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Medical Imaging Techniques is a course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and applications of modern imaging modalities used in medical diagnostics and treatment. The course covers a range of techniques including X-ray radiography, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine imaging such as PET and SPECT. Students will learn about the physical and technological foundations of each modality, image formation and acquisition processes, clinical applications, and safety considerations. Additionally, the course will address image quality assessment, basic image processing, and emerging trends in medical imaging, equipping students with a comprehensive understanding of how these technologies contribute to patient care and medical research.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 8th Edition by Kenneth L. Bontrager
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20 Chapters
2106 Verified Questions
2106 Flashcards
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198 Verified Questions
198 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 14 × 17 inches
A)35 × 43 cm
B)18 × 24 cm
C)30 × 35 cm
D)24 × 24 cm
E)24 × 30 cm
Answer: A
Q2) What type of radiographic contrast is produced with a high (120)kV technique?
A) Low contrast, short scale
B) High contrast, short scale
C) Low contrast, long scale
D) High contrast, long scale
Answer: C
Q3) The acronym PACS refers to picture archiving connection system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
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Q1) For an average size female patient,where is the CR placed for a PA projection of the chest?
A) 7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens
B) 3 inches (7.6 cm) below the jugular notch
C) 8 inches (20 cm) below the vertebra prominens
D) 2 inches (5 cm) above the shoulders
Answer: A
Q2) Of the following factors,which one is most crucial to demonstrate possible air and fluid levels in the chest?
A) 72-inch (183 cm) SID
B) High-kV technique
C) Patient in erect or decubitus position
D) Using high mA and short exposure time
Answer: C
Q3) The lower concave area of the lung is termed the:
A) base.
B) apex.
C) hilum.
D) costophrenic angle.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liver
A)Intraperitoneal
B)Retroperitoneal
C)Infraperitoneal
Answer: A
Q2) A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm.Which of the following abdominal projections would best demonstrate this condition?
A) Dorsal decubitus
B) Left lateral decubitus
C) Right lateral decubitus
D) AP erect
Answer: A
Q3) The technologist must ____ manual exposure factors for a patient with severe ascites.
A) increase
B) not change
C) decrease
D) switch to automatic exposure control (AEC)
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AP oblique bilateral hands projection ("ball-catcher's position")is performed to evaluate for early signs of:
A) gout.
B) osteoporosis.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) bursitis.
Q2) A patient arrives in radiology with a metal foreign body in the palm of the hand.Which of the following hand routines should be performed on this patient to confirm the location of the foreign body?
A) PA and lateral in extension projections
B) PA and lateral in flexion projections
C) PA and fan lateral projections
D) PA and Gaynor-Hart method
Q3) Which of the following best demonstrates the radial head using the trauma lateral Coyle method routine?
A) Elbow flexed 80°, CR angled 45° away from shoulder
B) Elbow flexed 90°, CR angled 30° toward shoulder
C) Elbow flexed 90°, CR angled 45° toward shoulder
D) Elbow flexed 90°, CR perpendicular to image receptor
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph of a transthoracic lateral projection reveals that it is difficult to visualize the proximal humerus due to the ribs and lung markings.The following analog exposure factors were used: 75 kV,30 mAs,40-inch (102 cm)SID,grid,and suspended respiration.Which of the following changes will improve the visibility of the proximal humerus?
A) Make the exposure on second inspiration.
B) Use a compression band to prevent patient movement.
C) Use a 72-inch (183 cm) SID.
D) Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique.
Q2) The female clavicle is usually shorter and less curved than that of the male.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Alexander method for AC joints requires a 15° cephalic CR angle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a possible radiographic sign for impingement syndrome of the shoulder?
A) Calcified tendons
B) Fluid-filled joint space
C) Fracture of the glenoid rim
D) Subacromial spurring
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Sample Questions
Q1) What CR angulation is required for an AP projection of the knee on a patient with an ASIS-to-tabletop measurement of 18 cm?
A) 3° to 5° caudad
B) CR is perpendicular to the IR.
