Medical Laboratory Science
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is a multidisciplinary course focused on the theoretical knowledge and practical skills necessary to analyze body fluids, tissues, and other specimens to diagnose diseases, monitor treatments, and promote health. The course encompasses clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, molecular diagnostics, and blood banking, emphasizing laboratory procedures, safety protocols, quality assurance, and the interpretation of laboratory data. Students gain hands-on experience with laboratory equipment, develop problem-solving abilities, and learn to collaborate with healthcare professionals, preparing them for essential roles in clinical and research laboratory settings.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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1245 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) Taxonomy can be described as a system that:
A)classifies,names,and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner.
B)classifies microorganisms,based on their genetic makeup.
C)classifies microorganisms,based on their phenotypic makeup.
D)classifies microorganisms,based on their cellular and colonial traits.
Answer: A
Q2) An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory.This is an example of which phenotypic property?
A)Subcellular properties
B)Antigenic properties
C)Resistant profiles
D)Nucleic acid sequence analysis
Answer: B
Q3) The difference between a subspecies and biotype is:
A)a subspecies has the same genetic makeup.
B)a subspecies has a differential expression of the same genes.
C)a subspecies is genetically different than the type species.
D)a biotype and subspecies are the same.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) The enzyme that adds nucleotide bases to each growing daughter strand in the replication process is called:
A)replication enzymes.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)insertion sequence enzymes.
D)transcriptase.
Answer: B
Q2) Pieces of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)that move from one genetic element to another and contain genes for movement and genes for other features are called:
A)transposons.
B)insertion sequences.
C)plasmids.
D)chromatoids.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) A human infection that results from a microorganism that primarily infects animal populations is referred to as a(n)_________ infection.
A)accidental
B)zoonotic
C)secondary
D)vector
Answer: B
Q2) IgG is the:
A)first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.
B)antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.
C)antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.
D)second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) The laboratory receives a blood soaked gauze pad with some tissue wrapped in it for culture in a sterile container.The proper disposal of the material will include:
A)placement in the appropriate biohazard container.
B)placement in the garbage as long as it is enclosed in the sterile container.
C)treatment with a disinfectant prior to disposal in the biohazard container.
D)placement in the appropriate biohazard container and sterilization for contamination with organic material.
Q2) Optimal protection of specimen,personnel,and environment is accomplished with which class of biological safety cabinet?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Class IV
Q3) Standard Precautions include:
A)using barrier devices to prevent exposure to skin and mucous membranes.
B)recapping needles by hand.
C)storing drinks but not food in laboratory refrigerators.
D)discarding sharps in plastic biohazard bags.
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6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose?
A)To determine the organism's genetic makeup
B)To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
C)To determine the type of flora in the throat and stool specimens
D)To determine the organism's colonial morphologic features
Q2) Which type of media is designed to distinguish microorganisms on the basis of certain growth characteristics?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q3) Holding media,such as Stuart's medium and Amie's transport medium,are used to:
A)maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen.
B)support the growth and multiplication of any pathogenic organisms that are present.
C)prevent clotting of specimens such as blood,bone marrow,and synovial fluid.
D)allow pathogenic organisms to grow while nonpathogenic organisms die.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) In microscopy,resolution can be defined as the:
A)magnification power.
B)extent to which detail in the magnified object is maintained.
C)ability of objects to stand out from the background.
D)ability to see objects against a black background.
Q2) An organism such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis would absorb which stain in its cell wall?
A)Crystal violet
B)Methylene blue
C)Carbolfuchsin
D)Malachite green
Q3) The most critical step in the Gram stain is the application of the:
A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) The role of the agar ingredient in culture medium is to:
A)provide a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism.
B)solidify the medium and provide a stable culture surface.
C)sterilize the medium and prevent contamination.
D)support the growth of only pathogenic organisms.
Q2) Which medium can be described as containing crystal violet dye to inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria and fungi and allows many types of gram-negative bacilli to grow?
A)Thayer-Martin agar
B)MacConkey agar
C)PEA
D)Hektoen enteric agar
Q3) Increased concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO )(5% to 10%)and approximately 15% oxygen (O )produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Which of the following steps are crucial for the success of a nucleic acid amplification test,such as PCR?
