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Medical Jurisprudence is a comprehensive course that explores the intersection of law and medicine, focusing on the legal responsibilities and ethical duties of medical practitioners. It covers topics such as consent, confidentiality, medical negligence, malpractice, forensic medicine, and the legal aspects of medical documentation and death certification. The course equips students with a thorough understanding of the legal framework governing healthcare, the medico-legal implications of clinical practice, and the role of medical professionals in legal settings, preparing them to navigate complex legal situations effectively and ethically in their future medical careers.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Law and Ethics 5th Edition by
Bonnie F. Fremgen
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350 Verified Questions
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Q1) Bioethicists are
A)specialists in the field of medical law.
B)specialists who give thought to ethical concerns as they pertain to medicine and medical research.
C)researchers in medical technology.
D)all of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) An example of utilitarianism might include
A)an organ for transplant going to the person needing it the most.
B)providing Medicare for only those who need medical coverage.
C)a duty to provide healthcare to all Americans.
D)all of the above.
Answer: A
Q3) The purpose of medical professional organizations is to
A)define the laws of the profession.
B)punish medical professionals for breaking the law.
C)set ethical standards for practice within the profession.
D)determine salaries and benefits for medical professionals.
Answer: C
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Q1) Common law is established through A)court decision.
B)federal law.
C)state decision.
D)municipal decision.
Answer: A
Q2) The purpose of a constitution is to
A)set up a government.
B)define the power of the government to act.
C)set limits on the government's power.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) Congress is the ________ branch of the federal government for the United States.
A)executive
B)legislative
C)judicial
D)constitutional
Answer: B
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Q1) The medical practice acts
A)provide for a medical examining board in each state.
B)establish the baseline for practice of medicine in each state.
C)forbid the practice of medicine without a license.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) The practice used to control or minimize the incidence of problem behavior that might result in injury to patients and employees is
A)bonding.
B)risk management.
C)confidentiality.
D)guardian ad litem.
Answer: B
Q3) Requirements for medical licensure may include
A)proof of a successfully completed approved internship/residency program.
B)information about any past convictions or history of drug or alcohol abuse.
C)proof of medical malpractice insurance.
D)A and B.
Answer: D
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Q1) A person with the appropriate education who practices as a doctor of medicine or doctor of osteopathy is called a/an
A)allied health professional.
B)physician.
C)dentist.
D)all of the above.
Q2) A health maintenance organization (HMO)provides
A)healthcare services available for a predetermined fee per member by a limited group of providers.
B)no preventive care services.
C)healthcare services by requiring a large copayment.
D)healthcare services through a nonrestricted group of providers.
Q3) Benefits of a corporation include all of the following except
A)profit sharing for its members.
B)pension plans for its members.
C)insurance for its members.
D)protection from lawsuits for the corporation.
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Q1) The patient has a right to A)deny any treatment.
B)give informed consent for any treatment.
C)expect the appropriate standard of care.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Patient confidentiality does not apply in the case of A)HIV/AIDS.
B)any communicable disease.
C)allied health professionals.
D)the life or safety of the patient.
Q3) The physician,by law,must report to the state any person who A)is HIV or AIDS positive.
B)had been noncompliant.
C)refuses to pay for medical care.
D)all of the above.
Q4) A minor is one who
A)is less than 18 years of age (in most states).
B)is not considered competent to give consent for most treatments.
C)may have a child.
D)A and B.
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Q1) The reasonable person standard refers to the A)dereliction of duty.
B)damages.
C)duty of due care.
D)proximate cause.
Q2) When an employer lends an employee to someone else,this is called
A)comparative negligence.
B)respondeat superior.
C)the borrowed servant doctrine.
D)fraud.
Q3) Assumption of risk is the legal defense
A)used by the defendant in a case to prove innocence from injury.
B)that prevents the plaintiff from recovering damages if he or she accepts a risk associated with the activity.
C)that determines that the patient was fully or partly at fault for the injury,and no damages may be recovered.
D)that bases the recovery of damages by the plaintiff on the amount of fault of the defendant.
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Q1) Elder abuse may legally include all of the following except A)physical abuse.
B)exploitation.
C)verbal abuse.
D)abandonment.
Q2) Registration for physicians who administer controlled substances must be renewed every
A)2 years.
