Medical Imaging Techniques
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Imaging Techniques is an in-depth course that explores the fundamental principles, technologies, and clinical applications of modern medical imaging modalities. Students will examine the physics and operational mechanisms behind techniques such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine imaging. The course also covers image acquisition, processing, interpretation, safety considerations, and the role of each modality in diagnosing and managing various diseases. Through theoretical instruction and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how medical imaging supports patient care and advances in medical research.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Q1) The equation (x+y) <sup>2</sup> can be expressed as:
A)x<sup>2</sup> + 2xy + y<sup>2</sup>
B)2x + 2y
C)x + 2xy + y<sup>2</sup>
D)x<sup>2</sup> + y<sup>2</sup> + xy
Answer: A
Q2) Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd.Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when d decreases?
A)increases
B)decreases
C)remains the same
D)cannot be determined
Answer: A
Q3) P = 2L + 2W; solve for L.
Answer: (P - 2W)/2
Q4) I = E/R + r; solve for r.
Answer: E - IR/I
Q5) V = 1/3\(\pi\)r<sup>2</sup>h; solve for \(\pi\).
Answer: 3V/r<sup>2</sup>h
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Q1) In a vacuum, electromagnetic radiation
A)has a velocity equal to the speed of light.
B)x-ray energy may be bent by a crystalline lens.
C)causes ionizations of air molecules.
D)is altered by a strong magnetic field.
Answer: A
Q2) Electrons moving around in specific orbitals demonstrates this energy.
A)electron
B)neutron
C)proton
D)binding energy
E)kinetic energy
F)atomic mass
G)atomic number
H)isotope
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Electricity
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Q1) Parallel resistors of 3 ohms and 6 ohms would result in a total resistance of how many ohms?
Answer: 2.0 ohms
Q2) a device to control resistance
A)electron
B)neutron
C)proton
D)binding energy
E)kinetic energy
F)atomic mass
G)atomic number
H)isotope
Answer: G
Q3) What is the total resistance of a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4 ohms each in parallel?
Answer: 10 ohms
Q4) A 100 watt lightbulb operates on 120-volt household voltage.How much resistance does the lightbulb offer?
Answer: 144.6 ohms
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Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Q1) resistance to demagnetization
A)magnetic flux
B)spin magnetic moment
C)tesla
D)electromagnet
E)permeability
F)retentivity
G)paramagnetic
H)ferromagnetic
Q2) American generators operate at
A)220 V.
B)120 AC.
C)60 Hz.
D)30 A.
Q3) The turns ratio of a transformer is determined by the A)size of the wire.
B)type of wire.
C)number of windings.
D)space between the transformer sides.
Q4) The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Q1) X-ray tube and image receptor are fixed to opposite ends of an arc design.
A)overhead tube suspension system
B)C-arm tube suspension
C)panoramic dental and facial system
D)footboard
E)floor-to-ceiling suspension system
F)shoulder supports
G)upright Bucky unit
H)simulator systems
Q2) inexpensive tube support design typically seen in small clinics
A)overhead tube suspension system
B)C-arm tube suspension
C)panoramic dental and facial system
D)footboard
E)floor-to-ceiling suspension system
F)shoulder supports
G)upright Bucky unit
H)simulator systems
Q3) What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 80?
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Q1) When radiographing a wedge-shaped anatomical structure such as the femur, the thicker portion of the anatomy should be positioned
A)under the cathode end of the tube.
B)in the exact center of the beam. as it is most intense in the center.
C)off center laterally to negate the heel effect.
D)under the anode side of the tube.
Q2) What is the function of the filament?
Q3) Melting of the anode commonly occurs
A)when the unit is not warmed up properly.
B)with extended use.
C)when the kilovoltage is too high.
D)when the stator fails and the rotor ceases to turn.
Q4) How many heat units are generated by three (3) exposures of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second using a high frequency generator?
Q5) The problem of off-focus radiation
A)is particularly important with digital detectors.
B)distorts the digital histogram.
C)may result in suboptimum digital images.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Q1) emission of infrared energy
A)9.6 keV
B)20 keV
C)binding energy
D)kinetic energy
E)thermal energy
F)electromagnetic energy
G)bremsstrahlung radiation
H)characteristic interactions
Q2) molybdenum characteristic spike
A)9.6 keV
B)20 keV
C)binding energy
D)kinetic energy
E)thermal energy
F)electromagnetic energy
G)bremsstrahlung radiation
H)characteristic interactions
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Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Q1) One joule of energy absorbed in each kilogram of absorbing material defines the A)sievert.