A)Nucleic acid purification
B)Fluorescent resonance energy transfer (FRET)
C)Melting temperature analysis
D)Nucleic acid sequencing
Q2) An organism whose genetic makeup is 50% C-G bonds would have a(n)_________ melting temperature (Tm),compared with an organism with 20% C-G bonds.
A)higher
B)lower
C)equal
D)similar
Q3) The enzyme that has the ability to synthesize DNA from ribonucleic acid (RNA)is called:
A)DNA polymerase.
B)RNAse.
C)helicase.
D)reverse transcriptase.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) The precipitin test that is widely used for detecting antibodies against fungal infection is referred to as:
A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) Neutralizing antibodies are those that function by:
A)attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement.
B)binding to and blocking surface receptors for host cells.
C)attaching to the surface of pathogens and making the pathogens more amenable to ingestion by phagocytic cells.
D)attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by chemotaxis.
Q3) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Antimicrobial agents that usually kill target organisms are said to be:
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)antagonistic.
Q2) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q3) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q4) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
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Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) As a result of the organism going through several doubling generations of growth before inhibition,a haze of bacterial growth occurs on the agar around the disk.This phenomenon,which should be ignored,can be observed when testing which class of antibiotics?
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Sulfonamides
C)Penicillins
D)Cephalosporins
Q2) A bacterial suspension of 1.5× 10 colony-forming units (CFUs)/mL is comparable with which McFarland standard?
A)0.5
B)1.0
C)1.5
D)2.0
Q3) For clinical decision-making carbapenemase production should be detected using:
A)MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry.
B)Modified Hodge test or Carba NP test.
C)molecular methods for specific carbapenemases.
D)routine AST methods using current CLSI interpretive criteria.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive,catalase-positive cocci would likely be the:
A)penicillin test.
B)Gram stain.
C)oxidase test.
D)coagulase test.
Q2) The most frequent agent of nosocomial bacteremia is:
A)catalase-negative micrococci.
B)coagulase-positive staphylococci.
C)catalase-negative stomatococci.
D)coagulase-negative staphylococci.
Q3) Which virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares,perineum,and other skin sites of healthy people,especially in the hospital setting?
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)S.intermedius
C)S.aureus
D)All Micrococcaceae
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The bacterial species that can be described as able to grow in 6.5% sodium chloride (NaCl)and 40% bile,is part of the normal fecal flora of animals and humans,displays g hemolysis,and is a major cause of nosocomial infections is:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
Q2) S.pneumoniae can be described as:
A)resistant to bile and optochin.
B) -hemolytic on sheep blood agar
C)CAMP positive
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
Q3) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The microbiologist identified an organism that produces large -hemolytic colonies on blood agar and appears as a gram-variable rod on Gram staining.In order to further identify the organism,the microbiologist should:
A)no further identification is necessary.
B)complete a biochemical panel and antibiotic sensitivity.
C)complete a biochemical panel,no antibiotic sensitivity is warranted.
D)report the organism as Bacillus spp.
Q2) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
Q3) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A)5% sheep blood
B)PLET acetate
C)bicarbonate
D)urea
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Patients who are immunocompromised and women who are pregnant should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style,feta,Brie,Camembert,and blue-veined cheeses to prevent:
A)food-borne listeriosis.
B)staphylococcal food poisoning.
C)gastric gangrene.
D)Salmonella infection.
Q2) After 48 hours of incubation,black colonies with a dark brown halo are observed on Tinsdale agar.What type of toxin does this organism produce?
A)Emetic toxin
B)Exotoxin
C)Enterotoxin
D)Endotoxin
Q3) Bacteria described as being coryneform have which of the following morphologic features?
A)Squared rods with squared ends arranged in pairs
B)Short gram-positive cocci in branching chains
C)Resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)Long branching gram-positive bacilli
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) To test the validity of TSI media,quality control should be performed using which two organisms?
A)Gardnerella and Lactobacillus
B)Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella
C)Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus
D)Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium
Q2) The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will reveal large:
A)squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods.
B)numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C)numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D)pleomorphic gram-negative rods with many leukocytes.
