora
Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia .
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Psychrobacter immobilis.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Empedobacter.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Chryseobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q4) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by
A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
Q2) Which statement best describes the habitats of Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
Q3) The mode of transmission of Achromobacter denitrificans can best be described as A)person to person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D)close contact with animals.
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) Transmission of Aeromonas spp.to humans is by
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q2) Stool specimens suspected of containing which enteric pathogen should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?
A)Vibrio
B)Salmonella
C)Shigella
D)Plesiomonas
Q3) The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures?
A)Vibrio
B)Salmonella
C)Shigella
D)Plesiomonas
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Sphingomonas spp.can be described as
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that fail to grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose-utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
Q2) Sphingobacterium spp.can be described as
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that fail to grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose-utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is
A)Moraxella catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
Q2) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella elongata appears as
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
E)either coccobacilli or short, straight rods.
Q3) Differentiation of Neisseria elongata subsp.glycolytica from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is among the HACEK group of bacteria known to cause subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the following organisms, which can be described as slow or poorly growing, are capnophiles, and will not grow on MacConkey agar?
A)Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B)Kingella denitrificans
C)Cardiobacterium hominis
D)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Capnocytophaga hominis by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for indole.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isolates from eye swabs that are gram-negative coccobacilli, grow on chocolate agar in CO but not blood agar, and are porphyrin-negative and nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as A)Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
B)H.influenzae.
C)H.aphrophilus.
D)H.influenzae
Q2) Performance of the "factor requirement test" for Haemophilus involves
A)inoculation of unsupplemented media with a light suspension of the organism and placement of X and V factor disks on the agar surface.
B)inoculation of liquid media, unsupplemented and supplemented with X and V factors.
C)detecting the presence of enzymes that convert d-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) into porphyrins.
D)growth of the organism in the presence of bacterial species that produce X and V factors as metabolic by-products.
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33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by
A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) A common characteristic of the bacterial species Bartonella henselae and Afipia felis is
A)both are believed to cause cat-scratch disease.
B)the ability to grow on chocolate agar but not very well on routine blood (trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood) and not at all on MacConkey agar.
C)that primary isolation from clinical specimens is best accomplished using special cultivation conditions.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by A)direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B)contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C)multiplication of the organism in food products.
D)direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q2) Making sure that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked, all milk is pasteurized, and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with A)Helicobacter.
B)Arcobacter.
C)Enterobacter.
D)Campylobacter.
Q3) Virulence determinants of Helicobacter pylori include A)motility.
B)urease enzyme.
C)adhesions.
D)All of the above are correct.
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35
Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) Specimens for culture recovery of Legionella should be inoculated to
A)BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
Q2) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) Persons considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are
A)dairy farmers.
B)livestock handlers.
C)slaughterhouse employees.
D)veterinarians.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) A nonmotile, urease- and nitrate-positive, strictly aerobic gram-negative coccobacillus is most likely
A)Bordetella.
B)Moraxella.
C)Kingella.
D)Acinetobacter.
E)Brucella.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q2) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis, symptoms are A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past the swollen glottis.
D)lymphocytosis and fever.
Q3) The mode of transmission of Bordetella pertussis can best be described as A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Sample Questions
Q1) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-positive.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)hydrolyzes gelatin.
D)grows in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) One of the most common laboratory-acquired infections that is caused by a Biosafety Level 2 pathogen is caused by A)Bordetella pertussis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Francisella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by A)chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B)a granulomatous lesion. C)septic arthritis.
D)endocarditis.
Q2) Rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains and a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, is caused by
A)Bordetella species.
B)Brucella abortus.
C)Spirillum minus.
D)Pasteurella species.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collection and handling of specimens for the detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae should optimally include
A)charcoal-treated nontoxic swabs.
B)immediate inoculation to appropriate medium.
C)carbon dioxide-enriched atmosphere.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Moraxella catarrhalis may be described as A)oxidase-positive.
B)a glucose utilizer.
C)a major cause of venereal disease.
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
E)All of the above are true.
Q3) Glucose, maltose, sucrose, and lactose are tests most likely performed on a/an
A)oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus.
B)alpha-hemolytic streptococcus.
C)oxidase-negative, gram-negative coccus.
D)nonhemolytic streptococcus.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Cervical swab
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q2) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q3) Actinomyces spp., Bifidobacterium spp., and Clostridium spp.can be described as
A)aerotolerant organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under microaerobic conditions.
B)strictly anaerobic organisms that cannot grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow only under anaerobic conditions.
C)microaerophilic organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under anaerobic conditions.