B)3 years.
C)4 years.
D)5 years.
Q3) Public duties for the physician include reporting A)births and still births.
B)deaths and injuries.
C)communicable illnesses or diseases.
D)all of the above.
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Q1) Under the Family and Medical Leave Act,the employee
A)must have worked for the employer for 6 months to be eligible.
B)must be returned to the same or equivalent position when he or she returns.
C)may have some loss of employment benefits when he or she returns.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)relates to A)debt collection.
B)patient "dumping."
C)leave of absence for pregnancy.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Laws regulating employment relationships,recruitment,placement,pay plans,benefits,penalties,and terminations are based primarily on A)longevity with the organization.
B)job performance.
C)desire to succeed in the organization.
D)education for the job.
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Q1) When preparing a copy of a medical record for a third party,
A)keep the copy and send the original.
B)make two copies and send the original.
C)keep the original and send a copy.
D)make a copy of the complete record and send it even when one part is requested.
Q2) The disadvantage of chronological documentation is
A)subjective data may be missing.
B)objective data may be missing.
C)medical problems may go undiscovered.
D)vital signs are not done.
Q3) The Privacy Act of 1974 protects private citizens from distribution of information about themselves by the federal government except for that which is received from A)hospitals.
B)Veterans Administration hospitals.
C)privately owned clinics.
D)Medicare or Medicaid.
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Q1) HIPAA law stipulates that the patient
A)may sue over privacy violations.
B)may not sue over privacy violations.
C)may register a complaint to the government.
D)A and C.
Q2) Wireless local area networks are used by physicians and nurses to
A)access bank accounts for patients who are hospitalized.
B)access patient records from central databases.
C)add patient observations and assessments to databases.
D)B and C.
Q3) Signed authorizations and any agreements with patients restricting disclosure of PHI should be retained for a period of
A)5 years.
B)6 years.
C)10 years.
D)the lifetime of the patient.
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Q1) The concern for the human subject in medical experimentation is the result of the A)Nuremberg Code.
B)Code of Hammurabi.
C)Declaration of Geneva.
D)Declaration of Helsinki.
Q2) Applied ethics relates to
A)religious beliefs.
B)healthcare professions.
C)common sense.
D)social utility.
Q3) The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
A)permits minors to allow posthumous use of organs through a type of written document.
B)permits competent adults to have organs donated by their parents.
C)permits competent adults to allow posthumous use of their organs through a written document.
D)requires all persons to be organ donors.
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Q1) Recommendations from the Roe v.Wade decision included all of the following except
A)first semester abortions should be performed in hospitals.
B)viability of the fetus is not required.
C)the woman should receive counseling before having the abortion.
D)the father's consent should be obtained.
Q2) The gestational period is the
A)time before conception.
B)time after birth.
C)time from conception to birth.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Castration or sterilization of another person without legal permission is considered to be
A)a misdemeanor.
B)legal.
C)assault and battery.
D)an automatic life sentence.
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Q1) Irreversible coma includes all of the following criteria except A)unreceptive and unresponsive to painful stimuli.
B)spontaneous movements or breathing.
C)no reflexes,with fixed dilated pupils.
D)lack of eye movement and deep tendon reflexes.
Q2) Prolonged absence of oxygen can result in A)neurological damage.
B)brain death.
C)cardiac death.
D)all of the above.
Q3) A treatment or procedure that is morally required is considered A)extraordinary.
B)ordinary.
C)appropriate.
D)B and C.
Q4) Justifications for euthanasia include A)individuals should have the right to determine the outcome of their lives.
B)there is no certainty regarding death.
C)modern technology may find a cure for a terminal disease.
D)there is value and dignity to every human life.
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Q1) Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act,which population is exempt from the requirement of health insurance coverage?
A)Those who fall below the poverty line
B)Those who are self-employed
C)Those who are unemployed
D)Those who have declared bankruptcy
Q2) What is a benefit of Medical Exchanges?
A)The ability for an individual to review and compare online plans offered
B)The ability for an individual to choose any health insurance desired
C)Federally-funded insurance provided is less expensive.
D)State-funded insurance provided allows for more choices.
Q3) What are health exchanges designed to offer?
A)Medical record organization
B)Medical record computerization
C)Requested health services
D)Essential health benefits
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