Q3) Which organism is nonhemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar but hemolytic on human blood?
A)Weissella confusa
B)A.haemolyticum
C)Lactobacillus spp.
D)G.vaginalis
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?
A)Mycetoma
B)Lymphocutaneous infections
C)Skin abscesses or cellulites
D)Invasive pulmonary infections
Q2) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface,which are called _____ hyphae.
A)surface
B)substrate
C)aerial
D)topical
Q3) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called _____ hyphae.
A)surface
B)substrate
C)aerial
D)topical
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Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) E.coli would appear what color on HE agar?
A)Green
B)Green with a black center
C)Yellow
D)Yellow with a black center
Q2) A gram-negative bacillus that is hydrogen sulfide (H S)-positive,citrate-positive,spot indole-negative,and associated with gastroenteritis in the United States is most likely:
A)K.pneumoniae.
B)P.vulgaris.
C)Salmonella enteritidis.
D)S.sonnei.
Q3) This organism,belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae,grows best at 25°C to 30°C.Domestic and wild rats and other animals can carry this organism.What is the medium of choice?
A)MacConkey agar
B)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD)agar
C)Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar
D)Hektoen enteric (HE)agar
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Of the following species,which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?
A)Pseudomonas luteola
B)Acinetobacter spp.
C)Pseudomonas oryzihabitans
D)Bordetella trematum
Q2) Which organism is oxidase-negative,oxidizes glucose,and is a nonlactose fermenter?
A)Escherichia
B)Pseudomonas
C)Acinetobacter
D)Moraxella
Q3) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by: A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)nitrate reduction.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following groups of bacteria have Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)guidelines that describe specific testing methods and interpretative standards for susceptibility reporting?
A)A.facilis and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B)P.fluorescens and R.mannitolilytica
C)P.aeruginosa and B.pseudomallei
D)B.cepacia and B.vesicularis
Q2) A convenient and reliable identification scheme for P.aeruginosa involves which of the following conventional tests?
A)Oxidase,triple sugar iron (TSI)slant,growth at 42°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
B)Catalase,lysine iron agar (LIA)slant,growth at 42°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
C)Oxidase,TSI slant,growth at 24°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
D)Catalase,TSI slant,growth at 42°C on sheep blood agar or blood trypticase soy agar
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar,oxidizes glucose and xylose,and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?
A)Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
B)Paracoccus yeei
C)Rhizobium radiobacter
D)Shewanella putrefaciens
Q2) Which organism is a nonlactose-fermenter that oxidizes glucose and xylose and also morphologically resembles colonies of Enterobacteriaceae?
A)CDC group Ic
B)O.anthropi
C)S.putrefaciens
D)A.xylosoxidans
Q3) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism,that rarely causes human infection,grows poorly at 35°C;however,grows optimally between 20°C and 25°C?
A)Psychrobacter pulmonis
B)A.xylosoxidans
C)R.radiobacter
D)S.putrefaciens
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Chapter 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The natural habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium is:
A)environment.
B)animal oral and respiratory flora.
C)environment,cold climates.
D)human normal flora.
Q2) Neonates and individuals who are immunocompromised are at risk for developing meningitis if they contract which organism?
A)Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
B)Myroides odoratus
C)Sphingobacterium spp.
D)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)group EO-3
Q3) Which organism is indole and gelatin positive but does not have the ability to oxidize mannitol?
A)S.multivorum
B)CDC group O-1
C)E.brevis
D)E.meningoseptica
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) The biochemical description of B.bronchiseptica is:
A)oxidase positive,motile,and rapid urease positive.
B)indole positive,nonmotile,and has a fruity odor.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42°C.
D)nonmotile and both urea positive and phenylalanine deaminase positive.
Q3) The mode of transmission of A.denitrificans can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D)close contact with animals.
Q4) Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella are all:
A)urea positive.
B)oxidase negative.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)lactose fermenters.
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Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) The primary habitat for Vibrio spp.is:
A)freshwater.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q2) The transmission of Vibrio spp.to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Vibrio spp. ,Aeromonas spp. ,Plesiomonas shigelloides,and Chromobacterium violaceum?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are limited to the gastrointestinal tract.
