Medical Imaging Technology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Imaging Technology is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, techniques, and applications of imaging modalities used in modern medicine. The course covers foundational concepts in radiologic physics, image formation, and instrumentation, including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Students will learn about the anatomical and physiological basis for image interpretation, safety protocols, and quality assurance practices. Emphasis is placed on understanding the clinical significance of various imaging procedures, technological advancements, and the role of imaging specialists in patient diagnosis and care.
Recommended Textbook
Nuclear Medicine and PETCT Technology and Techniques 8th Edition by Kristen M. Waterstram
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Chapter 1: Mathematics and Statistics
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Q1) One radiologist is known to be a lax reader compared with another radiologist who is known to be a strict reader.In comparing these radiologists, how would one expect their sensitivity and specificity to compare?
A)The lax reader would have lower sensitivity and higher specificity.
B)The lax reader would have higher sensitivity and lower specificity.
C)The readers would be expected to have the same sensitivity and specificity.
D)Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Answer: B
Q2) A 5-ml sample of a standard diluted 1:10,000 produces 27,200 counts in the well counter.A 5-ml sample of patient plasma, counted for the same time as the diluted standard sample, produces 99,100 counts.What is the plasma volume?
A)10.8 liter
B)2.74 liter
C)1.73 liter
D)0.91 liter
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cell and Molecular Biology
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Q1) Which term describes a group of diseases in which cells no longer respond to the normal constraints placed on their proliferation and instead grow indefinitely?
A)Metastasis
B)Angiogenesis
C)Cancer
D)Mutation
Answer: C
Q2) CDK2 is the partner for both cyclins:
A)A and E.
B)D and E.
C)A and B.
D)D and B.
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following are viruses linked to cancer, EXCEPT
A)influenza A.
B)hepatitis B.
C)human papilloma virus (HPV).
D)Epstein-Barr.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Chemistry/biochemistry
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Q1) Sharing of electrons between two bonded elements forms a(an)
A)ionic bond.
B)covalent bond.
C)coordinate bond.
D)cooperative bond.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the simplest aromatic compound?
A)Benzene
B)Ethene
C)Ethanol
D)Methane
Answer: A
Q3) The chemical properties of a substance may be affected by a change in conditions.If this occurs, the change will
A)result in the formation of one or more "new" substances.
B)exhibit the initial properties of the substance.
C)always be irreversible.
D)result in a change of the physical state of the substance.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Radio-Chemistry/Radio-Pharmacology
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Q1) All of the following are commonly used PET radionuclides, EXCEPT A)(<sup>15</sup>O).
B)(<sup>13</sup>N).
C)(<sup>14</sup>C).
D)(<sup>18</sup>F).
Q2) Dipyridamole is administered to a patient as part of a pharmacological stress test.The patient has an onset of angina pectoris.To reverse this adverse reaction of the dipyridamole, the patient is given A)morphine.
B)aminophylline.
C)atropine.
D)nitroglycerin.
Q3) Bacterial endotoxin testing (BET) is used for A)sterility testing.
B)chemical impurity testing.
C)pyrogen testing.
D)determining expiration dates on kits.
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Chapter 5: Radiation Safety in Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) According to NRC regulations, radioactive waste from P-32
A)should be shipped for land burial.
B)should be returned to the manufacturer.
C)can be held for decay-in-storage.
D)should be flushed into the sanitary sewer.
Q2) It is determined that a health care worker could receive 300 millirem per year.According to NRC regulations, this worker
A)needs to be issued a personnel dosimeter.
B)does not need to be issued a personnel dosimeter.
C)needs to be issued a body and hand personnel dosimeter.
D)needs to be issued a pocket dosimeter.
Q3) Skin that is contaminated with a radioactive material should be washed with soap or a commercial radioactive decontaminating agent
A)vigorously under tepid water.
B)vigorously under cold water.
C)gently under tepid water.
D)gently under cold water.
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Chapter 6: Patient Care
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Q1) Parenteral routes of administration include all of the following EXCEPT
A)sublingual.
B)subcutaneous.
C)intramuscular.
D)intrathecal.
Q2) The six rights of a correct administration of a pharmaceutical include
A)the use of a generic drug.
B)following HIPAA regulations.
C)the right route.
D)an explanation of possible side effects.
Q3) A draw sheet is used with patients to
A)protect the bedding from possible patient incontinence.
B)provide added warmth.
C)provide added cushioning.
D)aid in patient transfer.
