Medical Imaging Techniques
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Imaging Techniques explores the principles, applications, and advancements of imaging modalities used in clinical diagnosis and research. The course covers the fundamental physics behind X-rays, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine, emphasizing image formation, contrast mechanisms, instrumentation, and safety considerations. Students will analyze the strengths, limitations, and appropriate uses of each technique in medical practice, while also discussing innovations such as advanced image reconstruction, functional imaging, and artificial intelligence integration. Case studies and practical examples will highlight the critical role of medical imaging in disease detection, treatment planning, and patient management.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 8th Edition by Kenneth L. Bontrager
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20 Chapters
2106 Verified Questions
2106 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles
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198 Verified Questions
198 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thin film transistor (FPD-TFT)digital imaging systems are commonly referred to as digital radiography (DR).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A grid can be left in place for most digital radiographic procedures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is the complete term for RIS?
A) Radiographic imaging system
B) Radiology interpretation system
C) Radiology information system
D) Reduced intensity system
Answer: C
Q4) It is common practice to view a PA projection with the patient's left facing the viewer's right.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chest
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98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lower concave area of the lung is termed the:
A) base.
B) apex.
C) hilum.
D) costophrenic angle.
Answer: A
Q2) Silicosis (severe)
A)Increase (+)
B)Decrease (-)
C)No change (0)
Answer: C
Q3) For anterior oblique radiographs of the chest,the elongated (widened)aspect of the thorax is generally farthest from the image receptor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) An electrocardiography and echocardiography are the same procedure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Abdomen
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90 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old patient comes to radiology for an abdominal study.Even with careful instructions and immobilization,the patient is having difficulty holding still.Which of the following should be done to minimize motion on the radiograph?
A) Increase kV.
B) Decrease SID.
C) Use a shorter exposure time.
D) Ask an older experienced radiographer to hold patient.
Answer: C
Q2) Jejunum
A)Intraperitoneal
B)Retroperitoneal
C)Infraperitoneal
Answer: A
Q3) Which aspect of the small intestine is considered the shortest?
A) Duodenum
B) Jejunum
C) Cecum
D) Ileum
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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107 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the hand?
A) At the third proximal interphalangeal joint
B) At the third metacarpophalangeal joint
C) At the base of the third metacarpal
D) At the third distal interphalangeal joint
Q2) Which one of the following structures is NOT part of the ulna?
A) Styloid process
B) Radial notch
C) Ulnar notch
D) Coronoid tubercle
Q3) A general positioning rule is to place the long axis of the part ____ to the long axis of the image receptor.
A) perpendicular
B) adjacent
C) axial
D) parallel
Q4) Carpal tunnel syndrome is more common in middle-aged women than in middle-aged men.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Humerus and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior surface of the scapula is referred to as the:
A) scapular surface.
B) dorsal surface.
C) supraspinous and infraspinous fossa.
D) costal surface.
Q2) Posterior oblique,glenoid cavity projection
A)Clements modification
B)Neer method
C)Fisk modification
D)Hobbs modification
E)Garth method
F)Grashey method
Q3) Tangential,supraspinatus outlet projection
A)Clements modification
B)Neer method
C)Fisk modification
D)Hobbs modification
E)Garth method
F)Grashey method
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which joint surfaces of the ankle joint are open with an AP projection of the ankle?
A) Medial and superior
B) Lateral and medial
C) Superior and lateral
D) Medial, superior, and lateral
Q2) Which structure or bone contains the sustentaculum tali?
A) Calcaneus
B) Talus
C) Base of the fifth metatarsal
D) Tibia
Q3) Follow-up radiographs for a fractured tibia and fibula may include only the joint closest to the site of injury.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The radiographic hallmark of Reiter's syndrome seen in young men is:
A) erosion of the articular facets.
B) destruction of the patella.
C) fluid in the joints of the foot.
D) erosion of the Achilles tendon insertion.