B)kerma.
C)becquerel.
D)gray.
Q2) Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters
A)are not commonly employed with routine use.
B)provide an immediate readout to the user.
C)are precise with low level exposures.
D)use a chip of LiF as the detector material.
Q3) All of the following would be classified as field survey devices EXCEPT A)film badge.
B)Geiger-Mueller counter.
C)scintillation detector.
D)ionization chamber instrument.
Q4) Ionizing radiations are classified as A)positive and negative.
B)varying velocities.
C)particulate and electromagnetic.
D)subnuclear and intranuclear.
10
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Q1) The cardinal rules of radiation protection are
A)time, source, shielding
B)time, distance, position
C)time, distance, shielding
D)shielding, thickness, use factor
Q2) If the distance between the individual and the source of radiation is doubled, the exposure to the individual will be reduced by a factor of
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)12
Q3) Radiation exposure limits applicable to the protection of radiation workers are known as ____ limits.
A)dose
B)radiation
C)ionizing
D)stochastic
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Chapter 10: Filtration
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Q1) Beam filtration does what to patient dose?
A)It has no effect on patient dose.
B)It increases patient dose.
C)It decreases patient dose.
D)It increases patient dose by the square of the filter thickness.
Q2) The collimator device is considered part of the ____ filtration.
A)inherent
B)compensation
C)added
D)primary
Q3) Filtration permits the radiographer to ____ the photon emission spectrum into a more useful beam.
A)narrow
B)widen
C)soften
D)increase
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Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Q1) The product of tube current and exposure time is equal to A)kVp.
B)x-ray beam quality.
C)x-ray beam quantity.
D)the HVL.
Q2) If the mAs of a radiograph is increased from 10 to 20, the resulting radiograph will exhibit
A)decreased radiographic film density.
B)decreased radiographic contrast.
C)increased radiographic film density.
D)increased radiographic contrast.
Q3) The reaction of a photographic film to light is equal to the product of the intensity of the light and the duration of the light exposure.This concept is known as A)the reciprocity law.
B)the inverse square law.
C)Coulomb's law.
D)the 15 percent rule.
Q4) Given an exposure time of 0.06 second and a milliamperage of 400, calculate the mAs.
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Q1) no loss in energy
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q2) As the angle of deflection is increased from 0<sup>\(\circ\) </sup>to 180<sup>\(\circ\) </sup>,
A)all energy is imparted to the incident photon.
B)less energy is imparted to the recoil electron.
C)greater energy is imparted to the scattered photon.
D)greater energy is imparted to the recoil electron.
Q3) Which of the following interactions has a significant impact on the x-ray image?
A)Compton scattering
B)coherent scatter
C)pair production
D)photodisintegration
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Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Q1) Entrance skin exposure is a/an ____ exposure.
A)maximum
B)minimum
C)average
D)theoretical
Q2) Of the choices below, the combination of exposure factors that would minimize patient dose would be
A)24 mAs, 80 kVp, 8"x10" field size, 44" SID
B)12 mAs, 92 kVp, 8"x10" field size, 40" SID
C)6 mAs, 106 kVp, 8"x10" field size, 44" SID
D)24 mAs, 80 kVp, 10"x12" field size, 40" SID
Q3) Each of the following is a type of gonad shield EXCEPT
A)flat contact.
B)shadow.
C)collimator.
D)shaped contact.
Q4) What is the approximate entrance skin exposure in mR for the fluoroscopic examination of the stomach performed for 4.5 minutes at 110 kVp at 1.7 R/min?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Q1) occurs when the eye perceives a boundary
A)rods
B)veil glare
C)retina
D)Mach effect
E)scotopic vision
F)cones
G)edge enhancement
H)Grenz rays
Q2) Which effect occurs because the visual system has difficulty in perceiving contrast differences that are distant from one another?
A)Conklin effect
B)boundary effect
C)threshold detection
D)Mach effect
Q3) Which type of specialized photoreceptor cells are found in the retina?
A)lens
B)corneal
C)pupil
D)cones
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Q1) The diameter of the lower rim of a cone is 5 inches.The bottom of the cone is placed at a distance of 15 inches from the focal spot.What will be the size of the projected image at a 40-inch SID?
