Medical Imaging Fundamentals
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Imaging Fundamentals provides an in-depth introduction to the principles, technologies, and methodologies used in medical imaging. This course covers the physics and engineering behind major imaging modalities, including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Students will explore image formation, data acquisition, image reconstruction, and interpretation, as well as the strengths, limitations, and clinical applications of each modality. The course emphasizes the importance of image quality, safety protocols, and emerging innovations, equipping students with a foundational understanding crucial for careers in biomedical engineering, radiology, and healthcare technology.
Recommended Textbook
Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry
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31 Chapters
845 Verified Questions
845 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person can become infected with HBV or HIV by touching __________________ ___________________ and transferring contaminants to the _______________, ________________, and/or _____________.
Answer: contaminated surfaces; eyes, nose, and/or mouth
Touching contaminated surfaces and transferring the infectious material to the mouth, nose, or eyes is a more indirect means of transmission.
Q2) Sources of infection for HBV and HIV include blood. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The sonographer should always provide the interpretive report. _____
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Chronic pancreatitis ____
Answer: IR
An interpretive report (final report) includes a detailed description of the ultrasound findings and a diagnosis (or diagnoses) derived from them.
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Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing,
and Storage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior border of the gallbladder cannot be seen on sagittal view; it appears to be cut off. Which control is most likely to correct this?
A) Depth
B) Frequency
C) TGC
D) Cine loop
Answer: A
Q2) The frequency control ensures that
A) imaging depth is appropriate.
B) tissue resolution is adequate.
C) the right focal zone is used.
D) the image freezes.
Answer: B
Q3) The sonologist has requested a side-by-side comparison view. Which control should be used?
A) Focal zone position
B) Focal zone number
C) Left/right key
D) Imaging preset
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: General Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A signed informed consent form is required from patients for
A) all ultrasound studies.
B) endocavital studies.
C) ultrasound-guided percutaneous procedures and endocavital studies.
D) ultrasound-guided percutaneous procedures.
Answer: C
Q2) Before a patient gets onto or off of the examination table or stretcher, the sonographer must make sure it is _____________________________________.
Answer: stationary and the brakes have been set
Before a patient gets onto or off of the examination table or stretcher, the sonographer must make sure the table or stretcher is stationary and the brakes have been set.
Q3) What action conveys a sense of genuine interest in the patient?
A) Making small talk
B) Adjusting the tone and expression of your voice
C) Obtaining a medical history
D) Discussing your opinion of the ultrasound findings
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term through transmission is synonymous with A) sound attenuation.
B) posterior enhancement.
C) acoustic shadowing.
D) infiltrative process.
Q2) Transverse planes divide the body into unequal ______ and _________ sections.
Q3) Which anatomic area is NOT generally demonstrated in a sagittal plane?
A) Lateral
B) Inferior
C) Anterior
D) Posterior
Q4) Which of the following occurs during an initial scanning survey?
A) Measurements of abnormal anatomy are obtained.
B) No images are taken during an initial scanning survey.
C) Images required by the institution's protocol are obtained.
D) Sagittal and transverse images of pertinent anatomy are obtained.
Q5) With regard to echo texture characteristics, a disease can be described as _________ or __________.
Q6) An accumulation of serous fluid in the abdominopelvic cavity is called
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nervous system assists the endocrine system through the hypothalamus, which controls the pineal gland; the pineal gland in turn controls the other endocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Venous flow in the lower extremities is accomplished primarily by means of
A) subatmospheric pressure.
B) cardiac systolic contractions.
C) skeletal muscle contractions.
D) cardiac diastolic contractions.
Q3) The urinary system regulates blood volume and composition by filtering waste from the blood that passes through the kidneys, which form urine. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ovulation is the A) mature ova.
B) immature ova.
C) encasement of immature ova.
D) discharge of a mature ovum from its follicle.
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Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anatomic area is NOT seen on a transverse scanning plane image?
A) Superior
B) Right lateral
C) Anterior
D) Medial
Q2) Which structure is NOT retroperitoneal?