C)Habitats are mostly soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to soil.
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Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Oxidase-positive,glucose-positive (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q2) A yellow-pigmented,gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive,motile by wet mount,and has the ability to oxidize glucose,xylose,and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Sphingomonas
Q3) When performing quality control on motility media,which of the following organisms should be used?
A)Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)group IIc and CDC group IIe
C)CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D)CDC group IIh and A.facilis
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Moraxella
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Q1) Which of the following tests can be performed to differentiate the two subspecies of Neisseria elongata and glycolytica?
A)Catalase
B)Nitrate reduction
C)DNase
D)Growth in nutrient broth
Q2) True cocci,such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella catarrhalis,can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many -lactam antimicrobial agents.
D)performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)test.
Q3) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections,primarily of the respiratory tract,is:
A)M.catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
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28
Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) E.corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A)pink pigmentation.
B)grapelike odor.
C)large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D)bleachlike odor.
Q2) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A)E.corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B)W.virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C)B.zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D)E.corrodens and W.virosa
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic,oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar,which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
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Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin,it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
Q3) Which test is used to differentiate P.multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A)Indole
B)Catalase
C)Nitrate
D)Sucrose
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Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) To test the validity of catalase reagent,which two organisms should be used?
A)A.actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B)C.hominis and A.aphrophilus
C)K.denitrificans and K.kingae
D)Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Q2) K.denitrificans,which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar,also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?
A)Capnocytophaga spp.
B)C.hominis
C)A.aphrophilus
D)N.gonorrhoeae
Q3) Which organism is slightly a-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A)K.kingae
B)C.hominis
C)A.suis
D)Capnocytophaga spp.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) Growth of most Haemophilus species in culture is enhanced by:
A)incubation at 33°C to 35°C.
B)high humidity.
C)5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO ).
D)enriched special media.
Q2) H.ducreyi requires what special media to grow?
A)Heart infusion-based agar,supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
B)Mueller-Hinton-based chocolate agar,supplemented with 1% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
C)Heart infusion-based chocolate agar,supplemented with 10% fetal bovine serum and vancomycin
D)Mueller-Hinton-based agar,supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
Q3) Chancroid is the sexually transmitted disease caused by:
A)H.influenzae.
B)Haemophilus ducreyi.
C)H.aphrophilus.
D)Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species,which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A)B.bacilliformis
B)B.henselae
C)B.elizabethae
D)B.clarridgeiae
Q2) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
Q3) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Wright's stain
C)Trichrome stain
D)Warthin-Starry silver stain
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33
Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) A gram-negative,spiral-shaped organism is isolated from a stool sample that was hippurate-positive,catalase-positive,susceptible to nalidixic acid,and resistant to cephalothin.The organism can be identified as:
A)Campylobacter coli.
B)C.jejuni subsp.doylei.
C)C.jejuni subsp.jejuni.
D)C.fetus subsp.fetus.
Q2) Antimicrobial therapy for H.pylori infection consists of:
A)penicillin,gentamycin,and imipenem.
B)clindamycin,ceftriazone,and carbapenem.
C)A proton pump inhibitor,clarithromycin,and metronidazole. D)azithromycin alone.
Q3) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?
A)37°C under microaerobic conditions
B)37°C under anaerobic conditions
C)42°C under microaerobic conditions
D)42°C under anaerobic conditions
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Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as:
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q2) The natural habitat of L.pneumophila is:
A)freshwater streams.
B)the upper respiratory tract of humans and animals.
C)the large intestine of humans and animals.
D)foods contaminated by soil.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining,thin gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A)cattle.
B)sheep or goats.
C)swine.
D)dogs.
Q3) Facultative,intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A)be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
Q4) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) Which of the following toxins contributes to the virulence of B.pertussis and works by hemolyzing red cells and activating cyclic adenosine monophosphate,which inactivates several types of host immune cells?
A)Endotoxin
B)Pertussis toxin
C)Tracheal cytotoxin
D)Adenylate cyclase toxin
Q2) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious,acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:
A)Brucella spp.
B)Bordetella spp.
C)Pasteurella spp.
D)Francisella spp.
