

Medical Imaging Science
Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Medical Imaging Science explores the principles, technology, and applications of various imaging modalities used in modern medicine to visualize the interior of the human body. The course covers foundational topics such as the physics of image formation, instrumentation, and the interpretation of images produced by X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine techniques. Students will learn about the strengths and limitations of each modality, safety considerations, and the role of medical imaging in disease diagnosis, treatment planning, and monitoring. Emphasis is placed on developing an understanding of image quality, artifacts, and the integration of imaging data into clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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1738 Verified Questions
1738 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you purchase four (4) twelve-packs of soda as a fundraiser for $10.00 and sell each can of soda for 50 cents, your profit is
A)$9.74.
B)$14.00.
C)$24.00.
D)$34.00.
Answer: B
Q2) Change 23.46 to a percent.
A)0.2346 %
B)23.46 %
C)2,346 %
D) (2,346 %)
Answer: D
Q3) PV = nRT; solve for T.
Answer: PV/nR
Q4) V = 1/3\(\pi\)r<sup>2</sup>h; solve for \(\pi\). Answer: 3V/r<sup>2</sup>h
Q5) F = Gm<sub>1</sub>m<sub>2</sub>/r<sup>2</sup>; solve for m<sub>1</sub>. Answer: Fr<sup>2</sup>/Gm<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elements having the same principal quantum number are in this order.
A)tungsten
B)valence
C)molybdenum
D)iodine
E)barium
F)lead
G)families (groups)
H)periods
Answer: H
Q2) In the excitation process, electrons in an atom are moved to a/an ____ energy state.
A)lower
B)higher
C)incomplete
D)all of the above
Answer: B
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) silicon
A)electron
B)neutron
C)proton
D)binding energy
E)kinetic energy
F)atomic mass
G)atomic number
H)isotope
Answer: B
Q2) If 20 volts of potential difference causes a current of 5 amperes to flow in a parallel circuit, the resistance produced is
A)1/100 ohm.
B)1/4 ohm.
C)4 ohms.
D)100 ohms.
Answer: C
Q3) A 25 watt lightbulb operates on 120-volt household voltage.How much current does the lightbulb draw?
Answer: 0.21 amp
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Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bar magnet and a wire loop move with the same linear velocity and direction.What is the voltage induced in the wire?
A)maximum when the wire and magnetic flux are parallel
B)directly proportional to their velocities
C)inversely proportional to the velocities
D)zero
Q2) 10,000 gauss
A)magnetic flux
B)spin magnetic moment
C)tesla
D)electromagnet
E)permeability
F)retentivity
G)paramagnetic
H)ferromagnetic
Q3) The charge carriers are considered to be a negative in a/an A)diode.
B)triode.
C)n-type semiconductor.
D)p-type semiconductor.
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exposure switch is found between the
A)incoming line and the circuit breaker.
B)autotransformer and the timer circuit.
C)exposure switch and the step-up transformer.
D)incoming line and the step-down transformer.
Q2) produces two pulses of electricity in 0.008 sec
A)autotransformer
B)rotor stator
C)filament current
D)three-phase power
E)single-phase power
F)AEC
G)exposure switch
H)rectification circuit
Q3) Automatic exposure control (AEC) technology determines
A)patient thickness.
B)exposure time.
C)kVp.
D)mA.
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Page 7

Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) The focusing cup has a/an ____ charge.
A)neutral
B)atomic
C)positive
D)negative
Q2) How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 70 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.1 second on a 3\(\phi\) rectified unit?
Q3) The function of the cathode is to produce
A)a focal point.
B)an electrical connection to the rectifier.
C)a thermionic cloud.
D)a grounding effect.
Q4) The use of the line-focus principle causes a problem known as the ____ effect.
A)space charge
B)quantum mottle
C)anode heel
D)saturation current
Q5) How many heat units are generated by three (3) exposures of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second using a high frequency generator?
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost all of the kinetic energy of the incident electrons is converted to A)a bremsstrahlung photon.
B)a characteristic x-ray photon.
C)light.
D)heat.
Q2) At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron.
A)innermost
B)K
C)outermost
D)characteristic
Q3) If the peak kVp is 110, the average keV energy of the beam would be
A)12-24 keV.
B)33-44 keV.
C)66-77 keV.
D)110 keV.
Q4) X-rays are characterized as A)charged particles.
B)electromagnetic waves of short wavelength.
C)electromagnetic waves with high frequencies.
D)both b and c
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Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) measure of absorbed dose
A)Gray (Gy)
B)Sievert (Sv)
C)Roentgen (R)
D)somatic damage
E)genetic damage
F)Curie (Ci)
G)Equivalent Dose (HT)
H)Effective Dose
Q2) Electromagnetic radiations are characterized as
A)particulate energy disturbances
B)energy disturbances traveling through space, with no mass or charge.
C)low frequency energies with negligible mass.
D)all of the above
Q3) In CT scanning, the total amount of energy directed at matter is expressed as A)Curie.
B)Integral Dose.
C)Effective Dose.
D)Kerma.
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following agencies is a regulatory agency responsible for protecting both the public and occupationally exposed individuals from the effects of ionizing radiation?
A)NCRP
B)ICRP
C)NRC
D)IRS
Q2) random in nature and non-threshold dose response
A)compound filter
B)added
C)Thoraeus filter
D)trough filter
E)beryllium
F)aluminum
G)HVL
H)keV
I)1.5 mm aluminum minimum filtration
J)2.5 mm Al
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Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Thoraeus filter combines all of the following materials EXCEPT
A)silver.
B)copper.
C)tin.
D)aluminum.
Q2) Filtration is the process of eliminating undesirable ____ by the insertion of absorbing materials into the primary beam.
A)high-energy x-ray photons
B)high-energy incident electrons
C)low-energy x-ray photons
D)low-energy incident electrons
Q3) When comparing two x-ray beams, one at 60 kVp and another at 85 kVp,
A)adding aluminum to the 60 kVp beam greatly reduces the skin dose to the patient.
B)the 85 kVp beam will offer a lower entrance skin exposure.
C)adding 0.5 mm of aluminum to the 85 kVp beam will require no additional mAs in order to maintain beam intensity.
D)all of the above
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12

Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph is produced using 25 mAs at 80 kVp.To cut the exposure in half, how much should the kVp be increased?
Q2) The factors that directly affect x-ray quality are
A)kVp and beam filtration.
B)mAs and distance.
C)filtration and mAs.
D)focal spot size and anode angle.
Q3) The prime factors include all of the following EXCEPT A)filtration.
B)mAs.
C)kVp.
D)distance.
Q4) Given an exposure time of 0.06 second and a milliamperage of 400, calculate the mAs.
Q5) The product of tube current and exposure time is equal to A)kVp.
B)x-ray beam quality.
C)x-ray beam quantity.
D)the HVL.
Q6) Given 5 mAs and a milliamperage of 200, calculate the exposure time.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an x-ray photon passes through matter, it undergoes a process called A)induction.
B)filtration.
C)attenuation.
D)resonance.
Q2) Which of the following interactions has a significant impact on the x-ray image?
A)Compton scattering
B)coherent scatter
C)pair production
D)photodisintegration
Q3) In diagnostic radiology, radiographic image contrast is principally due to the predominance of
A)photodisintegration interactions.
B)Bremsstrahlung interactions.
C)photoelectric interactions.
D)Compton interactions.
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Page 14

Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) male gonadal shielding
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q2) The conscientious radiographer can reduce the patient dose by at least ____ in most examinations by choosing appropriate exposure factors.
A)100 percent
B)75 percent
C)50 percent
D)25 percent
Q3) In an effort to reduce dose, the recommended SID for routine radiography is
A)36-38 inches.
B)40-42 inches.
C)44-48 inches.
D)56 inches.
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ nerve transmits visual neurological information to the brain.
A)trigeminal
B)sciatic
C)auditory
D)optic
Q2) The skills of a quality radiologist are a combination of education, experiences, and a thorough understanding of disease and disease conditions as they are presented in diagnostic studies.Their ability to provide an accurate interpretation is premised on the assumption that all radiographers are performing procedures according to established protocols and procedures.If two technologists perform the same x-ray study differently, the impact upon the radiologist would be what?
Q3) Scotopic vision is controlled by the A)rods.
B)iris.
C)cones.
D)pupil.
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) As more photons pass through the irradiated material unaffected, the resulting image receptor exposure has
A)greater image distortion.
B)less image distortion.
C)greater radiographic image density.
D)less radiographic image density.
Q2) When collimating down from a 14"x17" field size to a 8"x10" field size,:
A)mAs must be increased to maintain radiographic image density.
B)kVp must be increased to maintain image quality.
C)off-focus radiation production is increased.
D)the mAs should be reduced by 50%.
Q3) Which of the following is placed between the patient and the image receptor to absorb scatter radiation?
A)radiographic grid
B)AEC detector
C)collimator
D)cylinder
Q4) PBLs may also filter the x-ray beam.
A)True
B)False