Q4) ROCM for CT images are used
A)to decrease levels of density in the tissues.
B)to visualize low-contrast tissues.
C)to visualize disease.
D)to blur areas that are not areas of interest.
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Chapter 7: Department Administration
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Q1) Licensure and certification are forms of
A)accreditation.
B)problem-solving techniques.
C)evaluation.
D)credentialing.
Q2) What are the three components of reimbursement?
A)Coverage, payment, and refund
B)Policy, procedure, and payment
C)Policy, coverage, and refund
D)Coding, coverage, and payment
Q3) All of these provide quality guidelines for nuclear medicine, EXCEPT
A)American College of Radiology.
B)The Joint Commission.
C)American Society of Radiologic Technologists.
D)Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Q4) The 4 P's of marketing are
A)production, promotion, placement, preparation.
B)preparation, production, practice, process.
C)product (service), pricing, place, promotion.
D)process, price, procurement, procedure.
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Chapter 8: Clinical Research
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Q1) Which term refers to the entity that accepts all responsibility for regulatory aspects of conducting the trial, including protection of human subjects and data integrity?
A)Principal investigator
B)Primary investigator
C)Clinical research associate
D)Sponsor
Q2) All of the following must be included within the protocol document, EXCEPT
A)purpose and objectives of the study.
B)number of patients to be included in the study.
C)description of the design.
D)expected outcomes of the trial.
Q3) A document that describes the objective(s), design, methodology, statistical considerations, and organization of the trial is the
A)informed consent.
B)source document.
C)protocol.
D)contract research organization.
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Chapter 9: Health Informatics in Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hardware magnification or zoom
A)decreases resolution.
B)increases noise.
C)only increases image size.
D)increases sensitivity.
Q2) The image density for each pixel is determined by
A)the gamma-ray counts stored within a pixel.
B)the ratio of the z pulse to the x and y pulse.
C)the counts detected minus the rollover counts.
D)size of the matrices in which the pixels configured.
Q3) In an 8-bit color image, the range of displayed color intensities would be
A)0 to 64.
B)0 to 100.
C)0 to 128.
D)0 to 255.
Q4) Software magnification
A)increases resolution.
B)decreases noise.
C)only increases image size.
D)increases sensitivity.
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Chapter 10: Physics of Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) An atom
A)is the smallest quantity of an element that retains all the chemical properties of that element.
B)can be broken into smaller particles to combine with other elements.
C)is the smallest particle of a chemical compound that retains all the chemical properties of that element.
D)is a form of electromagnetic radiation.
Q2) The part of the atom that is responsible for all chemical interactions with other atoms is
A)the proton.
B)the neutron.
C)the outermost electrons.
D)the innermost electrons.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of isotopes?
A)They have the same atomic number.
B)They have the same mass number.
C)They have the same number of neutrons.
D)They have the same chemical properties.
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Chapter 11: Instrumentation
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Q1) Intrinsic efficiency is defined as
A)the ratio of the number of detected events to the number of source emissions.
B)geometric efficiency and is defined as the fraction of emitted photons (gamma or x-rays) that hit the detector; it depends on the detector configuration and its distance from the source.
C)the fraction of gamma rays that are detected when they hit the detector; it depends on the thickness (t) and attenuation coefficient (\(\mu\)) of the detecting material.
D)the amount of blurring that is produced by an imaging system characterized by point spread function and line spread function.
Q2) In the reconstruction of SPECT images, segmenting refers to A)volume rendering.
B)determining the number of counts per pixel.
C)separating the organ from the background or nearby structures.
D)dividing an organ into different components.
Q3) In SPECT/CT imaging, it is best if the patient does shallow breathing throughout the scan.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: CT Physics and Instrumentation
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Q1) In an x-ray tube, when the milliamperes (mA) are increased:
A)Bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays increase.
B)Bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays decrease.
C)Bremsstrahlung x-rays increases and characteristic x-rays decrease.
D)Bremsstrahlung x-rays decrease and characteristic x-rays increase.
Q2) In an x-ray tube, of the energy applied to the system, the percentage of x-rays that exit is
A)1%.
B)10%.
C)50%.
D)99%.
Q3) In an x-ray tube, a high kVp results in
A)low-energy Bremsstrahlung x-rays.
B)a decrease in tungsten characteristic x-rays.
C)an increase in tungsten characteristic x-rays.
D)fewer Bremsstrahlung x-rays.