A) Gallbladder
B) Pancreas
C) Urinary bladder
D) Abdominal aorta
Q3) The lesser sac
A) extends from the diaphragm to the pelvis and covers the width of the abdomen.
B) is a diverticulum of the greater sac located posterior to the stomach.
C) is a double layer of peritoneum that extends from the stomach to adjacent abdominal organs.
D) attaches to the anterior surface of the transverse colon.
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8
Chapter 7: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The IVC is formed in week 3 of gestation. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The umbilical veins degenerate into one umbilical vein, which carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hepatic section of the IVC is derived from the A) subcardinal/supracardinal vein.
B) proximal vitelline vein.
C) subcardinal vein.
D) supracardinal veins.
Q4) Embryonic kidneys function by the end of week 5. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The septum transversum in the embryo eventually becomes the connective tissue for the liver. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta
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Sample Questions
Q1) The median sacral artery is superior to the A) renal arteries.
B) adrenal arteries.
C) gonadal arteries.
D) common iliac arteries.
Q2) The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sonographically, in a longitudinal section, the abdominal aorta appears as a
A) pulsatile, tubular, anechoic lumen with bright, echogenic walls.
B) pulsatile, axial, anechoic lumen with bright, echogenic walls.
C) non-pulsatile axial, anechoic lumen with anechoic walls.
D) none of the above
Q4) Left renal vein ____
Q5) Splenic vein ____
Q6) Pylorus of the stomach ____
Q7) The gonadal arteries can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava
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Sample Questions
Q1) Echoes thought to be associated with blood flow sometimes can be seen in the IVC.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hepatic veins ____
Q3) Intestines ____
Q4) Blood is moved forward through the veins by A) gravity.
B) the force of the aorta.
C) valves, which close to prevent antegrade flow.
D) a decrease in thoracic pressure, which pulls the blood to the right atrium.
Q5) The IVC can be divided into the following sections:
A) Suprahepatic, infrahepatic, and midhepatic
B) Hepatic, prerenal, renal, and postrenal
C) Hepatic, lumbar, renal, and gonadal
D) All of the above
Q6) Right kidney ____
Q7) Body of the liver ____
Q8) Aorta ____
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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial branch of the left portal vein is easier to visualize than the lateral branch.
A)True B)False
Q2) The normal main portal vein measures up to
A) 5 cm in diameter and 3 to 4 cm long.
B) 5 cm in diameter and 5 to 6 cm long.
C) 13 mm in diameter and 5 to 6 cm long.
D) 10 cm in diameter and 3 to 4 cm long.
Q3) Hepatic artery lumen ____
Q4) The bifurcation of the right portal vein is best seen in a sagittal scanning plane.
A)True B)False
Q5) Portal venous walls ____
Q6) The portal triad is located
A) throughout the liver.
B) in several places in the liver.
C) at the opening of the liver.
D) none of the above
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure does NOT border the abdominal aorta anteriorly?
A) Portal vein
B) Superior mesenteric artery
C) Celiac axis
D) Stomach
Q2) Normally, flow patterns in the portal vein and its branches are characterized by
A) continuous, minimally phasic, disordered flow with high mean velocities.
B) pulsatile, biphasic, disordered flow with low mean velocities.
C) continuous or minimally phasic disordered flow with low peak and mean velocities.
D) phasic flow with low peak and mean velocities.
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about the portal vein?
A) It supplies approximately 70% of the oxygenated blood flow to the liver.
B) It is an intraabdominal vein.
C) It is formed by the confluence of the umbilical, splenic, and superior mesenteric veins.
D) Blood flow in the portal vein normally is hepatopetal in direction.
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13
Chapter 12: The Liver
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main lobar fissure represents a
A) marker identifying the falciform ligament.
B) boundary between the right and left lobes.
C) division between the medial and lateral portions of the left lobe.
D) landmark fissure of the caudate lobe.
Q2) The quadrate lobe of the liver is also referred to as
A) the papillary projection.
B) the main lobar fissure.
C) the medial portion of the left lobe.
D) Glisson's capsule.