Q2) As the volume of irradiated tissue ____, the amount of scatter produced ____.
A)increases; increases B)increases; decreases C)decreases; increases D)decreases; decreases
Q3) When collimating down from a 14"x17" field size to a 8"x10" field size,:
A)mAs must be increased to maintain radiographic image density. B)kVp must be increased to maintain image quality.
C)off-focus radiation production is increased. D)the mAs should be reduced by 50%.
Q4) The ____ the atomic number of the irradiated material, the ____ the number of photoelectric absorption interactions will be, and the ____ the scatter produced.
A)higher; lower; less B)higher; higher; less C)lower; higher; more D)lower; lower; less
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Q1) Which of the following is the greatest attenuator of the x-ray beam?
A)pneumonic lung
B)pericardial fat
C)psoas muscle
D)perirenal fat
Q2) The relationship between image receptor exposure and the patient is termed subject density.
A)True
B)False
Q3) bone
A)Compton scatter
B)photoelectric effect
C)12.31
D)air
E)fat
F)water
G)bone
H)chest
I)subject detail
J)subject density
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Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Q1) Which pathologic condition involves a tumor arising in the bone and cartilage, adding to subject density?
A)osteomyelitis
B)osteoarthritis
C)sarcoma
D)osteochondroma
Q2) As you perform a KUB radiograph on an elderly cancer patient who is cachexic and emaciated, you select AEC for the exposure.In order to achieve optimum image quality, you should
A)raise the kVp according to the 15% rule.
B)raise the mAs to shorten the exposure time.
C)allow the AEC system to adjust technique for the patient's condition.
D)decrease the SID to shorten the exposure time.
Q3) Which pathologic condition involves fibrotic changes in the liver parenchyma and is an additive condition?
A)cirrhosis
B)cholelithiasis
C)sclerosis
D)ascites
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Chapter 18: The Grid
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Q1) commonly ranges from 85-103 lpi
A)grid frequency
B)grid ratio
C)contrast improvement factor
D)focussed grid
E)air-gap technique
F)Moire effect
G)grid cut-off
H)convergence point
I)Hollis Potter
J)Gustav Bucky
Q2) A portable radiograph is taken of a thick body part using a 10:1 stationary grid.The image produced demonstrates a contrast factor (K) of 1.7 .A second radiograph is taken with a different grid of unknown specifications, and the K-value is 2.2.What conclusion can you reach regarding the two grids?
Q3) A satisfactory abdominal radiograph is produced using a 12:1 grid (grid-conversion factor [GCF] = 5.5), 30 mAs, and 85 kVp.A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid (GCF = 6.75).What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph with comparable radiographic density?
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Q1) sensitive to red light wavelengths
A)Gurney-Mott theory
B)sensitivity speck
C)film base
D)supercoat
E)latent image
F)panchromatic film
G)duplicating film
H)orthochromatic film
I)manifest image
J)30-60%
K)halation theory
L)68 95%
Q2) A small crystal size will produce ____ resolution and ____ speed.
A)high; slow
B)low; slow
C)high; fast
D)low; fast
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21
Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Q1) Why is the processor lid propped open when the processor is not in use?
A)to prevent evaporation
B)to prevent fixer condensation
C)to prevent contamination
D)all of the above
Q2) The darkroom entrance may be a
A)double interlocking door.
B)lightproof maze.
C)revolving door.
D)all of the above
Q3) A stable black metallic silver atom is formed when
A)a negative silver ion is oxidized.
B)a positive silver ion is oxidized.
C)a negative silver ion obtains an electron.
D)a positive silver ion obtains an electron.
Q4) Which reducing agent works only in areas of light exposure?
A)phenidone
B)hydroquinone
C)sodium carbonate
D)potassium bromide
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Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Q1) Resolution is also known as
A)detail.
B)definition.
C)resolving power.
D)all of the above
Q2) The toe of the D log E curve is controlled by
A)phenidone.
B)hydroquinone.
C)PQ developer.
D)all of the above
Q3) required for processor quality control
A)speed point
B)gamma
C)step wedge
D)densitometer
E)characteristic curve
F)latitude
G)average gradient
H)sensitometer
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Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Q1) Paired intensifying screens are typically used with A)dental film.
B)mammographic film.
C)single-emulsion film.
D)duplitized film.
Q2) Cassettes stored for extended periods of time should be stored A)flat.
B)empty.