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Chapter 7: Femur and Pelvic Girdle
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The image receptor must be placed parallel to the femoral neck for the axiolateral (inferosuperior)projection of the hip.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A disease producing extensive calcification of the longitudinal ligament of the spinal column
A)Metastatic carcinoma
B)Ankylosing spondylitis
C)Congenital dislocation of hip
D)Chondrosarcoma
E)Pelvic ring fracture
F)Osteoarthritis
G)Avulsion fracture
Q3) Which of the following pathologic conditions is a common type of aseptic or ischemic necrosis?
A) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Metastatic carcinoma
D) Osteoarthritis
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Chapter 8: Cervical and Thoracic Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the first compensatory spinal curvature to develop in the young child?
A) Thoracic
B) Cervical
C) Sacral
D) Lumbar
Q2) The anterior oblique thoracic spine demonstrates the upside zygapophyseal joints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.
A) 45°
B) 60°
C) 70° to 75°
D) 90°
Q4) An RPO position of the cervical spine requires a 45° oblique of the body with a 15° caudad CR angle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Lumbar Spine, Sacrum, and Coccyx
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fractures is due to a hyperflexion force injury?
A) Compression fx
B) Burst fx
C) Chance fx
D) Metastatic fx
Q2) The long axis of the sacrum is generally angled more posteriorly in males than females.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An anterior wedging of vertebrae with a loss of body height but rarely causing neurologic symptoms is called:
A) a teardrop burst fracture.
B) a chance fracture.
C) a compression fracture.
D) spondylolysis.
Q4) Bone densitometry produces very little skin dose to the patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Bony Thorax-Sternum and Ribs
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Sample Questions
Q1) At approximately what age does the xiphoid process become totally ossified?
A) 12 years old
B) 21 years old
C) 40 years old
D) The xiphoid process never becomes ossified.
Q2) What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic type of patient?
A) 20°
B) 15°
C) 30°
D) 10°
Q3) A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine.What must be done to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?
A) Perform an LPO projection instead of an RAO.
B) Angle CR 5° to 10° laterally to the sternum.
C) Increase rotation of the body.
D) Increase kV.
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12
Chapter 11: Cranium, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the angle between the OML and the plane of the IR for the parietoacanthial (Waters)projection?
A) 40°
B) 37°
C) 42°
D) 15° to 20°
Q2) Where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection for the mandible?
A) At the nasion
B) 2 inches (5 cm) above glabella
C) At the glabella
D) At the mentum
Q3) Which term describes the small flap of cartilage covering the opening to the ear?
A) Tragus
B) Pinna
C) Acanthion
D) EAM
Q4) Lesions of decreased density are termed osteoblastic lesions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency.
A) 0.25
B) 0.5
C) 0.75
D) 1
Q2) When using computed radiography (CR),inadequate kV or mAs will produce a ____ image.
A) dark
B) light
C) blurry
D) mottled
Q3) Research suggests that peptic ulcers may be caused by:
A) smoking.
B) bacteria.
C) alcohol.
D) antibiotics.
Q4) Only 5% of all ulcers lead to bowel perforation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Lower Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following barium enema projections and/or positions provides the greatest amount of gonadal dosage to both male and female patients?
A) AP/PA
B) Lateral rectum
C) Left lateral decubitus
D) Left posterior oblique
Q2) Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium?
A) Ileum
B) Jejunum
C) Cecum
D) Duodenum
Q3) Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1-hour small bowel radiograph should be:
A) 2 inches (5 cm) above level of the iliac crest.
B) at the level of the iliac crest.
C) 1 inch (2.5 cm) below the level of the iliac crest.
D) at the level of the ASIS.
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15
Chapter 14: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine will travel from the major calyces to the:
A) renal pelvis.
B) ureter.
C) minor calyces.
D) renal pyramids.
Q2) Phlebitis is considered to be a systemic contrast media reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the total capacity of the average adult bladder?