Q3) Prominent pulsatility of the Doppler waveform in the portal vein is A) normal.
B) abnormal.
Q4) Blood flow to the caudate lobe is supplied by the A) hepatic artery.
B) right portal vein.
C) left portal vein.
D) right and left portal vein.
Q5) Diabetes ______
Q6) Cell membranes ______
14
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Chapter 13: The Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the A) celiac artery.
B) proper hepatic artery.
C) splenic artery.
D) common hepatic artery.
Q2) A normal gallbladder appears round on the longitudinal view. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most inferior portion of the common bile duct is called the infraduodenal portion. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Length of the common bile duct ____
Q5) Length of the right and left hepatic ducts ____
Q6) The gallbladder fossa can be identified close to the main lobar fissure. ____ A)True B)False
Q7) Diameter of the common bile duct ____
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Q8) The layers of the gallbladder wall are the ______________, _____________, and __________.
Chapter 14: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) A small part of the ______ of the pancreas is enclosed in peritoneum.
A) tail
B) body
C) neck
D) head
Q2) Arterial flow to the head, body, and tail of the pancreas is through the
A) suprapancreatic, pancreatic, and prepancreatic arteries.
B) suprapancreatic, pancreatic, and caudal pancreatic arteries.
C) prepancreatic, pancreatic, and prehilar arteries.
D) anterior and inferior pancreaticoduodenal and splenic arteries.
Q3) A water-filled stomach makes the pancreas more difficult to visualize. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pancreatic juice is composed of nucleic acids and also enzymes that help digest fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The contour of the pancreas cannot be observed on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adrenal gland is easily visualized sonographically in adults. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medullary pyramids are separated from each other by bands of cortical tissue called ____________ .
Q3) The kidneys are composed mainly of two distinct areas: the
A) corpuscle and proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
B) parenchyma and sinus.
C) renal loops and medulla.
D) medullary and renal pyramids.
Q4) The length, depth, and diameter of a normal adult kidney are
A) 9 to 12 cm, 2.5 to 4 cm, and 4 to 6 cm, respectively.
B) 8 to 10 cm, 1.5 to 3 cm, and 2 to 4 cm, respectively.
C) 9 to 12 cm, 4 to 6 cm, and 2.5 to 4 cm, respectively.
D) none of the above
Q5) Where is renin produced?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Kidney
C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D) Posterior pituitary gland
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen lies in the epigastrium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Liver ____
Q3) The spleen has a hilar area, similar to the liver and the kidneys. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which artery is a branch of the splenic artery?
A) Left gastric artery
B) Short gastric artery
C) Right gastroepiploic artery
D) Inferior mesenteric artery
Q5) The splenic artery arises from the
A) superior mesenteric artery.
B) common hepatic artery.
C) celiac artery.
D) proper hepatic artery.
Q6) The hilar area of the spleen is not covered by peritoneum. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which region is the stomach NOT likely to be found?
A) Epigastric region
B) Left upper quadrant
C) Left hypochondrium
D) Left inguinal region
Q2) The duodenum receives the common bile duct via the ampulla of Vater in which of these segments?
A) Second (descending) segment
B) Fourth (ascending) segment
C) Third (transverse) segment
D) First (superior) segment
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a part of the small bowel ?
A) Duodenum
B) Ileum
C) Cecum
D) Jejunum
Q4) The duodenum is located within the peritoneal cavity. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The seminal vesicles join with the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory ducts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Semen is composed of
A) 60% alkaline fructose, 13% to 33% alkaline fluid, and sperm.
B) 13% to 33% alkaline fructose, 70% alkaline fluid, and sperm.
C) 70% alkaline fructose, 13% to 33% sperm, and acidic fluids.
D) 60% sperm, 13% to 33% alkaline fluid, and fructose.
Q3) The area close to the center of the prostate is called the
A) anterior fibromuscular region.
B) verumontanum.
C) central zone.
D) regional stroma.
Q4) Denonvilliers' fascia
A) is an interior covering for the prostate gland.
B) is the external coating for the seminal vesicles.