17
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following elements would attenuate a lesser percentage of the x-ray beam?
A)hydrogen
B)barium
C)oxygen
D)carbon
Q2) Subject contrast is high.
A)Compton scatter
B)photoelectric effect
C)12.31
D)air
E)fat
F)water
G)bone
H)chest
I)subject detail
J)subject density
Q3) Subject distortion occurs naturally.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pathologic condition involves the filling of the interstitial lung tissues and is commonly associated with congestive heart failure?
A)cardiomegaly
B)pulmonary embolus
C)pulmonary edema
D)bronchiectasis
Q2) Which pathologic condition involves the bacterial inflammation of lung tissue?
A)pulmonary edema
B)pneumonia
C)pneumoconiosis
D)pneumonectomy
Q3) Which one of the following pathologies would require an increase in kVp?
A)bowel obstruction
B)pneumothorax
C)emphysema
D)bacterial pneumonia
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Chapter 18: The Grid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Photon absorption within the body occurs as the result of A)Compton interactions.
B)characteristic interactions.
C)photoelectric interactions.
D)Bremsstrahlung interactions.
Q2) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid.A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid with a conversion factor of 6.75.What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?
Q3) A grid absorbs
A)light.
B)incident electrons.
C)scatter electrons.
D)scatter radiation.
Q4) As the lead content of a grid increases,
A)the contrast improvement factor (K) decreases.
B)the ability of the grid to remove scatter increases.
C)the contrast decreases.
D)exposure to the image receptor increases.
Q5) If the lead strips are 2.0 mm high and are separated by an interspace of 0.25 mm, what is the grid ratio?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) 2-5 micrometers in thickness
A)Gurney-Mott theory
B)sensitivity speck
C)film base
D)supercoat
E)latent image
F)panchromatic film
G)duplicating film
H)orthochromatic film
I)manifest image
J)30-60%
K)halation theory
L)68 95%
Q2) The impurity added to the crystal lattice is called the A)silver ion.
B)gold-silver dust.
C)sensitivity speck.
D)hardener.
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21

Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fixer solution becomes saturated with ____ ions.
A)bromide
B)silver
C)sodium
D)copper
Q2) rate is determined by running length of film.
A)safelight
B)recirculation system
C)electrolytic
D)clearing time
E)fixer
F)crossover rack
G)solvent
H)replenishment
Q3) The most common cause of developer contamination is
A)roller drag.
B)crossover.
C)splashing.
D)drying.
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Page 22

Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Equipment used to carry out film processing sensitometric procedures includes a A)penetrometer.
B)sensitometer.
C)densitometer.
D)both b and c
Q2) The single most important factor in efficient silver recovery is the A)developer replenishment.
B)fixer dwell time.
C)fixer temperature.
D)film transport time through the processor.
Q3) required for processor quality control
A)speed point
B)gamma
C)step wedge
D)densitometer
E)characteristic curve
F)latitude
G)average gradient
H)sensitometer
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Page 23

Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) blue-emitting phosphor
A)CaWO<sub>4</sub>
B)gadolinium oxysulfide:terbium activated
C)fluorescence
D)conversion efficiency
E)RS 100
F)MTF
G)artifact
H)phosphorescence
I)increases quantum mottle
J)line spread function
K)RS 400
L)lp/mm
Q2) When light is emitted from a phosphor instantaneously upon photon excitation, it is called
A)intensification.
B)fluorescence.
C)phosphorescence.
D)luminescence.
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) When matrix size is increased and pixel size goes down,
A)spatial resolution decreases.
B)spatial resolution increases.
C)contrast increases.
D)both a and c
Q2) Digital radiography (DR) is characterized by
A)the electronification of data scanned from a film-based media.
B)the use of reusable receptors.
C)the application of analog counting techniques.
D)the processing of the receptor data using dry chemistries.
Q3) CR systems acquire clinical information by
A)laser scanning a PSP plate.
B)gathering light from a scintillator.
C)direct digital transformation of x-ray photon energy to a selenium plate.
D)capturing light from a charged couple device (CCD).
Q4) An x-ray exposure taken at 80 kVp has an average energy of
A)24 keV.
B)35 keV.
C)60 keV.
D)80 keV.