D)facultatively anaerobic organisms that grow in the presence or absence of atmospheric oxygen.
Q4) Urine via catheter
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
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42
Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Characteristics that strongly indicate the presence of anaerobes in a clinical specimen include
A)a foul odor.
B)sulfur granules.
C)brick-red fluorescence under long-wavelength ultraviolet (UV) light.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) In a clinical specimen, sulfur granules strongly indicate the presence of which anaerobe?
A)Actinomyces spp.
B)Propionibacterium spp.
C)Eubacterium nodatum
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Incubation conditions for anaerobic cultures include
A)30° to 35° C.
B)incubation for 48 hours before exposing to air.
C)incubated for at least 3 days before discarding.
D)incubation of broth medium aerobically with the cap loose.
E)All of the above are correct.
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43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of what in CSF is thought to be diagnostic of tuberculous meningitis?
A)Mononuclear leukocytes and acid-fast bacilli
B)Acid-fast bacilli
C)Tuberculostearic acid
D)Increased protein and decreased glucose
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The mycobacterial species that occur in humans and belong to the M.tuberculosis complex include
A)M.tuberculosis, nontuberculous mycobacteria, M.bovis, and M.africanum.
B)M.tuberculosis, M.gordonae, M.bovis BCG, and M.africanum.
C)M.tuberculosis, M.bovis, M.avium, and M.intracellulare.
D)M.tuberculosis, M.bovis, M.bovis BCG, and M.africanum.
Q3) The type of specimen collected for mycobacterial studies that must be neutralized with 10% sodium carbonate is
A)spontaneously produced sputum.
B)gastric lavage.
C)transtracheal aspiration.
D)bronchial lavage.
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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnosis of C.trachomatis is done by which methodology?
A)Cytology
B)Culture
C)Direct detection of antigen or nucleic acid
D)Serologic testing
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is
A)Rickettsia.
B)Chlamydia.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
Q3) Which of the following bacteria are fastidious, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacilli, are obligate intracellular parasites that survive only briefly outside of a host (reservoir or vector), and can multiply only intracellularly?
A)Coxiella
B)Chlamydia
C)Rickettsia
D)Calymmatobacterium
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Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q2) Definitive identification of Mycoplasma pneumoniae is accomplished by which technique?
A)Hemadsorption of guinea pig erythrocytes
B)Traditional biochemical tests such as indole and oxidase
C)Direct detection methods such as PCR or ELISA
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Media that can be used for isolation of Mycoplasma include
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)Hemin and NAD supplements.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by fever, weight loss, malaise, loss of appetite, and a widespread rash is known as
A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)late syphilis.
D)tertiary syphilis.
Q2) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by the appearance of a chancre is known as
A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)late syphilis.
D)tertiary syphilis.
Q3) Compared to other spirochetes, Leptospira can be described as
A)long, more slender, with hooked ends.
B)somewhat thicker with fewer and looser coils and hooked ends.
C)long, more slender, with tight coils.
D)somewhat thicker than treponemes with fewer and looser coils.
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Q1) The eggs of which intestinal parasite are not commonly found in feces and must be detected by other diagnostic techniques?
A)Giardia lamblia
B)Cryptosporidium parvum
C)Clonorchis sinensis
D)Enterobius vermicularis
Q2) The examination of spinal fluid may reveal the parasitic agent of meningoencephalitis called A)Ascaris lumbricoides.
B)Strongyloides stercoralis.
C)Paragonimus westermani.
D)Naegleria fowleri.
Q3) The Schistosoma species with a prominent lateral spine is A)Schistosoma japonicum.
B)Schistosoma haematobium.
C)Schistosoma mansoni.
D)Schistosoma westermani.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) Using the Koneman and Roberts working schema for identifying clinical mold isolates, a mold that has dark-pigmented septate hyphae and multicelled conidia would likely belong to which group of fungi?
A)Alternaria
B)Zygomycetes
C)Cladosporium
D)Microsporum
Q2) Vegetative mycelium are those that serve what main purpose?
A)Nutrient absorption and water exchange
B)Penetration of host cells
C)Transfer of genetic material from cell to cell
D)Give rise to fruiting bodies from which asexual spores are borne
Q3) A mold that has dark-pigmented, septate hyphae and single-celled conidia would likely belong to which group of fungi?
A)Alternaria
B)Zygomycetes
C)Cladosporium
D)Microsporum
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Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) In general, specimens collected for detection of virus should be
A)placed in ice and transported to the laboratory at once.
B)frozen until processing occurs.
C)processed within 1 to 2 days of collection.
