Medical Imaging for Dental Professionals Exam Review
Course Introduction
This course provides dental professionals with an in-depth understanding of medical imaging techniques used in dental practice, including conventional and advanced radiographic modalities. Emphasis is placed on the principles of image acquisition, interpretation, radiation safety, and the integration of digital imaging technologies into patient care. Students will learn to select appropriate imaging methods for various dental conditions, analyze normal and pathological findings, and apply best practices to ensure optimal diagnostic outcomes while minimizing patient exposure. The course also explores recent advancements such as cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) and their implications for diagnosis, treatment planning, and interdisciplinary collaboration in modern dentistry.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of heat produced in the x-ray tube is ________ than the amount of radiation produced.
Answer: greater
Q2) Ionization occurs:
A)when an atom gains a neutron
B)when the atom has no charge
C)when an atom loses a proton
D)when an atom loses an electron
Answer: D
Q3) Examples of particulate radiation include:
A)alpha particles
B)electrons
C)neutrons
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q4) Because of the alternating current supplied to the x-ray tube it is considered to be _______.
Answer: self-rectified
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Q5) The determination of the size and shape of the x-ray beam is called ________. Answer: collimation
Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) A radiographic image produced with a kVp setting of approximately 65 will appear as an:
A)image with high-contrast
B)image with short-scale contrast
C)image with mostly black and white areas
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The most common cause of poor definition in a radiograph is ___________.
Answer: movement
Q3) In order to increase the contrast on a radiograph one should ________ the kVp. Answer: decrease
Q4) The degree of blackness on a film in known as:
A)contrast
B)density
C)umbra
D)penumbra
Answer: B
Q5) When using the bisecting method the object-film distance is kept to a ______________.
Answer: minimum
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) A film that has been fogged will have decreased _____________.
Q2) The lead foil backing is included in the intraoral film packet:
A)to absorb back-scattered radiation
B)to help keep the film packet light-tight
C)to hold the film in place
D)to protect the film from saliva
Q3) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q4) When the x-ray photons strike the phosphors of the intensifying screen ________ photons are produced.
Q5) Film-screen imaging systems produce ___________ definition than intraoral film.
Q6) Identify the fastest film speed currently available for intraoral radiography:
Q7) The main advantage of intensifying screens is:
A)quicker developing
B)less radiation to the patient
C)easier to prepare the cassette
D)better image definition
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The output of a dental x-ray machine is expressed in ________.
Q2) Radiation damage to somatic cells is ________ passed on to succeeding generations.
Q3) The total body radiation dose from a four bitewing examination utilizing E-speed film and rectangular collimation is approximately:
A)1 hour of background radiation
B)12 hours of background radiation
C)2 weeks of background radiation
D)1 month of background radiation
Q4) Identify the time between exposure to ionizing radiation and the appearance of clinical symptoms:
A)latent period
B)short-term effect
C)somatic effect
D)genetic effect
Q5) A tissue that is near the primary beam and receives a lot of secondary radiation is the _________.
Q6) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recommended selection criteria are based on the patient's:
A)medical history
B)dental history
C)thorough clinical examination
D)caries risk assessment
E)all of the above
Q2) Radiographs taken to confirm that procedures have been completed are called
Q3) Which of the following results in the greatest reduction of radiation to the patient?
A)low kVp
B)rectangular collimation
C)short developing time
D)high mA
Q4) The removal of the long wavelength, low energy x-ray photons from the beam is the job of the:
A)collimator
B)filters
C)insulating oil
D)open-ended cone
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q2) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
Q3) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Sample Questions
Q1) In manual processing, the thermometer should be kept in which solution?
A)developer
B)fixer
C)water bath
D)any of the above
Q2) The minimum size for a darkroom should be:
A)2 × 2 feet
B)4 × 4 feet
C)6 × 6 feet
D)none of the above
Q3) The concentrated solution that is added to the processing solutions to compensate for oxidation and loss of solution volume is called:
A)acidifier
B)replenisher
C)hardener
D)oxidizer
Q4) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
Q5) A clear film can be caused by ______ or _______.
Q6) If the developing time is 5 minutes, then the fixing time should be approximately
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Items to consider for infection control with radiographic procedures include:
A)lead apron
B)film packets
C)dental chair
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is false? Long-sleeved dental gowns:
A)need not be worn for the taking of radiographs
B)should be taken home to wash
C)can be worn when not in the dental office
D)all of the above
Q3) The process used to destroy all pathogens, including highly resistant bacteria and spores, is:
A)disinfection
B)autoclaving
C)sterilization
D)universal precautions
Q4) Infection control procedures should be followed for __________ patients.
Q5) Soaps for hand washing in the dental operatory should be _____________.
Q6) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
Page 10
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phrase "dot in the slot and the white toward me" ensures that:
A)the patient's head is properly positioned for intraoral radiography
B)the film and tooth are kept parallel to each other
C)the patient will not move during radiographic procedures
D)the orientation dot will not be superimposed over the apex of the root and the film will not be exposed backwards
Q2) Identify the film placement most likely to excite the gag reflex:
A)maxillary central incisors
B)mandibular canine
C)maxillary molars
D)mandibular molars
Q3) Identify the correct teeth to be radiographed with this film position: "the center of the film aligns with the second premolar":
A)incisors
B)canines
C)premolars
D)molars
Q4) When the PID is not positioned so that it almost touches the patient's face, a ________ film will result.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique.