Page 25
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Soft copy display of images refers to A)unprocessed images
B)pre-processed images
C)images displayed on a lightbox
D)images displayed via a video monitor
Q2) Examples of a biomedical informatics(BMI) platform include
A)Hospital Information System (HIS).
B)Electronic Medical Record (EMR).
C)Radiology Information System (RIS).
D)all of the above
Q3) For how many years do many institutions store radiographic film images?
A)1 to 2 years
B)1 to 5 years
C)5 to 7 years
D)5 to 10 years
Q4) Gray scale bit depth determines
A)pixel size
B)pixel pitch
C)the number of gray shades
D)image resolution
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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) production of final image
A)narrowing the search
B)pyramid problem
C)image processing
D)wide acceptance limits
E)image acquisition
F)acceptable limits
G)narrow acceptance limits
H)image analysis
Q2) Upon analysis of a chest radiograph taken on a female patient, the radiographer notices that there is an uneven radiographic density over the lung bases.One lung base is significantly underexposed compared to the other.In an effort to determine the possible cause(s), a logical strategy to take would be to
A)inspect the AEC detectors and retake the image.
B)retake the image on expiration.
C)ask the patient if she has had a previous breast surgery.
D)make a note for the radiologist that you cannot explain the opacification, as the patient is asymptomatic.
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27

Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) require an increase in mAs as ratio increases
A)mAs
B)kVp
C)density maintenance formula
D)radiographic grids
E)15% rule
F)anode heel effect
G)focal spot size
H)recorded detail
I)EI value
J)visibility of detail
Q2) A change in kVp, as an exposure factor, affects
A)average beam energy.
B)beam intensity.
C)the amount of scatter production.
D)all of the above
Q3) A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp.What kVp is required to halve the exposure?
Q4) If 60 kVp, 100 mA, and 0.25 sec.produce a satisfactory radiograph, what mAs was used?
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Sample Questions
Q1) fewer shades of gray across the final image
A)average gradient
B)long scale contrast
C)Compton interactions
D)low contrast
E)short scale contrast
F)high contrast
G)photoelectric interactions
H)subject contrast
Q2) When the tissue structure of the ankle joint is considered, the dramatic tissue differences between the muscles and bones of the ankle produce
A)high subject contrast.
B)low subject contrast.
C)high radiographic density.
D)low radiographic density.
Q3) The principal controlling factor of contrast is
A)kVp.
B)mAs.
C)focal spot size.
D)anode angle.
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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 6 in.
Q2) creates a Moire effect
A)PSF
B)quantum noise
C)resolution increase
D)MTF
E)MF
F)LSF
G)aliasing
H)loss of visibility of detail
Q3) As focal spot size decreases,
A)umbra is improved.
B)penumbra decreases.
C)resolution increases.
D)all of the above
Q4) Calculate the SID necessary to achieve a penumbra of 0.8 mm if the focal spot size is 1.0 mm and the object is 3 inches from the detector.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 3 cm, what would be the percent magnification of the object?
Q2) Proper alignment is achieved when the central ray is ____ to the part and ____ to the image receptor.
A)perpendicular; parallel
B)parallel; perpendicular
C)perpendicular; perpendicular
D)parallel; parallel
Q3) X-ray tube angulations inherently
A)require radiographic grids.
B)change the SID.
C)introduce magnification to some degree.
D)both b and c
Q4) Size distortion is controlled by A)SID.
B)OID.
C)radiographic distances.
D)all of the above
Q5) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in.and the OID is 5 in.
Q6) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in.and the SOD is 25 in.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) Images that are grossly overexposed
A)will have recorded detail.
B)will have a low S#.
C)will possess poor visibility of detail.
D)will have a large EI value.
Q2) residual feces in bowel
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
Q3) Geometric problems dealing with distortion could be due to
A)focal spot selection.
B)x-ray tube alignment.
C)collimation problems.
D)inadequate mAs.
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Page 32

Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) collimator-to-receptor accuracy
A)synchronous motor spinning top
B)2% of SID
C)DQE
D)MQSA
E)12 inches
F)S:N ratio
G)exposure reproducibility
H)15 inches
Q2) Installation and acceptance testing of equipment is the responsibility of the A)radiation physicist.
B)radiology supervisor.
C)radiology equipment vendor.
D)staff radiographer.
Q3) Test tools for focal spot size estimation include each of the following EXCEPT a A)pinhole camera.
B)star test pattern.
C)line pair resolution tool.
D)motorized synchronous top.
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Page 33

Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are advantages of the fixed kVp technique system EXCEPT:
A)Patient dose is higher.
B)mAs values are at a minimum based upon thickness.
C)Radiographic contrast is predictable and uniform.
D)A greater exposure latitude is permitted.
Q2) Fixed kVp systems
A)decrease patient dose.
B)reduce x-ray tube wear.
C)decrease time settings.
D)all of the above
Q3) Technique systems function best when a large number of variables are permitted to vary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Variable kVp systems
A)produce higher contrast images than other systems do.
B)enhance the visibility of detail.
C)increase the perception of resolution.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionization chamber AECs are usually used in a ____ chamber configuration.
A)one-
B)two-
C)three-
D)four-
Q2) AP abdomen radiograph
A)phototiming
B)minimum response time
C)backup mAs
D)underexposed image
E)overexposed image
F)density controls
G)all three detectors
H)center detector only
Q3) Early versions of AEC technology were referred to as
A)photometers.
B)phototimers.
C)photosensors.
D)voltage regulators.
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Page 35

Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following exposure settings will yield an image with the shortest scale of contrast?
A)200 mA, 0.09 s, 100 kVp, 12:1 grid
B)400 mA, 0.05 s, 75 kVp, 8:1 grid
C)300 mA, 0.06 s, 90 kVp, 10:1 grid
D)500 mA, 46 ms, 77 kVp 12:1 grid
Q2) A particular radiograph was produced using 8 mAs and 84 kVp with an 8:1 ratio grid. The film is to be repeated using a 16:1 ratio grid. What should be the new mAs?
A)5 mAs
B)8 mAs
C)14 mAs
D)20 mAs
Q3) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.The film is repeated using a three-phase, high frequency generator.Calculate the new mAs.
Q4) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the variable kVp theory.The part measuring 10 cm and 65 kVp was used.To maintain exposure, what kVp should be used if the part measures 14 cm?
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) convenient SID for mobile radiography
A)110-120 volts
B)capacitor discharge
C)Picker Corporation
D)high frequency output
E)56 inches
F)rechargeable batteries
G)tethered detector
H)low ratio and high frequency
I)dead man switch
J)CVP line
Q2) How many lead aprons should be carried to a mobile radiographic examination?
A)none; lead aprons are not necessary
B)one for the radiographer
C)one for the patient
D)two: one for the patient and one for the radiographer
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Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluoroscopy is commonly used for observation of A)cardiovascular structures.
B)a surgical procedure.
C)the GI tract.
D)all of the above
Q2) Cassette-based spot filming has been replaced by A)digital photospots.
B)CCD chips.
C)dry laser films.
D)CR cassettes.
Q3) The most common solution for quantum mottle is to
A)increase the fluoro tube mA.
B)decrease the fluoro tube mA.
C)decrease the efficiency of the input screen.
D)decrease the efficiency of the flux gain.
Q4) The photocathode is composed of ____ metals.
A)lead-based
B)photoabsorptive
C)photoemissive
D)electrostatic