C)at temperatures approaching 100<sup>\(\circ\) </sup>F.
D)in a darkened room.
Q3) When a phosphor is struck by an x-ray photon, it will emit light
A)parallel to the angle of incidence.
B)perpendicular to the angle of incidence.
C)at a 45-degree angle to the angle of incidence.
D)in all directions.
Q4) A blue-violet emitting screen used with a green sensitive film will yield
A)higher patient dose.
B)improved resolution.
C)increased radiographic film density.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Q1) The response to radiation exposure with a digital receptor is
A)non-linear.
B)logarithmic.
C)linear with a threshold.
D)linear.
Q2) In the technology of CR, the latent image is actually
A)sensitivity specks in the barium fluorohalide.
B)free electrons in the amorphous silicon.
C)electron "holes" in Europium.
D)the light from the phosphor following laser excitation of the reader assembly.
Q3) When matrix size is increased and pixel size goes down,
A)spatial resolution decreases.
B)spatial resolution increases.
C)contrast increases.
D)both a and c
Q4) When using CR technology, it is important to remember that
A)the IP is extrasensitive to exposure after the initial x-ray exposure.
B)the IP will lose about 25% of its signal in 8 hours if not processed.
C)the IP is very sensitive to scatter, making grids very important.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) The acronym PACS stands for A)pixel and computed system.
B)picture and communication system.
C)picture archiving and communication system.
D)portable archival computer system.
Q2) Which is an advantage to the digital environment over film?
A)Digital images can be manipulated without re-exposure to patients.
B)Digital images can be sent to remote locations.
C)Digital images require less physical storage.
D)all of the above
Q3) The service class and object class combine to form a A)DICOM byte.
B)DICOM bit.
C)local area network (LAN).
D)SOP unit.
Q4) For how many years do many institutions store radiographic film images?
A)1 to 2 years
B)1 to 5 years
C)5 to 7 years
D)5 to 10 years
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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) Visibility of detail quality factors include all of the following EXCEPT
A)radiographic image density.
B)x-ray tube focal spot size.
C)image contrast.
D)radiographic grids.
Q2) production of final image
A)narrowing the search
B)pyramid problem
C)image processing
D)wide acceptance limits
E)image acquisition
F)acceptable limits
G)narrow acceptance limits
H)image analysis
Q3) Producing an acceptable radiograph requires consideration of A)technical factor selection.
B)pathology.
C)image processing.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) What conclusion can you reach regarding an image with an S# of 750 and good radiographic image density on the display monitor?
A)The image is likely to demonstrate noise or quantum mottle.
B)There was not enough exposure to create a good histogram.
C)The noise level will be at a minimum and the image will look good in the magnification mode.
D)The IR received too much exposure.
Q2) If a satisfactory radiograph is obtained at 72 in.with a patient exposure of 4 R, what will the exposure be if the distance is reduced to 40 in.?
Q3) The 15% rule changes
A)density.
B)contrast.
C)distortion.
D)both a and b
Q4) If a radiograph using 40 mA (400 mA at 0.10 sec.) produced a radiograph with satisfactory density, what new time should be used at 200 mA?
Q5) A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp.What kVp is required to halve the exposure?
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) All of the following factors would affect radiographic contrast EXCEPT
A)field size.
B)SID and OID.
C)receptor characteristics.
D)focal spot selection.
Q2) A radiograph that demonstrates considerable differences between densities is called
A)short scale.
B)high contrast.
C)increased contrast.
D)all of the above
Q3) After completing a radiograph using 27 mAs at 90 kVp, the image demonstrates adequate overall density but an area that is underpenetrated.In order to produce an optimum image in terms of contrast and penetration, the repeat image should be taken at
A)27 mAs and 100 kVp.
B)54 mAs and 77 kVp.
C)13 mAs and 94 kVp.
D)27 mAs and 94 kVp.
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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) Which radiograph exhibits the best detail?
A)a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in.
B)a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in.
C)an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in.
D)an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in.
Q2) The Nyquist frequency is
A)important in analog imaging.
B)sampling a minimum of twice per cycle.
C)unique to radiography.
D)related to involuntary motion.
Q3) A pixel bit depth of 2<sup>16 </sup>will demonstrate _______ shades of gray A)16
B)32
C)65,536
D)none of the above
Q4) Poor resolution is caused by unacceptable levels of A)density.
B)umbra.
C)penumbra.