C) lies between the prostate and the rectum.
D) lines the external wall of the urinary bladder.
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Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscles do NOT lie within the true pelvis?
A) Iliacus muscles
B) Piriformis muscles
C) Levator ani muscles
D) Obturator internus muscles
Q2) Which support structure anchors the ovary loosely to the uterine cornu?
A) Mesovarium
B) Ovarian ligament
C) Round ligament
D) Cardinal ligament
Q3) When the uterine body and fundus are tilted posteriorly, uterine position is described as
A) anteflexed.
B) retroflexed.
C) retroverted.
D) anteverted.
Q4) The _______ ligaments are not true ligaments and provide minimal support.
Q5) The uterine tubes are oriented ________ in the body.
Q6) The peritoneal cavity space posterior to the broad ligaments is the ________.
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Q7) The two descriptive compartments of the pelvis are the ________ and ________.
Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first structure identified within the gestational sac?
A) Amniotic membrane
B) Yolk sac
C) Double bleb sign
D) Synechia
Q2) The double bleb sign
A) describes the early blastocyst.
B) is the sonographic appearance of the embryo disk lying between the secondary yolk sac and developing amniotic cavity.
C) distinguishes a pseudo sac from a gestational sac.
D) is eventually obliterated by the amniotic cavity.
Q3) Membranes formed from scarring or adhesions secondary to surgery or infection are called
A) succenturiate.
B) uterine synechia.
C) amniotic bands.
D) amnion-chorionic separation.
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Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42
Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abdominal circumference (AC) is measured through (a) _________ plane(s) of section where the __________ are continuous with one another.
A) single; right and left portal veins
B) multiple; right and left portal veins
C) single; right and left hepatic ducts
D) multiple; right and left hepatic ducts
Q2) The atrial septal opening is the
A) ductus venosus.
B) mitral valve.
C) foramen ovale.
D) ductus arteriosus.
Q3) Some experts believe that __________________ in the 2nd trimester can be used as an accurate predictor of an abnormal fetal outcome.
Q4) The cisterna magna is a(n)
A) moderately echogenic portion of the brain stem.
B) anechoic medullary pyramid.
C) anechoic subarachnoid space.
D) highly reflective brain fissure.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amniocentesis is associated with which risk(s)?
A) Infection
B) Injury to the fetus
C) Premature delivery
D) All of the above
Q2) ________________was developed as a 2nd trimester means of collecting a sample of amniotic fluid, which is used for a variety of metabolic assays or for DNA extraction.
A) Amniocentesis
B) Ultrasound exam
C) Chorionic villus sampling
D) Biophysical profile
Q3) The lecithin-sphingomyelin (L-S) ratio is used to
A) determine lung maturity.
B) rule out uterine infections.
C) determine cardiac activity.
D) determine fetal abnormalities.
Q4) Ultrasound is used during in utero procedures to confirm that the needle is in the correct position and that ___________________________.
Q5) Twin gestations result from fertilization of either _______ or a _______.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The high resolution sonography recommended for evaluation of parathyroid adenomas is
A) 3.5 to 5 MHz.
B) 5 MHz only.
C) 4.5 MHz.
D) 7.5 to 15 MHz.
Q2) The sonographic appearance of the normal parathyroid glands generally is
A) hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
B) mixed echogenicity with calcifications.
C) anechoic with through transmission.
D) hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
Q3) The major neurovascular bundle is located posterolateral to the thyroid gland and consists of the common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism develop hypercalcemia. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Breast Sonography
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Q1) Breast computer-aided detection (B-CAD) automatically selects a region of interest for computer-aided assessment of the breast. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lobules are subunits of lobes. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Prolactin
A) aids breast development.
B) stimulates breast secretory system after childbirth.
C) acts on breast during pregnancy to prepare for nursing.
D) stimulates the release of milk during nursing.
Q4) Alveoli are located within Cooper's ligaments and secrete milk. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Estrogen
A) aids in breast development.
B) stimulates the breast's secretory system after childbirth.
C) acts on the breast during pregnancy to prepare for nursing.