Q3) Acceptable specimens for the detection of B.pertussis are:
A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swabs.
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Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
Q2) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
Q3) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is: A)blood.
B)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C)lymph nodes.
D)urine.
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
Q2) Rat-bite fever caused by S.minus can be differentiated from that caused by S.moniliformis by:
A)chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and often severe joint pains.
B)a granulomatous lesion.
C)septic arthritis.
D)endocarditis.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) The differentiation of the similar M.catarrhalis and Neisseria can be best accomplished by:
A)examination of Gram stain of the colony.
B)vancomycin susceptibility testing.
C)the oxidase test.
D)carbohydrate utilization testing.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding the pathogenesis of N.cinerea?
A)N.cinerea is a leading cause of fatal bacterial meningitis.
B)Virulence factors include pili,capsule formation,and endotoxin.
C)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)and thrombocytopenia are complications of infection.
D)N.cinerea is commonly encountered as a contaminant in clinical specimens.
Q3) The second most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection in the United States,according to the CDC,is:
A)M.catarrhalis.
B)N.gonorrhoeae.
C)N.meningitidis.
D)HIV.
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound is:
A)Is acceptable,however an aspirate would not contain contaminating flora
B)Is acceptable,and is the optimal specimen for anaerobic culture
C)Is unacceptable,due to the high level of potential contaminating flora
D)Is unacceptable,because the sample is not considered anaerobic
Q2) An acceptable specimen for anaerobic culture is:
A)nasopharyngeal swab.
B)tissue obtained at biopsy.
C)small bowel contents.
D)catheterized urine.
Q3) Cervical swab is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q4) To isolate anaerobic gram-positive organisms,which of the following media should be used?
A)Anaerobic blood agar
B)Cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA)
C)Laked kanamycin-vancomycin (LKV)blood agar
D)Anaerobic phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Pigmented Prevotella
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q2) B.fragilis group
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q3) The most likely identification of kanamycin-sensitive and anaerobic gram-negative bacilli that fluoresce a chartreuse color is:
A)Fusobacterium spp.
B)nonpigmented Prevotella.
C)B.ureolyticus.
D)Porphyromonas spp.
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Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) Quality control is performed to test the validity of catalase production at 68°C.M.fortuitum and M.tuberculosis are used,which yield a positive and negative reaction,respectively.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Both organisms were most likely incubated at the wrong temperature.
B)Both organisms were most likely incubated on the wrong media before testing.
C)The catalase reagent is most likely expired.
D)No discrepancy is present.M.fortuitum is catalase-positive and M.tuberculosis is catalase-negative at 68°C.
Q2) Slow-growing NTM whose colonies are pigmented when grown in the dark or the light are referred to as:
A)scotochromogens.
B)photochromogens.
C)nonphotochromogens.
D)chromogenicums.
Q3) On Gram stain,mycobacteria appear as:
A)slender,well-stained gram-positive bacilli.
B)poorly stained,beaded,gram-positive bacilli.
C)gram-variable to gram-positive bacilli.
D)partially invisible gram-negative bacilli.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Binary fission within vacuoles divides which of the following forms of Chlamydia?
A)RB
B)EB
C)Replicate body
D)Initial body
Q2) The most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is:
A)Rickettsia rickettsii.
B)Chlamydia trachomatis.
C)Klebsiella granulomatis.
D)Coxiella burnetii.
Q3) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages,which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein,in almost every organ system.Without treatment,this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)IFA.
C)immunoblotting.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?
A)U.urealyticum
B)M.pneumoniae
C)M.hominis
D)M.genitalium
Q2) Which group of drugs is effective against M.pneumoniae infections?
A) -Lactams
B)Sulfonamides
C)Cephalosporins
D)Fluoroquinolones
Q3) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma genitalium
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Long,slender,helically curved,gram-negative bacilli with tight coils are identified as belonging to which species?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Coxiella
Q2) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by the appearance of a chancre is known as __________ syphilis.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)late
D)tertiary
Q3) A self-limiting illness and the most common clinical syndrome associated with leptospirae that includes fever,headache,myalgia,and aseptic meningitis in the immune stage is called:
A)icteric leptospirosis.
B)anicteric leptospirosis.