D)contrast.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) If an object is measured as 4 in.in diameter on the image and 2 in.from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?
Q2) The ____ the SID, the ____ the magnification.
A)greater; larger
B)greater; smaller
C)lesser; smaller
D)SID has no effect on magnification.
Q3) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in.and the OID is 2 in.
Q4) inherently magnified in AP projection
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
Q5) If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 4 cm, what is the percent magnification of the object?
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) As medical imaging continues to adopt digital imaging technologies, one of the greatest challenges for technologists regarding image analysis will be
A)clearly identifying the problem as a photographic vs. geometric problem with detail.
B)identifying possible causes that may be electronic in nature.
C)determining if post-processing algorithms are accurate.
D)all of the above
Q2) recorded detail problem
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
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32
Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Q1) Input for the purchase of new radiographic equipment should include the A)radiologists.
B)radiographers.
C)administrators.
D)all of the above
Q2) A generator must be recalibrated when the kVp drifts beyond ____ kVp of the labeled setting.
A)2
B)5
C)10
D)12
Q3) Distance indicators are checked with a A)yardstick.
B)densitometer.
C)laser.
D)tape measure.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Q1) also known as phototiming
A)calipers
B)Arthur Fuchs
C)APR
D)variable kVp system
E)fixed kVp system
F)AEC
G)Ed C. Jerman
H)phantom
I)fixed kVp systems
J)120 kVp
K)15% rule
L)2 kVp rule
Q2) When using a variable kVp exposure technique system,
A)a mAs value is identified for each body part and thickness.
B)small changes in patient thickness can be accommodated with small changes in mAs.
C)kVp varies as a function of patient thickness.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Q1) The backup time of most AECs is set at ____ of the anticipated manual exposure time.
A)10%
B)50%
C)100%
D)150%
Q2) A new high frequency radiographic system is being released to a customer for first clinical use.The applications person states that the AEC density controls are in 20% increments.If a normal AEC exposure of the hip is 24 mAs, a repeat exposure at +2 would yield a mAs value of
A)26 mAs.
B)29 mAs.
C)34 mAs.
D)48 mAs.
Q3) Most modern AEC systems provide a minimum response time of A)1 millisecond.
B).001 sec.
C)1/1000 sec.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the variable kVp theory.The part measuring 8 cm and 55 kVp was used.To maintain exposure, what kVp should be used if the part measures 10 cm?
Q2) A radiograph is produced using 70 kVp and 10 mAs.If kVp is increased to 80, how much mAs is required to maintain exposure?
Q3) A radiograph is produced using 70 kVp and 10 mAs.If mAs is decreased to 5, how much kVp is required to maintain exposure?
Q4) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.The film is repeated using a high frequency generator with a three-phase source of power..Calculate the new mAs.
Q5) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a high frequency generator.The film is repeated using a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.Calculate the new mAs.
Q6) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new distance if 25 mAs is used.
Q7) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the fixed kVp theory.The part measuring 10 cm and 6 mAs was used.To maintain exposure, what mAs should be used if the part measures 6 cm?
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) x-ray beam quality with current-day portable units
A)110-120 volts
B)capacitor discharge
C)Picker Corporation
D)high frequency output
E)56 inches
F)rechargeable batteries
G)tethered detector
H)low ratio and high frequency
I)dead man switch
J)CVP line
Q2) During mobile radiography, it is the radiographer's responsibility to request that ____ leave the immediate area prior to exposure.
A)physicians
B)family members
C)health professionals
D)all of the above
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) The primary ____ occurs from the acceleration and focusing of the electron beam.
A)phosphorescence
B)minification
C)magnification
D)brightness gain
Q2) The photocathode absorbs ____ and emits ____.
A)x-ray photons; light photons
B)light photons; electrons
C)light photons; x-ray photons
D)electrons; light photons
Q3) The greater the voltage supplied to the electrostatic lenses, the ____ the acceleration and the ____ the focal point to the input screen.
A)greater; farther
B)greater; closer
C)lesser; smaller
D)greater; larger
Q4) What is the magnification factor for an image viewed with an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 23 in.that is using a 10 in.diameter area during magnification?
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Q1) Common mA stations found on dedicated tomographic machines may include all of the following EXCEPT
A)10
B)30
C)40
D)100
Q2) When the movement of the tube and the image receptor are along a straight line, the tomographic motion is classified as A)linear.
B)circular.
C)elliptical.