D)inoculated into cell culture at the bedside.
Q2) The test of choice for use with CSF to diagnose aseptic meningitis caused by enterovirus is
A)cell culture.
B)PCR.
C)antigenemia immunoassay.
D)shell vial assay.
Q3) During viral assembly, viral envelopes are acquired
A)by production of envelope constituents by host cellular DNA.
B)as the virion buds from a host cell membrane.
C)through replication of viral nucleic acid.
D)as host cell lysis produces many membrane fragments.
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Intravascular bloodstream infections
A)Condition wherein fungi are present in blood, occurring primarily in immunosuppressed patients and in those with serious or terminal illness
B)The action of bacteria being carried, usually to all organs of the host, where they may grow, invade normal tissue, and produce toxic products
C)A temporary, incidental presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
D)The situation in which organisms are released into the bloodstream at a noncontinuous rate
E)Infections that originate within the cardiovascular system
Q2) Infective endocarditis, mycotic aneurysm, suppurative thrombophlebitis, and intravenous, catheter-associated bacteremia are
A)within the vascular system.
B)caused by organisms that are present in the bloodstream at a fairly constant rate.
C)continuous bacteremias.
D)extremely serious and considered life-threatening.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Streptococcus pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infections among
A)previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)children of school age.
Q2) Evaluation of the quality of the sputum specimen sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture is best done by
A)measuring the amount of mucous found.
B)checking for mucous or blood.
C)examining microscopically via Gram-stained smear for leukocytes.
D)examining microscopically via Gram-stained smear for squamous epithelial cells.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is
A)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B)Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
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52
Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Stomatitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Pharyngitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) The most common source of infection in the central nervous system is A)hematogenous spread.
B)infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C)organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in central nervous system structures.
D)bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
Q2) An inflammation of the brain parenchyma usually a result of viral infection is called A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
E)meningitis.
Q3) The innermost membrane layer surrounding the brain and spinal column is called A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Orbital cellulitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q2) Orbital cellulitis
A) Haemophilus influenzae and S. pneumoniae
B) Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C) S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and P. aeruginosa
D) Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E) Chlamydia
F) Actinomyces or Propionibacterium
G) S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and S. pneumoniae
Q3) Dacryoadenitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
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Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the A)digestive tract.
B)upper respiratory tract.
C)urinary tract.
D)genital tract.
E)lower respiratory tract.
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract is
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeasts.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Bartholinitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., peptostreptococci, Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enterics
G)Mumps virus
Q2) An infection of the vaginal mucosa resulting in abnormal discharge and an offensive odor or itching is referred to as
A)chorioamnionitis.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)vaginitis.
Q3) The flora of the female genital tract
A)consists primarily of staphylococci, corynebacteria, and Neisseria.
B)consists primarily of Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci, and staphylococci.
C)consists primarily of Streptococcus agalactiae and staphylococci.
D)varies with the pH and estrogen concentration of the mucosa.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) GN Broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Campy-thioglycollate broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of
A)anaerobic species.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Enterococcus.
D)Enterobacteriaceae.
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) Necrotizing fasciitis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) Meleney's ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q2) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q3) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Q1) The ability of the test under study to match the results of a standard test commonly known as the "gold standard" is
A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
Q2) A testing method that produces a result that reflects a true positive all of the time and reflects a false positive some of the time can be said to have A)accuracy.
B)predictive value negative.
C)high sensitivity and low specificity.
D)specificity.
E)predictive value positive.
Q3) Performance of a new molecular procedure alongside the methodology known as the "gold standard" is validating which characteristic?
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Sensitivity
D)Specificity
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Criteria that should be considered for rejection of specimens include
A)missing or inadequate information such as clinical diagnosis, current drug treatment, or other helpful facts.
B)illegible physician name.
C)improperly collected or stored specimen.
D)requests of multiple tests on one specimen.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Positive patient outcomes produced through quality management programs in the microbiology laboratory are
A)reduced hospitalization time.
B)reduced cost of stay.
C)reduced turn-around time for diagnosis of infection.
D)appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Continuous quality assurance in the microbiology laboratory includes
A)monitoring personnel performance and providing education.
B)instrument maintenance and monitoring.
C)checking the performance of media, reagents, and other products.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins) is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) The classification of a surgical wound as "dirty" refers to A)the lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.
B)surgery wounds done in emergency settings where cleansing was not done.
C)a surgical wound that has become grossly infected.
D)the large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.
Q3) A phenotypic technique that examines the ability of bacteriophages (viruses capable of infecting and lysing bacterial cells) to attack certain strains is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
Q3) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
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