C)Weil's disease.
D)syphilis.
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Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) Which of the following is currently the only fixative available that does not contain formalin,polyvinyl alcohol (PVA),or mercury?
A)Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
B)Sodium acetate-acetic acid-formalin (SAF)
C)ECOFIX
D)TOTAL-FIX
Q2) A 7-year-old girl was at summer camp and dove into the lake many times.She complained that water went up her nose a few times.Several days later she is unresponsive and comatose and rushed to the hospital.A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen is drawn,and several motile amebae are observed.She is most likely suffering from an infection with which of the following parasites?
A)Plasmodium vivax
B)Naegleria fowleri
C)Ascaris lumbricoides
D)Hymenolepis nana
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Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) Which of the following flagellates has a single nucleus in the cyst and the typical curved,cytostomal fibril,which is called a shepherd's crook?
A)G.duodenalis
B)C.mesnili
C)D.fragilis
D)E.hominis
Q2) Asexual amplification,called merogony,is associated with the life cycle of which organism?
A)Cyclospora
B)Cryptosporidium
C)Toxoplasma
D)Sarcocystis
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with a severe intestinal disease caused by E.histolytica.Which of the following treatments should be administered?
A)Diloxanide furoate
B)Metronidazole
C)Metronidazole plus iodoquinol
D)Iodoquinol and diloxanide furoate
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Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) P.malariae
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
Q2) P.vivax is suspected in a patient who has been traveling for months in the tropics.Blood was collected in a lavender top tube;however,the slide was not prepared for examination until the next day because the specimen came in on the night shift.Once the slide was prepared and examined,Schüffner dots were not visible.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Schüffner dots are not characteristic of P.vivax infections.
B)The blood film was most likely incorrectly prepared.
C)The blood should have been collected in a red top tube.
D)The blood remained in the tube too long,yielding false-negative results.
Q3) T.rypanosoma cruzi
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) Tachyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q2) Primates,as well as dogs,sheep,and horses,have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?
A)N.fowleri
B)Acanthamoeba spp.
C)Toxoplasma gondii
D)Balamuthia mandrillaris
Q3) The troph of the motile T.vaginalis organism measures 7 to 23 mm long and 5 to 15 mm wide.The recommended treatment of choice for this urogenital infection is:
A)tetracycline.
B)metronidazole.
C)penicillin.
D)ketoconazole.
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) The larvae of the worm S.stercoralis are the most common found in human stool specimens.Depending on the fecal transit time through the intestine and the patient's condition,both rhabditiform and rare filariform may be present.The treatment of choice for uncomplicated infections is:
A)metronidazole.
B)ivermectin.
C)pyrantel pamoate.
D)combination antihelminthic and board-spectrum antibiotics.
Q2) A 4-year-old boy attended day care 3 days per week.He was irritable,and his parents noticed that he had persistent perianal itching.A sticky paddle was pressed against the perianal region and sent to the laboratory for testing.The eggs microscopically observed would most likely have which one of the following morphologic features?
A)Long with a short buccal cavity
B)Thin shell with internal granules
C)Bipolar plugs
D)Flat-sided,football-shaped
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Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) Swine
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) Crabs
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q4) Snails
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
52
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Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) Brugia spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q2) O.volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q3) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made,and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:
A)W.bancrofti.
B)Onchocerca volvulus.
C)Loa loa.
D)Brugia malayi.
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Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The double-pored tapeworm,Diphyllobothrium caninum,consisting of many small proglottids,measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A)dog.
B)cat.
C)flea.
D)human.
Q2) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is: A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
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Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism,E.multilocularis,are: A)foxes.
B)coyotes.
C)rodents.
D)humans.
Q2) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
Q3) In E.granulosus infections,the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A)Stomach
B)Brain
C)Intestines
D)Liver
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Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A)fish.
B)snails.
C)crabs.
D)crayfish.
Q2) The adult form of the fluke,Fasciolopsis buski,is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A)snails.
B)birds.
C)rodents.
D)dogs.
Q3) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces are best described as:
A)cercariae,miracidium larva,metacercariae,and redia.
B)redia,metacercariae,cercariae,and miracidium larva.