D)trispiral.
Q3) During tomography, the object to be examined is placed at the A)tomographic arc.
B)fulcrum.
C)exposure arc.
D)image receptor level.
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of generators used in dedicated mammography machines allows very precise control of A)kVp.
B)mA.
C)time.
D)all of the above
Q2) Mammography grids are
A)linear.
B)moving.
C)very low ratio.
D)all of the above
Q3) A disadvantage of using molybdenum for the anode material in mammography tubes is
A)less x-ray photon output.
B)increased mAs required to maintain film density.
C)increased patient dose.
D)all of the above
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Q1) The most commonly measured anatomical structures in DXA scanning are the A)wrist and shoulder.
B)ankle and knee.
C)pelvis and spine.
D)hip and spine.
Q2) Proper patient positioning for DXA scans of the hip includes
A)the femoral greater trochanter in profile.
B)clear visibility of the lesser trochanter.
C)foreshortening of the femoral neck to make it parallel to the long axis of the table.
D)external rotation of the feet.
Q3) Type II osteoporosis is distinguished from Type I in that
A)Type I is hormonal in nature.
B)Type II is age-related.
C)Type I is post-menopausal.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Q1) Most angiographic studies are produced at what kVp range?
A)30 to 40
B)40 to 50
C)50 to 100
D)75 to 110
Q2) What is required for an analog image intensifier to produce a digital image?
A)CCD
B)PACs
C)DICOM
D)LAN
Q3) How many heat units are generated by a series of 10 exposures using 75 kVp, 300 mA, 0.15 sec.on a high frequency unit?
Q4) How many heat units are generated by a series of 30 exposures using 70 kVp, 200 mA, 250 ms.on a single-phase unit?
Q5) Of the choices below, the preferred method for angiographic image acquisition is
A)roll film changer because of speed.
B)cut film changer because of film-screen contact.
C)cineangiographic camera because of high frame rates and low dose.
D)digital imaging technology because of post-processing functionality.
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Q1) CT image data is acquired in the
A)coronal plane and reconstructed in the axial plane .
B)transverse plane and reconstructed in any plane.
C)sagittal plane .
D)axial plane and reconstructed in the coronal plane.
Q2) A series of tissue density values that evolved for CT measurements is called ____ units.
A)Hounsfield
B)H & D
C)attenuation
D)iterative
Q3) The primary mathematical method used in the creation of computerized medical images is the ____ transformation.
A)interpolation
B)Hounsfield
C)algorithm
D)Fourier
Q4) If the table is moving at 10 mm/sec., and a section thickness of 8 mm is being acquired, what is the pitch?
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) When gradient coils are referred to, the x axis coil is referred to as the ____ gradient. A)selection
B)phase encoding C)frequency encoding D)none of the above
Q2) In MRI, the primary visual factor is often called A)linearity.
B)geometric shape.
C)resolution.
D)brightness.
Q3) The Larmor frequency is the ____ frequency. A)quantum
B)precessional C)linear
D)all of the above
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Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) A milliCurie is
A)abbreviated as mCi.
B)3922 counts per second.
C)37 MBq.
D)all of the above
Q2) All of the following are methods of nuclear image acquisition EXCEPT
A)dynamic, gated imaging.
B)SPECT.
C)radiofluoroscopic.
D)planar.
Q3) The radioactive elements Carbon-12, Carbon-13 and Carbon-14 are ______ to each other
A)isobars
B)isomers
C)isotopes
D)isotones
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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Q1) Palliative treatment plans
A)are intended to cure the patient's cancer condition.
B)are administered in a single massive dosage.
C)require fewer treatment sessions than curative plans.
D)do not consider exposure reproducibility.
Q2) The very first successful use of radiation energy to treat and cure a disease process was with a case of A)acne.
B)psoriasis.
C)retinoblastoma.
D)melanoma.
Q3) Radiotherapy treatment plans require
A)an informed consent.
B)a psychological examination.
C)an assessment by a physical therapist.
D)the patient to take a leave of absence from work.
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) High frequency transducers have
A)better resolution and less penetration.
B)better resolution and better penetration.
C)lower resolution and less penetration.
D)lower resolution and better penetration.
Q2) unit of acoustic impedance
A)B-mode
B)rayls
C)damping material
D)decibels
E)Doppler
F)acoustic coupler
G)PZT
H)matching layer
I)M-mode
J)Huygen's principle
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