Q4) In high-performance CT scanners, the speed of the data transfer from the detector array determines the maximum resolution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Pet Instrumentation
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Q1) In a dedicated PET scanner, there is a photomultiplier tube (PMT) for
A)each crystal.
B)every other crystal.
C)a group of crystals.
D)every ring in crystals.
Q2) The standard uptake value is useful in
A)performing attenuation correction.
B)calculating scatter correction.
C)differentiating between malignant and benign tissue.
D)determining the time span between injection and scan.
Q3) In PET scanning, blank scans are performed
A)daily.
B)quarterly.
C)annually.
D)upon installation.
Q4) Whole-body imaging with a scanner in 3D mode can result in
A)decreased need for correction techniques.
B)increased pyramidal-shaped sensitivity.
C)reduced reconstruction time.
D)an increase in acquisition time.
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Chapter 14: Principles of Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) T1 is also referred to as MXY.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are true about spin-up nuclei EXCEPT
A)they are larger in number than spin-down nuclei.
B)they align parallel to the magnetic field.
C)they are of low energy.
D)they are cancelled out by spin-down nuclei.
Q3) The magnetic moment describes the magnetic field characteristics of the A)neutron.
B)nucleus.
C)cell.
D)proton.
Q4) If energy is delivered to the hydrogen nuclei at a different frequency than that of the Larmor frequency of the nucleus, then
A)resonance will occur.
B)resonance will not occur.
C)it will stop any resonance.
D)precession is increased.
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Chapter 15: Clinical Petct in Oncology
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Q1) Once the intravenous line is started for the FDG injection, the patient should
A)relax for 10 minutes and refrain from talking.
B)be positioned for imaging.
C)have a blood glucose level measured.
D)be instructed to return to the department in 1 hour for the procedure.
Q2) Which anatomic areas present with normal variations in FDG localization?
A)Mouth and salivary glands
B)Myocardium of the left ventricle
C)Extraocular muscles
D)All of these
Q3) Standard uptake values (SUVs) are useful in distinguishing between benign and malignant disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At the time of a PET scan, ideally the blood glucose level should not be above
A)60 mg/dL.
B)100 mg/dL.
C)120 mg/dL.
D)180 mg/dL.
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Chapter 16: Central Nervous System
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Q1) To produce high-resolution, low-noise images, the resolution in the images on a SPECT brain scan, the technologist will
A)use the electronic zoom.
B)use pre- and postprocessing filters.
C)perform the attenuation correction outside the ellipse.
D)use a transmission scan.
Q2) A patient is sent to the nuclear medicine department to have a CNS <sup>111</sup>In-DTPA study performed to
A)assess integrity of the blood-brain barrier.
B)assess cerebral spinal flow dynamics.
C)localize seizure focal points.
D)assess brain death.
Q3) The intrathecal injection for CSF imaging allows for the dose to be A)administered during a seizure.
B)administered into the subdural space.
C)administered into the subarachnoid space.
D)administered into the spinal cord.
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Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Q1) Secondary hypothyroidism is the result of a deficiency of A)T<sub>3</sub>.
B)TBG.
C)TSH.
D)TRH.
Q2) On a scan, within the thyroid, thyroid carcinoma is often seen as
A)a hyperactive ("hot") area.
B)a hypoactive ("cold") area.
C)diffuse areas of increased activity.
D)total suppression of gland activity.
Q3) When performing a thyroid scan, in addition to an anterior view, oblique views should be taken
A)to provide better information on the localization of the gland.
B)to provide better information on the thickness of the gland.
C)to better define nodules that may be on the anterior or posterior surface.
D)to demonstrate nodules, if any, in more than one plane.
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Chapter 18: Respiratory System
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Q1) There were 100,000 particles in an MAA dose that a technologist prepared for a normal lung scan.The scan resulted in
A)a homogeneous distribution of activity.
B)the appearance of increased intensity.
C)a blotchy appearance.
D)the appearance of decreased intensity.
Q2) One-half dose (reduced number of particles) should be given to patients with all of the following EXCEPT
A)pulmonary hypertension.
B)right-to-left shunts.
C)a pneumonectomy.
D)bronchitis.
Q3) If the image of an aerosol ventilation study shows activity in the bronchi and the stomach, the technologist
A)checks the particle size of the aerosol to be certain it is within the limits.
B)performed the perfusion study first.
C)continues with the study because this is normal.
D)adjusts the nebulizer flow rate.
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System
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Q1) In cardiac SPECT imaging, the vertical long-axis view corresponds to
A)sagittal views, presented from the apex to the base.
