Medical Imaging Techniques
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Medical Imaging Techniques explores the principles, methods, and applications of various imaging modalities used in the diagnosis and treatment of medical conditions. The course covers foundational concepts such as image formation, instrumentation, and analysis for technologies including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Students will gain insights into the strengths and limitations of each technique, safety considerations, and the interpretation of medical images. Practical examples and case studies will illustrate the role of imaging in clinical decision-making, preparing students for further study or professional work in healthcare and biomedical engineering.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following devices are considered IRs?
1)Television monitor
2)Computed radiography image plate
3)Cassette with film
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
Q2) Gonad shielding is required when the gonads lie within ____ cm of the primary x-ray field.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Q1) Which of the following is required to maintain an even radiographic density on body parts that have significant variations in tissue density?
A) Increase the kVp.
B) Increase the mA.
C) Use a compensating filter.
D) Use a compression device.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would be considered advantages in using anatomic compensating filters?
1)Reduces radiation exposure to the patient
2)Provides an even image density
3)Increases image contrast and detail
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Q1) The red marrow within bones produces _____ cells.
1)adipose
2)red blood
3)white blood
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
Q2) Long bones have a central cylindrical cavity called the: A) meniscus.
B) periosteum.
C) medullary cavity.
D) spongy tissue.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The head of the radius articulates on the medial side with the: A) coronoid process.
B) trochlear notch.
C) ulnar styloid process.
D) radial notch.
Q2) In what position should the hand be placed for the AP projection of the humerus?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Lateral
D) 30 degrees oblique, medial rotation
Q3) For a lateral projection of the hand, the central ray is directed to the: A) second digit MCP joint.
B) PIP joint.
C) distal PIP joint.
D) midmetacarpal area.
Q4) Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the carpal canal?
A) Stecher (PA axial)
B) Norgaard (AP oblique)
C) Lawrence (inferosuperior axial)
D) Gaynor-Hart (tangential)
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Q1) How far should the arm be abducted for an inferosuperior projection of the shoulder joint?
A) 15 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 90 degrees
Q2) The respiration phase for an AP projection of the scapula is:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) shallow breathing.
Q3) To obtain a more uniform image density, the respiration phase for the AP projection of the clavicle should be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) shallow breathing.
D) suspended respiration.
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Q1) If the knee is flexed 40 degrees for the PA axial intercondylar fossa (Camp-Coventry) projection, the central ray will be angled _____ degrees.
A) 0
B) 40
C) 50
D) 40 to 50
Q2) The medial and lateral oblique projections of the ankle require the leg and foot to be rotated how many degrees?
A) 15
B) 20
C) 45
D) 15 to 20
Q3) Which ankle projection will clearly demonstrate the ankle mortise in profile?
A) AP
B) AP oblique, 15- to 20-degree internal rotation
C) AP oblique, 45-degree internal rotation
D) AP oblique, 45-degree external rotation
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Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Q1) The hip joint is a _____ joint.
A) fibrous, gomphosis
B) fibrous, syndesmosis
C) synovial, gliding
D) synovial, ball-and-socket
Q2) Where is the central ray directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves) of the femoral necks?
A) At the pubic symphysis
B) 1 inch superior to the pubic symphysis
C) 1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis
D) 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
Q3) The neck of the femur projects anteriorly at an approximate angle of _____ degrees.
A) 15
B) 20
C) 15 to 20
D) 20 to 25
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Q1) Where is the central ray directed for a lateral thoracic spine?
A) Level of T5
B) Level of T7
C) Level of T9
D) Level of T10
Q2) The zygapophyseal joints of the vertebral column are classified as:
A) synovial, gliding.
B) synovial, pivot.
C) synovial, ellipsoidal.
D) cartilaginous, symphysis.
Q3) Where does the central ray enter the body for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the lumbosacral junction?
A) At the pubic symphysis
B) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches superior to the pubic symphysis
C) 3 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
D) At the level of the ASISs
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Q1) Where is the center of the IR positioned for a PA projection of sternoclavicular joints?
A) Second thoracic vertebra
B) Third thoracic vertebra
C) Manubrium sterni
D) Body of the sternum
Q2) The space between each of the ribs is called the:
A) costal cartilage.
B) intercostal spaces.
C) costovertebral joints.
D) costotransverse joints.
Q3) For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the lowest position in the body?
A) Obese
B) Hyposthenic
C) Hypersthenic
D) Emaciated
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of gas or air in the pleural cavity is termed:
A) pneumonias.
B) pneumothorax.
C) pneumomediastinum.
D) pneumopericardium.
Q2) The AP oblique projection, RPO position of the chest corresponds to and essentially produces the same image as the _____ oblique projection, _____.
A) AP; LPO
B) PA; RAO
C) PA; LAO
Q3) For AP oblique projections of the chest, the side of interest is generally the side _____ the IR.