C) 3° to 5° cephalad
D) 10° to 15° cephalad
Q2) Malignant tumor of the cartilage usually occurs in men older than age 45 in the pelvis and long bones
A)Chondrosarcoma
B)Joint effusion
C)Osgood-Schlatter disease
D)Reiter's syndrome
E)Lisfranc joint injury
F)Ewing's sarcoma
G)Gout
H)Paget's disease
I)Bone cyst
J)Exostosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term pelvic girdle refers to the total pelvis including the sacrum and coccyx.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A radiograph of an AP pelvis reveals that the left obturator foramen is more open or elongated as compared with the right.What is the specific positioning error present on this radiograph?
A) Left rotation
B) Right rotation
C) Left tilt
D) Incorrect CR centering or angulation
Q3) Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics.Wider and shallow general shape of pelvis:
A) Male
B) Female
Q4) Cephalopelvimetry is still commonly performed in the U.S.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph of an AP open-mouth projection reveals that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens.What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?
A) Excessive flexion of the skull
B) Excessive extension of the skull
C) Excessive CR angulation
D) Rotation of the skull
Q2) Dens
A)C7
B)C2
C)C1
D)C4
E)T1
F)T7
Q3) The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.
A) 45°
B) 60°
C) 70° to 75°
D) 90°
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient has scoliosis,the convexity of the spine should be down toward the image receptor for the lateral spine projection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A female is more likely to suffer a fracture of the coccyx due to a backward,sitting type of fall than a male.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where is the central ray (CR)centered for an AP projection of the lumbar spine with a 14 *17-inch (35 *43-cm)IR?
A) At the iliac crest
B) At the ASIS
C) 1 to 1.5 inches (2.5 to 3 cm) above the iliac crest
D) At the lower costal margin
Q4) The long axis of the sacrum is generally angled more posteriorly in males than females.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple myeloma is seen often in the flat bones of the bony thorax.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A recommended practice is to decrease the SID to less than 40 inches (102 cm)for the oblique sternum projection to increase the magnification and resultant unsharpness of overlying ribs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs?
A) Airway obstruction of the trachea
B) Pneumonia
C) Hemothorax
D) Pulmonary embolus
Q4) What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic type of patient?
A) 20°
B) 15°
C) 30°
D) 10°
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the classification of the joint found between the teeth and maxilla?
A) Synovial
B) Fibrous
C) Cartilaginous
D) Synarthrodial
Q2) An axiolateral oblique projection (Law method)for the temporomandibular joints on a brachycephalic type of skull would require ____ rotation as compared with an average-shaped skull.
A) more
B) less
C) the same
D) Rotation depends on the patient's age.
Q3) The PA axial projection (Haas method)for the cranium requires a CR angle of 25° caudad.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Infections involving the upper teeth may involve the frontal sinuses.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A pediatric patient enters the emergency department (ED)with a small,plastic object stuck in her esophagus.PA and lateral chest radiographs fail to demonstrate the foreign body.Which of the following procedures would be most effective in demonstrating the location of the object?
A) Upper GI series
B) Esophagogram with the water test
C) Esophagogram using very thick barium
D) Esophagogram using shredded cotton soaked in barium
Q2) Most esophagograms begin with the patient:
A) recumbent-supine.
B) erect.
C) recumbent-prone.
D) in a left lateral decubitus position.
Q3) Which one of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing the dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy?
A) Time
B) Distance
C) Intensity
D) Shielding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which specific aspect of the large intestine must be demonstrated during evacuative proctography?
A) Sigmoid colon
B) Haustra
C) Anorectal angle
D) Rectal ligament
Q2) The enteroclysis procedure is indicated for patients with regional enteritis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following conditions may produce the "cobblestone" or "string" sign?
A) Whipple disease
B) Regional enteritis (Crohn's disease)
C) Giardiasis
D) Ileus
Q4) Which part of the small intestine makes up three fifths of its entirety?