B)coronal images, presented from the septum to the lateral wall.
C)septal images, presented from the septum to the posterior wall.
D)transverse sections, presented from the inferior to the anterior surface.
Q2) In cardiac SPECT imaging, the transverse slices are reoriented along the A)long axis of the left ventricle.
B)short axis of the left ventricle.
C)horizontal axis of the left ventricle.
D)vertical long axis.
Q3) Systole represents the
A)period of ventricular relaxation.
B)period of ventricular contraction.
C)period of atrial contraction.
D)cardiac output.
Q4) Clearance or redistribution of thallium takes place
A)immediately post injection.
B)immediately post injection during stress.
C)over the course of 30 minutes to 1 hour post injection.
D)over the course of about 4 hours post injection.
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Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) The indication on a patient's requisition is xerostomia.The procedure for which the technologist prepares the room is A)sialography.
B)esophageal transit.
C)oropharyngeal study.
D)C14 breath test.
Q2) In a normal hepatobiliary study, one would expect to see the A)gastrointestinal (GI) tract by 30 minutes and gallbladder by 45 to 60 minutes.
B)gallbladder by 30 minutes and the GI tract by 45 to 60 minutes.
C)GI tract by 15 minutes and the gallbladder by 30 minutes.
D)gallbladder by 15 minutes and the GI tract by 30 minutes.
Q3) A <sup>99m</sup>Tc sulfur colloid liver/spleen scan demonstrates the function of A)hepatocytes.
B)Kupffer cells.
C)bile ducts.
D)parenchyma cells.
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Chapter 21: Genitourinary System
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Q1) A patient informs the technologist that he has a ptotic kidney.Because of this, the technologist positions the patient in a sitting position.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After the injection of furosemide in a diuretic renal imaging study, the washout activity from the collecting system has a clearance half-time of less than 10 minutes.This is most likely indicative of a(n)
A)obstruction.
B)polycystic kidney.
C)dilated but unobstructed kidney.
D)normal kidney.
Q3) A patient is scheduled for a diuretic renal imaging study.The technologist prepares the radiopharmaceutical and A)furosemide.
B)captopril.
C)adenosine. D)saline.
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Chapter 22: Skeletal System
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Q1) Visualization of the kidneys on a <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MDP scan is considered
A)abnormal, because <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MDP is excreted via the bowel.
B)normal, because <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MDP is excreted via the urinary tract.
C)abnormal and is indicative of calcifications.
D)rarely seen because of uptake by the vertebra.
Q2) A patient is entering the osseous phase of a routine three-phase bone scan.The technologist should
A)prepare the room for a dynamic study.
B)begin to take blood pool images.
C)begin to take 2- to 3-hour delayed images.
D)take 5- to 24-hour delayed images.
Q3) A bone scan image of a female patient shows radiopharmaceutical uptake in the breasts.The technologist should
A)check to see if the patient was given the correct radiopharmaceutical.
B)check for contamination.
C)consider this to be a normal variant.
D)check the patient's history of trauma to the chest.
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Chapter 23: Inflammatory Tumoroncology Imaging and Therapy
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Q1) A <sup>67</sup>Ga image at 48 hours after injection displays bowel activity; the technologist should
A)be concerned that the wrong radiopharmaceutical was administered.
B)change the collimator to reduce the scatter activity from the bowel.
C)continue imaging because this is normal.
D)check to see if a radiographic study using contrast was performed.
Q2) Which organ is the most common site of metastasis for cancers of the abdominal organs?
A)Liver
B)Lungs
C)Bone
D)Brain
Q3) Among the safety instructions a technologist will provide to a patient following <sup>90</sup>Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan administration is to
A)avoid contact with children for 1 to 2 weeks.
B)have home health care for first 3 days following release.
C)use disposable eating utensils.
D)use effective contraceptive methods for 1 year.
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Chapter 24: Hematopoietic System
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Q1) The position typically used for a patient undergoing a spleen count as part of a splenic sequestration study is A)supine.
B)prone.
C)upright.
D)on the right side.
Q2) Anemia refers to a condition of
A)a reduced number of WBCs.
B)a reduced number of RBCs.
C)splenomegaly.
D)malabsorption.
Q3) A patient can have anemia but have a normal Hct because A)he is sufficiently hydrated.
B)he has a decreased number of WBCs.
C)there is an increased rate of RBC production.
D)there is an increased rate of hemolysis.
Q4) In a blood sample, the fluid from which a clot is separated is called serum.
A)True
B)False
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