C)miracidium larva,redia,cercariae,and metacercariae.
D)metacercariae,miracidium larva,cercariae,and redia.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Chinese liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q2) Southeast Asian liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q3) Sheep liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q4) Lung fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
57
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Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 µm long by 40 to 70 µm wide and have a sharp,pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?
A)Ascites fluid
B)Sputum
C)Bile
D)Urine
Q2) An egg of the organism of S.mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel;however,his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Metrifonate should have been administered.
B)Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C)Steroids should have been initially administered.
D)A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
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Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) Microscopically,this fungus appears barrel shaped with thick walls,which best describes which type of conidia?
A)Macroconidia
B)Chlamydoconidia
C)Arthroconidia
D)Blastoconidia
Q2) All mold cultures and clinical samples should always be handled in a Class _____ level biosafety cabinet.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q3) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:
A)P.marneffei.
B)S.schenckii.
C)Epidermophyton.
D)H.capsulatum.
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Chapter 58: Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Cigar-shaped yeast cells
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) Nonbudding,thick-walled spherule
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q3) Which genus is involved in infections of the skin and nails only?
A)Microsporum
B)Epidermophyton
C)Trichophyton
D)Scopulariopsis
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) An agricultural worker is punctured by a tool used in the field.An infection,characterized by the development of a papule that is similar to a cauliflower appearance,develops.The worker is most likely suffering from which type of infection?
A)Mycetoma
B)Chromoblastomycosis
C)Tinea nigra
D)Black piedra
Q2) Conidia are usually single celled and exhibit prominent attachment scars (disjunctors).
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
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Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
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Q1) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q2) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A)Metronidazole
B)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D)Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
Q3) In patients who do not have HIV,which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?
A)Malaria
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) A fungal infection found mostly in the tropics and temperate regions is characterized by the development of soft,yellow or pale-brown aggregations around hair shafts in the axillary,facial,genital,and scalp regions.The fungus that would most likely be isolated is:
A)Candida.
B)Malassezia.
C)Cryptococcus.
D)Trichosporon.
Q2) If cornmeal agar is set up and chlamydoconidia are produced,the organism is most likely:
A)C.krusei.
B)C.glabrata.
C)C.albicans.
D)C.tropicalis.
Q3) White piedra
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)C.albicans
C)M.furfur
D)C.neoformans
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Chapter 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) Inhibits protein synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) The agency that provides documents and sets standards for antifungal susceptibility testing is the:
A)National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Library Sciences (NAACLS).
B)Association of Specialized and Cooperative Library Agencies (ASCLS).
C)College of American Pathologists (CAP).
D)Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI).
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Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Some viruses have the ability to stimulate uncontrolled growth of the host cells,resulting in cancer.Which virus has oncogenic properties?
A)Measles
B)Papilloma
C)Retroviruses
D)Influenza
Q2) Primary cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
Q3) List these six steps of viral replication in order of appearance.
Assembly
Uncoating
Attachment
Release
Synthesis
Penetration
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Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) Adenoviruses are responsible for causing diseases such as keratoconjunctivitis,pneumonia,hemorrhagic cystitis,and gastroenteritis in children.Transmission is usually via:
A)contact with rodent urine.
B)respiratory secretions.
C)arthropod vector.
D)sexual contact.
Q2) Myocarditis
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
Q3) Macropapular rash
A)Yellow fever
B)Dengue fever
C)West Nile virus
D)Hepatitis C
Q4) Hand-foot-mouth
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) Which type of assay uses a variety of endpoint measurements to determine whether the virus is inhibited by the antiviral drug or is demonstrating drug resistance?
A)Phenotypic
B)Genotypic
C)NA inhibition assay
D)Enzyme immunoassay
Q2) When performing antiviral susceptibility testing,a standard inoculum must be used.If the inoculum quantity is too large,then the isolate will appear:
A)susceptible.
B)intermediate.
C)resistant.
D)indeterminate.
Q3) Ribavirin
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) If tachyzoites are found circulating in blood,then the infection would be classified as a:
A)parasitemia.
B)bacteremia.
C)viremia.
D)fungemia.