Page 38
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) higher tomographic contrast with poor resolution
A)zonogram
B)panoramic tomography
C)40 degrees
D)focal plane
E)exposure amplitude
F)10 degrees or more
G)section interval
H)maximum blur
Q2) Common mA stations found on dedicated tomographic machines may include all of the following EXCEPT
A)10
B)30
C)40
D)100
Q3) Tomographic images are
A)inherently high contrast due to the thickness of the cut.
B)inherently low contrast.
C)primarily taken of the sagittal plane of the patient.
D)commonly taken of the head.
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of generators used in dedicated mammography machines allows very precise control of A)kVp.
B)mA.
C)time.
D)all of the above
Q2) Magnification projections of the breast provide
A)increased resolution.
B)a reduction in scatter radiation.
C)improved visibility of detail.
D)all of the above
Q3) When the backup time is reached during a breast exposure, the radiographer should select a ____ setting for the repeat radiograph.
A)lower mAs
B)higher mAs
C)higher kVp
D)lower kVp
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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type II osteoporosis is distinguished from Type I in that
A)Type I is hormonal in nature.
B)Type II is age-related.
C)Type I is post-menopausal.
D)all of the above
Q2) All of the following are true of the bone remodeling process EXCEPT:
A)It is a balanced activity between the action of osteocytes and chondrocytes.
B)It is influenced by hormones.
C)Osteoclast activity in excess can result in a loss of bone mass.
D)Osteoblast activity equals osteoclast activity in a healthy individual.
Q3) DXA scans of the spine
A)are done with the patient supine and with legs fully extended.
B)are considered more reliable than those of the hip or forearm.
C)include the lumbar vertebrae L<sub>2</sub>- L<sub>4</sub>.
D)include all lumbar vertebrae regardless of T score between the individual vertebrae.
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pressure of a contrast medium injector is measured in A)pounds per square inch.
B)pounds per cubic centimeter.
C)force per density.
D)viscosity per square inch.
Q2) How many heat units are generated by a series of 30 exposures using 70 kVp, 200 mA, 250 ms.on a single-phase unit?
Q3) How many heat units are generated by a series of 10 exposures using 75 kVp, 300 mA, 0.15 sec.on a high frequency unit?
Q4) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 0.20 sec.on a three-phase, 6-pulse unit?
Q5) Vascular imaging generators should have the capacity to deliver ____ mA.
A)50
B)100
C)300
D)1,000
Q6) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 75 kVp, 400 mA, 150 ms sec.using a HF generator?
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) CT image data is acquired in the
A)coronal plane and reconstructed in the axial plane .
B)transverse plane and reconstructed in any plane.
C)sagittal plane .
D)axial plane and reconstructed in the coronal plane.
Q2) A series of tissue density values that evolved for CT measurements is called ____ units.
A)Hounsfield
B)H & D
C)attenuation
D)iterative
Q3) The ____ is how well the detectors convert incoming photons.
A)capture efficiency
B)absorption efficiency
C)conversion efficiency
D)response time
Q4) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 0.8 is being used, what is the section thickness?
Q5) If the table is moving at 12 mm/sec., and a section thickness of 10 mm is being acquired, what is the pitch?
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) spin-spin interaction
A)Tesla
B)active shimming
C)resistive magnet
D)SE pulse sequence
E)gyromagnetic ratio
F)Faraday cage
G)voxel
H)cryogen
I)Larmor frequency
J)gradient coils
K)TE
L)precession
M)T<sub>2</sub> relaxation
N)GBCA
O)B<sub>0</sub>
P)NSF
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Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biological half-life of a radionuclide takes into account its A)physical decay scheme.
B)physical half-life.
C)metabolism within the human body.
D)effective half-life.
Q2) The time it takes for a radioactive nucleus to decay to 1/2 its original activity level is termed its
A)half-value layer.
B)half-life.
C)inverse decay quotient.
D)decay scheme.
Q3) Positron emission tomography (PET) scanning
A)requires sophisticated lead collimators.
B)is more sensitive than non-PET imaging for the same radionuclide amount.
C)produces image of less resolution than planar images.
D)relies on the creation of a neutron annihilating an electron to create a pair of x-ray photons from the electron cloud.
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45
Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) tracing of the shape of the tumor volume as well as structures near the tumor volume that the radiation dose will affect
A)Clarence Dally
B)isocenter
C)isodose curve
D)simulation
E)contouring
F)Emil Grubbe
G)radiotherapist
H)palliative
I)fusion imaging
J)IGRT
K)curative
L)beam angles
M)radiation oncologist
N)cone beam CT
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Page 46

Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sound energy is a type of _______ energy.
A)electromagnetic
B)mechanical
C)compression
D)potential
Q2) The relationship between ultrasound beam intensity
A)and power is inverse.
B)and power is direct, proportionately.
C)and amplitude is nonexistent.
D)and the transducer is unrelated
Q3) Harmonic sound waves
A)are the result of scattered echoes hitting each other.
B)allow the sonographer to use a low frequency transducer for penetration with improved resolution.
C)do not occur in a water medium.
D)remain as a sinusoidal wave shape but can change shape based upon tissue shape and contour.
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