D) stimulates the release of milk during nursing.
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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 60% of semen is composed of
A) spermatozoa produced by the testes.
B) alkaline fluid rich in fructose, produced by the seminal vesicles.
C) acidic fluid rich in fructose, produced by the seminal vesicles.
D) alkaline fluid rich in fructose, produced by the testes.
Q2) The main arterial blood supply of the penis includes the
A) deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, dorsal artery, and pampiniform plexus arteries.
B) superficial dorsal artery, deep dorsal artery, and deep artery of the penis.
C) deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, and dorsal artery.
D) deep artery of the penis, dorsal artery, and deep dorsal artery.
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the spermatic cord?
A) Low level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) High echogenicity
D) It cannot be identified on ultrasound.
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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain
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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the caudate nucleus?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the caudothalamic groove?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the cerebral parenchyma?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q4) The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the A) interventricular foramina of Monro.
B) aqueduct of Sylvius.
C) aperture of Magendie.
D) aperture of Luschka.
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography
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Q1) On 2D, the heart has a soft, homogeneous, even textured appearance ranging from medium to low intensity. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Subxiphoid imaging is best used to help
A) interrogate the interatrial septum
B) determine situs
C) check for pericardial effusion
D) All of the above
Q3) In the long axis of the aortic arch (suprasternal notch view), using blood direction, in what sequence will you encounter the normal head/neck vessels?
A) left common carotid, left subclavian, innominate artery
B) innominate, left common carotid, left subclavian artery
C) right subclavian, right common carotid, innominate artery
D) innominate, left subclavian, left common carotid artery
Q4) The oxygen content and intracardiac pressures are higher on the right side of the heart than on the left. _____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography
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Q1) The thickest layer of the heart is the myocardium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diastole and systole are the left ventricular relaxation and filling phase of the cardiac cycle. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Atrioventricular valves are not the same as semilunar valves. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Suspected aortic root dissection may be diagnosed with confidence with A) TTE.
B) a chest radiograph.
C) a fast CT scan.
D) TEE.
Q5) The moderator band cannot be seen on ultrasound. ____ A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of the vascular diagnostic laboratory is to answer the following questions using an array of indirect and direct noninvasive evaluations: Is vascular disease present? Where is it located? How severe is the disease process? What are the therapeutic options? Has revascularization been successful? ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is NOT a component of the Doppler equation?
A) Doppler peak diastolic frequency
B) Angle of the Doppler beam with respect to the path of blood flow
C) Speed of sound in soft tissue
D) Velocity of blood flow
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about the anterior tibial artery?
A) Proximally, it lies close to the inner side of the neck of the fibula.
B) It lies on the fibula and anterior ligament of the ankle join in the lower third of the leg.
C) It becomes the dorsalis pedis artery distal to the ankle joint.
D) It is almost always accompanied by two anterior tibial veins.
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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 4 in 4D ultrasound refers to A) a special algorithm.
B) space.
C) time.
D) velocity.
Q2) The most important step in acquiring 3D ultrasound images is A) volume acquisition.
B) reconstruction.
C) rendering.
D) movement of the transducer.
Q3) With automatic acquisition the "Region of Interest" box requires the sonographer to A) move the transducer across the area of interest.
B) keep the transducer stationary.
C) turn the patient so that the area of interest is closest to the transducer.
D) perform an algorithm.
Q4) Matrix array transducers contain hundreds of imaging elements. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intraoperative ultrasound is not limited by __________, __________, or __________.
Q2) With ultrasound-guided aspiration, the examiner can __________ any change in shape or size of a fluid-filled structure.
Q3) Ultrasound-guided aspirations assist needle placement for A) fluid sampling.
B) small organ or stone extraction.
C) nephrostomies.
D) tissue sampling.
Q4) Laparoscopic ultrasound is used to: a. ________________________________ b. ________________________________ c. ________________________________
Q5) A percutaneous cholangiogram is an ultrasound-guided procedure for A) bile drainage.
B) evaluation of the gallbladder. C) gallbladder biopsy.
D) evaluation of the liver.
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