A) 350 to 500 mL
B) 100 to 250 mL
C) 500 to 750 mL
D) 1000 to 1200 mL
Q4) Where is the CR centered for a nephrotomogram of the kidneys?
A) At the xiphoid process
B) At the iliac crest
C) Midway between the iliac crest and the xiphoid process
D) Midway between the ASIS and the iliac crest
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Chapter 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiographer receives 400 mR/hr standing 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit.What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet?
A) 100 to 150 mR/hr
B) 75 to 100 mR/hr
C) 25 to 50 mR/hr
D) Less than 10 mR/hr
Q2) How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?
A) Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum
B) Perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor (IR)
C) Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane
D) Parallel to the midsagittal plane
Q3) Subluxation is best described as a:
A) dislocation of a bone from a joint.
B) forced wrenching or twisting of a joint.
C) partial dislocation.
D) loss of alignment resulting in some deformity of a long bone.
Q4) The entire sterile gown,worn by the surgeon,is considered sterile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Pediatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Pigg-O-Stat can be employed for pediatric skull procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Children should not drink any fluid (including water and fruit juice)for 4 hours prior to intravenous urography (IVU).
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 1-year-old child comes to radiology for an erect abdomen.Which one of the following immobilization devices or techniques should be used during the exposure?
A) Tam-em Board
B) Pigg-O-Stat
C) Compression bands
D) Stockinette
Q4) The adhesive surface of the tape should be applied directly to the skin of infants to help prevent movement of the body part during the exposure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Angiography and Interventional Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A procedure for stone removal,biopsy,dilation of obstructed bile duct,internal and external drainage
A)Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
B)Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)
C)Embolization
D)Thrombolysis
E)Percutaneous vertebroplasty
F)Percutaneous biliary drainage (PBD)
G)Stent placement
H)Inferior vena cava filter
I)Kyphoplasty
Q2) Eventually,the external jugular vein connects with the ____ to form the brachiocephalic vein.
A) external jugular vein
B) subclavian vein
C) superior vena cava
D) vertebral vein
Q3) Lymphography is considered an obsolete radiographic procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following pathologic indications for a head CT is directly related to trauma?
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Brain atrophy
C) Brain abscess
D) Subdural hematoma
Q2) Hemianopia is a condition defined as:
A) blindness occurring in half of the visual field in each eye.
B) an iron deficiency producing intracranial bleeding.
C) a congenital tumor in the thalamus.
D) an abnormal collection of CSF in the cranial ventricles.
Q3) Prospective electrocardiogram (ECG)gating used during cardiac CT permits the heart to be scanned:
A) during maximum cardiac contraction.
B) while tricuspid and mitral valves are open.
C) during the diastole cycle.
D) during the systole cycle.
Q4) Submillimeter slice thicknesses are possible with multislice CT scanners.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Special Radiographic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of ERCP procedures are performed by a:
A) radiologist.
B) radiologic technologist.
C) gastroenterologist.
D) surgeon.
Q2) Intercondylar fossa projections are often required during a conventional knee arthrogram.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The chief disadvantage of CT scanograms as compared with orthoroentgenography is:
A) distortion of joints due to penumbra.
B) artifacts from special ruler placed in gantry.
C) CT involves high cost and specialized equipment.
D) CT produces a poor image of bones.
Q4) Objects within the objective plane will appear:
A) blurred.
B) sharp and in relative focus.
C) as radiolucent densities.
D) as streaks.
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Chapter 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) All high-density or thick structures appear light on MR images.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glucose metabolism in the brain naturally increases as an individual grows older.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All tissues within the same strength magnetic field respond at the same relaxation rates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There have been some documented adverse long-term effects for childbearing-age technologists working in an MRI department,but additional studies are needed to affirm this.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In many cases,PET can detect abnormal function before the onset of physical symptoms.
A)True
B)False
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