A) Duodenum
B) Jejunum
C) Ileum
D) Ilium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The glomeruli,glomerular capsule,and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the ____ of the kidney.
A) medulla
B) cortex
C) collecting system
D) fibrous capsule
Q2) Which of the following functions is not performed by the urinary system?
A) Removing nitrogenous wastes
B) Regulating water levels in tissues
C) Regulating the acid-base and electrolyte balance
D) Producing and releasing adrenaline
Q3) Extravasation is classified as a local reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following drugs is often given before an IVU to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction?
A) Diazepam
B) Benadryl and prednisone
C) Fluoxetine
D) Verapamil
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Sample Questions
Q1) An internal pacemaker implantation can be performed under local anesthetic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse Waters)projection for the facial bones?
A) Perpendicular to the plane of the IR
B) Parallel to the mentomeatal line
C) Parallel to the lips-meatal line
D) 15° cephalad angle to the orbitomeatal line
Q3) A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2),with or without displacement of C2 or C3,is termed _____ fracture.
A) odontoid
B) clay shoveler's
C) Jefferson
D) hangman's
Q4) With high-level fluoroscopy (HLF),the maximum exposure rate cannot exceed 20 R/min.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Latex enema tips should be used for pediatric barium enemas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the average transit time for the barium to reach the ileocecal valve during a pediatric small bowel study?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours
Q3) A mild form of a defect of the posterior arch of L5-S1 vertebrae
A)Köhler bone disease
B)Spinal bifida occulta
C)Necrotizing enterocolitis
D)Hirschsprung disease
E)Osgood-Schlatter disease
F)Atresia (or clausura)
Q4) It is difficult to distinguish the small bowel from the large on a pediatric abdominal radiograph.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the abdominal digestive track to the:
A) inferior vena cava.
B) spleen.
C) kidneys.
D) liver.
Q2) Atherosclerotic disease of lower limbs
A)Abdominal angiography
B)Angiocardiography
C)Cerebral angiography
D)Lymphography
E)Peripheral angiography
F)Thoracic angiography
Q3) How is neoplastic tissue destroyed during radiofrequency ablation?
A) Freezing the tissue
B) Heating the tissue
C) Applying magnetic energy to the tissue
D) Cutting off blood supply to the tissue
Q4) Lymphography is considered an obsolete radiographic procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) How long is the catheter left in place following a percutaneous abscess drainage (PAD)procedure?
A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 to 48 hours
Q2) CT fluoroscopy can obtain and display partially reconstructed images at a rate of _____ images per second.
A) 1 to 3
B) 6 to 8
C) 8 to 12
D) 20 to 25
Q3) Submillimeter slice thicknesses are possible with multislice CT scanners.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another term for topogram is:
A) CT scan.
B) CAT scan.
C) MPR.
D) scanogram.
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Q1) The suggested positioning routine for lumbar myelography is:
A) patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral, left and right lateral decubitus (AP and PA), and PA projection.
B) patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA).
C) patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral.
D) patient supine: semierect AP and horizontal beam lateral.
Q2) What size needle is used to introduce the contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram?
A) 2 inches, 16 gauge
B) 1 1/2 inches, 18 gauge
C) 2 inches, 25 gauge
D) 2 3/4- to 3 1/2-inch spinal needle
Q3) The uterine (fallopian)tubes are approximately ____ cm in length.
A) 3 to 4
B) 6 to 8
C) 10 to 12
D) 15 to 18
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true about the nuclei used in MRI?
A) They must be radioisotope forms of the nuclei.
B) They should be found in abundance in the human body.
C) They must have an odd number of protons and neutrons.
D) They must be affected by an external magnetic field.
Q2) Sentinel node studies will assess the spread of breast cancer to the surrounding bones of the thorax.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Computed radiography has lower operating costs over analog mammography imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nuclear medicine can provide a functional study of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The risk of breast cancer occurring in men is about ____ of that for women.
A) 1% to 2%
B) 5% to 6%
C) 10% to 11%

Page 22
D) None of the above; breast cancer does not occur in men.
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