A) closer to
B) farther from
Q4) How many ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a PA chest radiograph?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
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Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many x-ray exposures are required during a long bone measurement study?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Six
Q2) What projection is used for long bone measurement radiographs?
A) PA
B) AP
C) Lateral
D) Variable depending on body habitus
Q3) Which landmark is used to localize the shoulder joint for upper limb long bone measurement?
A) Superior margin of the humeral head
B) Medial margin of the glenoid fossa
C) 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process
D) 2 inches inferior and medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder
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Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Q1) The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called:
A) arthrosis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthrogenesis.
D) arthroendoscopy.
Q2) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q3) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
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Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Q1) Which imaging modality is often used to evaluate trauma to the abdomen?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) NM
D) Sonography
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a trauma radiography guideline?
1)Remove all splints.
2)Do not move the patient unless necessary.
3)Obtain a minimum of two radiographs of each body part.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) If a trauma patient loses consciousness during an imaging procedure, the imaging professional should:
A) assess the patient's airway.
B) check the patient's pulse.
C) notify the ED physician immediately.
D) check the patient's pupil responses.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Q1) Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual
Q2) The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?
A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L
Q3) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands?
A) Tonsil
B) Parotid
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Q1) The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known as the:
A) thymus gland.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pharyngeal tonsil.
D) epiglottis.
Q2) All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the pharyngolaryngeal structures except:
A) swallowing.
B) phonation.
C) sneezing.
D) breathing.
Q3) For the AP projection of the pharynx and larynx, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the:
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) laryngeal prominence.
C) cricoid cartilage.
D) jugular notch.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to evaluate rotation on a KUB image?
1)Spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae should be in the center of the vertebral body.
2)Alae of the ilia are symmetric.
3)Ischial spines, if visible, are symmetric.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) A properly exposed abdominal image will exhibit the: 1)psoas muscles.
2)lower border of the liver.
3)transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the function of the spleen?
1)Produces glucagon
2)Produces lymphocytes
3)Stores and removes dead red blood cells
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) How long does it take barium to go through the alimentary canal and reach the rectum?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 1 day
D) 1 \(1 / 2\) day
Q3) Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the left colic flexure?
A) AP axial
B) Lateral
C) PA oblique, LAO
D) PA oblique, RAO
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microscopic components of the parenchyma of the kidney are called:
A) nephrons.
B) calyces.
C) the glomerulus.
D) cortical substances.
Q2) secreting substances that affect blood pressure.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which projection would place the right kidney perpendicular to the IR?
A) Right lateral
B) Right lateral, dorsal decubitus
C) AP oblique, RPO
D) AP oblique, LPO
Q4) A moderate reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be:
A) warmth.
B) vomiting.
C) sneezing.
D) anaphylactic reaction.
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Q1) Parts of the female reproductive system include the:
1)ovaries.
2)uterine tubes.
3)ductus deferens.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result of advances in:
A) computed tomography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) sonography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
Q3) What is the most common type of testicular tumor?
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Prostate cancer
C) Seminoma
D) Dermoid
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Q1) The largest and most dense bone of the face is the:
A) maxilla.
B) mandible.
C) frontal.
D) sphenoid.
Q2) The base of the anterior portion of the occipital bone contains two large openings that allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through. These two openings are called the:
A) jugular foramina.
B) foramen magnum.
C) foramen ovale.
D) hypoglossal canal.
Q3) The parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones is commonly called the _____ method.
A) Towne
B) Waters
C) Caldwell
D) Rhese
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Chapter 21: Mammography
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Q1) For which projections of the breast would minimal compression be used?
A) All postsurgery projections
B) All magnification projections
C) CC and MLO with displaced implant
D) CC and MLO with full implant
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the radiographic examination of the breast?
1)Imaging the posterior breast tissue is critical.
2)Use vigorous compression to produce a uniform breast thickness.
3)Perform positioning of the breast consistently so that lesions can be accurately localized.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) For which projection of the breast is the AEC turned off?
A) CC with full implant
B) CC with displaced implant
C) All magnification projections
D) Mediolateral oblique
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following imaging modalities may be used for image-guided interventional pain management except:
A) fluoroscopy.
B) CT.
C) ultrasound.
D) MRI.
Q2) The position of the patient's head during myelography should be in _____ to prevent contrast from passing into the cerebral ventricles.
A) lateral flexion
B) acute extension
C) forward flexion
D) acute flexion
Q3) How many pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord?
A) 14
B) 24
C) 29
D) 31
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) Guidewires come in a variety of shapes and sizes, and selection is based on: 1)injector pressure.
2)access needle size.
3)catheter.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Why is an introducer sheath used in many angiographic procedures?
A) To position guidewires
B) To reduce vessel trauma
C) For use only with angioplasty
D) For stent placement
Q3) The therapeutic radiologic procedure designed to dilate or reopen stenotic or occluded areas within a vessel is termed:
A) "gamma knife" therapy.
B) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty.
C) interventional radiology.
D) transcatheter embolization.