Q2) A patient who has an existing heart condition has dental surgery but neglects to inform her dentist of this disorder.She later develops endocarditis as a consequence of the procedure.Which of the following organisms most likely caused endocarditis?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Streptococcus mutans
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q3) Which virus found in the blood involves infecting certain T lymphocytes and possibly macrophages?
A)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C)Rubella virus
D)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Respiratory syncytial virus is one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults older than 30 years of age is ___ pneumoniae.
A)Mycoplasma
B)Chlamydophila
C)Streptococcus
D)Klebsiella
Q3) The nasal hairs,convoluted passages,and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates:
A)nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B)promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C)can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D)reduce colonization of normal bacterial flora.
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Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Vincent angina
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) An inflammation of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity caused mostly by herpes simplex virus is:
A)laryngitis.
B)pharyngitis.
C)Vincent angina.
D)stomatitis.
Q3) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa,tongue,or oropharynx by Candida spp.is:
A)pharyngitis.
B)Vincent angina.
C)rhinitis.
D)thrush.
Page 70
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) A condition characterized by concomitant meningitis that occurs with encephalitis is called:
A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
Q2) An inflammation of the brain parenchyma that is usually a result of viral infection is:
A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)meningitis.
Q3) Proper storage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture includes:
A)refrigeration for up to 23 hours.
B)freezing at 70°C.
C)incubation at 35°C.
D)freezing at temperatures above 70°C.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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Q1) Trachoma
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
Q2) Dacryoadenitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q3) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Moraxella lacunata.
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Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Acute urethral syndrome
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria,frequency,and urgency,but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma,calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis),and pelvis
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeast.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)Corynebacteria.
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Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Chorioamnionitis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by blood-borne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q2) The type of vaginitis referred to as bacterial vaginosis is thought to be caused by:
A)Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)S.agalactiae.
C)Lactobacillus spp.
D)Enterococcus spp.
Q3) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called: A)PID.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)chorioamnionitis.
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Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Campylobacter thioglycollate broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for Campylobacter spp.
Q2) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be incubated in:
A)a capnophilic atmosphere at 42°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B)a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C)regular room air at 35°C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D)a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
Q3) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) An abscess that begins as a red nodule in a hair follicle that ultimately becomes painful and full of pus is a:
A)folliculitis.
B)furuncle.
C)carbuncle.
D)erythrasma.
Q2) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:
A)Veillonella spp.
B)Clostridium spp.
C)Prevotella spp.
D)Fusobacterium spp.
Q3) Folliculitis,furuncles,and carbuncles are localized abscesses either in or around hair follicles.Which organism is the most common etiologic agent for all three infections?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Escherichia coli
D)Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Human bites and animal bites caused by ________ and _________,respectively,can ultimately lead to an underlying bone infection.
A)Eikenella corrodens;Actinomyces spp.
B)Pasteurella multocida;Peptostreptococcus spp.
C)Prevotella spp. ;S.aureus
D)E.corrodens;P.multocida
Q2) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
(CAPD)are caused by:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Q3) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture,provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?
A)Heparin
B)Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
C)Citrate
D)Coumadin
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Nonfastidious (rapidly growing),aerobic bacterial organisms can be saved up to 1 year on __________ slants.
A)Mycosel agar
B)MacConkey agar
C)Löwenstein-Jensen medium
D)trypticase soy agar (TSA)
Q2) Test performance,tolerance limits,reagent preparation,required quality control,result reporting,and references are areas included in the:
A)Total Quality Management Manual.
B)Standard Operating Procedure Manual (SOPM).
C)Continuous Quality Improvement Manual.
D)Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)Manual.
Q3) Challenging the wasted steps and eliminating all of the waste
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
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Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines the ability of bacteriophages,which are viruses capable of infecting and lysing bacterial cells,to attack certain strains is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)bacteriocin typing.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?
A)H.influenzae
B)Mycoplasma pneumonia
C)Parvovirus B19
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) The classification of a surgical wound as dirty refers to a:
A)lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.
B)surgical wound in an emergency setting in which the cleansing protocol was not followed.
C)surgical wound that has become grossly infected.
D)large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.
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Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A)covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)covert event is announced,and an overt event is not announced.
C)overt event is announced,and a covert event is not announced.
D)overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
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