25
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following is used to evaluate adequate inspiration on a pediatric chest image?
A) Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures
B) Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs
C) Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart
D) Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen
Q2) Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the Pigg-O-Stat immobilizer?
A) Head and neck
B) Chest and abdomen
C) Upper and lower limb
D) Pelvis and lower limbs
Q3) Which of the following are common pediatric fractures?
1)Salter-Harris
2)Plastic
3)Supracondylar
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aging experience is individual and is affected by: 1)attitude.
2)lifestyle choices.
3)heredity.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) When imaging the upper or lower limbs on geriatric patients, keep in mind that:
A) many projections can be combined to decrease time and discomfort.
B) mobility and flexibility is often decreased.
C) long bones shrink as age increases.
D) scatter radiation is greater in those with osteoporosis.
Q3) Elder abuse occurs in many forms, such as sexual, emotional, exploitive, or physical.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aging and disease are considered synonymous.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of angle from the primary beam?
A) 0 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) 45 to 90 degrees
Q2) Which of the following should be available on every mobile radiography machine?
1)Lead apron
2)Radiographic technique chart
3)Measuring caliper
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless.
A)True
B)False
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28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Institution-approved attire worn in the OR:
A) can be worn over 2 days.
B) should be fresh for each shift.
C) can be used regardless of condition.
D) is not necessary in the semirestricted areas.
Q2) What should the radiographer do after removing the cover from the IR?
A) Quickly take it to be processed.
B) Give it to a nonsterile team member.
C) Put it on the floor.
D) Remove gloves before handling it.
Q3) When positioning the IR under the OR table, the radiographer should:
A) lift the drapes up high to keep them away from the IR.
B) not lift the drapes above table level to avoid the sterile field.
C) squat down to place the IR below the table.
D) give the IR to a sterile team member to place.
Q4) Less frequently used x-ray equipment in the OR should be cleaned:
A) every 3 days.
B) at least once a week.
C) every 2 weeks.
D) once a month.
Page 29
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Fourth-generation CT scanners use the following configuration:
A) translate tube and rotating detectors.
B) rotating tube and detectors.
C) only rotating detectors.
D) only rotating tube.
Q2) The most significant geometric factor that contributes to spatial resolution is:
A) detector aperture width.
B) FOV.
C) slice thickness.
D) x-ray beam energy.
Q3) Factors that affect image quality in CT consist of: 1)spatial resolution.
2)noise.
3)contrast media.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) Spin-spin relaxation (T2) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
Q2) Strong MRI signals are represented by _____ in the image.
A) black
B) light gray
C) white
D) dark gray
Q3) MRI has been useful for imaging many areas of the body, particularly the brain, because of:
A) the ability to see calcium deposits.
B) differentiation of gray matter from white matter.
C) new motion techniques.
D) fat suppression.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) Sometimes examinations in the abdominal cavity are difficult to perform because of:
A) air or gas in the gastrointestinal tract.
B) bony anatomy.
C) tissue differences.
D) too much fluid.
Q2) Routine obstetric screening exams are usually requested between _____ gestational weeks.
A) 8 and 12
B) 12 and 16
C) 16 and 24
D) 24 and 30
Q3) The principle on which the ultrasound transducer operates is the _____ effect.
A) photoelectric
B) crystalline
C) piezoelectric
D) transducer
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32
Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) Half-life (T \(1 / 2\) ) is described as the time required for:
A) half the nuclide to leave the body.
B) half the nuclide to disappear.
C) the nuclide to decay to half its original activity.
D) the original activity to increase by one half.
Q2) The radiotracer for PET scanning is chosen for:
A) studies that will show only anatomy.
B) its long half-life compared with nuclear medicine.
C) its similarity to naturally occurring biochemicals.
D) faster examination times.
Q3) The most common device used to produce nuclides for PET scanning is the:
A) high-frequency generator.
B) compact medical cyclotron.
C) linear accelerator.
D) pulse height analyzer.
Q4) Collimators are used in nuclear medicine to:
A) cone down the beam.
B) limit patient dose from the radiation.
C) maintain signal strength.
D) keep scattered rays from entering the camera.
Page 33
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24127
Sample Questions
Q1) Which vertebral region(s) is (are) analyzed during a DXA scan?
A) T12
B) T7 to L1
C) L1 to L5
D) L4 to S2
Q2) The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the:
A) hips.
B) femurs.
C) vertebrae.
D) ankles.
Q3) Risk factors for falling and causing fractures are:
1)antidepressants.
2)impaired muscle strength.
3)environmental hazards.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) uses:
A) radioactive isotopes.
B) multileaf collimators.
C) cerrobend blocks.
D) permanent implants.
Q2) The majority of cancers arise from the epithelium and are classified as:
A) sarcomas.
B) lymphomas.
C) myelomas.
D) carcinomas.
Q3) Radiation oncology may be used in conjunction with: 1)surgery.
2)chemotherapy.
3)angiography.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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