Q2) Identify the major disadvantage of the bisecting technique:
A)images produced are often distorted
B)it is difficult for the patient
C)the long cone required is bulky and hard to manage
D)film holding devices may be confusing
Q3) The imaginary angle that is bisected with the use of the Bisecting Angle Technique is formed between the long axis of the tooth and:
A)the long axis of the PID
B)the horizontal axis of the film
C)the long axis of the film
D)the horizontal axis of the tube head
Q4) Identify a possible patient scenario in which the bisecting angle technique would be used:
A)an adult with a small mouth
B)a child
C)a person with a low palatal vault
D)all of the above
Q5) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
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Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high thyroid collar placement should never be used when:
A)taking bitewings on children
B)taking occlusal films
C)taking pantomograms
D)the patient has a history of radiation therapy to the neck
E)all of the above
Q2) A panoramic unit has a narrowly collimated __________.
Q3) Your panoramic radiograph reveals narrow anterior teeth, the spinal column superimposed over the ramus, and overlapped premolar contact areas. Identify the cause of this error:
A)patient was too far back from the focal trough
B)patient did not hold the tongue against the palate during exposure
C)patient's chin was tilted down too far
D)patient was too far forward in the focal trough
Q4) All of the following are advantages of panoramic radiography EXCEPT:
A)patient cooperation
B)image quality
C)time of exposure
D)simplistic procedure
Q5) All of the patient's __________ must be removed before taking a pantomogram.
Page 13
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) Identify the projection used to view the maxillary sinus and middle third of the face:
A)lateral oblique
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q2) The Waters' projection is taken in the:
A)coronal plane
B)sagittal plane
C)axial plane
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following methods is best for radiographing an impacted third molar?
A)posterior anterior
B)lateral oblique projection of the mandible
C)lateral skull
D)posterior anterior of the sinuses
Q4) The extraoral projection used in cephalometric analysis is the _________ projection.
Q5) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ projection can be used to view the TMJ from the axial plane.
Q2) For the transcranial technique, the central ray is aimed _____ inches above and _____ inch in front of the external auditory meatus.
Q3) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
Q4) When examining the TMJ, one disadvantage of computed tomography is that this type of scan does not include images of the:
A)external meatus of the ear
B)mandibular condyle
C)articular disc
D)articular eminence
Q5) Images that are opaque on an image obtained by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)have a _________ hydrogen density and a _________ signal.
Q6) On the average, the exposure time at 65 kVp and 10 mA for a transcranial projection is:
A)7 to 10 impulses
B)7 to 10 seconds
C)7 to 15 impulses
D)7 to 15 seconds
Q7) In TMJ radiography it is preferable to take films in the __________ positions.
Page 15
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a digital image, you could expect to have:
A)256 shades of gray
B)100 shades of gray
C)32 shades of gray
D)10 shades of gray
Q2) The wireless system that uses a plate and laser beam scanning to produce an image is known as:
A)direct digital radiography with CCD system
B)direct digital radiography with CMOS system
C)storage phosphor system
D)optically scanned digital imaging
Q3) Identify the most critical part of a digital radiography system:
A)x-ray machine
B)digital sensor
C)laptop computer
D)monitor
Q4) The cost of a digital imaging unit is approximately __________.
Q5) Two types of direct sensors are ________ and ________.
Q6) In the optical scanning method one starts with the __________.
Q7) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
Q2) With the film-screen system, __________ exposures are made to obtain the diagnostic information contained in one CT scan.
Q3) The wavelengths used in MRI are:
A)long
B)cannot cause ionization
C)do not produce a radiation dose to the patient
D)all of the above
Q4) The energy source for CT scans is:
A)gamma radiation
B)radio waves
C)ultrasound
D)x-radiation
Q5) CT scans are viewed in all of the following planes EXCEPT:
A)sagittal
B)axial
C)midsagittal
D)coronal
Q6) ___________ sources of energy are used for CT scanning than for MRI.
Q7) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The task for reviewing radiographs for acceptable quality is assigned to:
A)the hygienist
B)the dentist
C)any member of the professional dental staff
D)the office manager
Q2) It is acceptable for a radiographic darkroom to contain:
A)microwave oven and/or coffee maker
B)space for hats and coats
C)dental laboratory equipment
D)none of the above
Q3) Fresh, full-strength fixer clears films in:
A)30 seconds
B)1 minute
C)2 to 3 minutes
D)10 minutes
Q4) The powder capable of contaminating intraoral film is approximately ___% lead.
Q5) Maintaining high levels of ________ competence is the basis of any quality assurance program.
Q6) The _______ has published an outline of preventive procedures for radiographic systems.
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
Q2) A patient with a shallow palatal vault presents a problem for which technique:
A)bitewing
B)bisecting angle
C)paralleling
D)occlusal
Q3) Good patient management techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)praising patients for good cooperation
B)ignoring patient questions regarding radiation dose
C)instructing patients in a firm but polite tone
D)instructing patients with confidence
Q4) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
Q5) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
Q6) All of the following are positive ways to relax the dental patient EXCEPT:
A)to recognize the patient by name
B)to develop a good chairside manner
C)to chew gum during radiographic procedures
D)using small talk prior to radiographic procedures
Page 19
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) All of the following restorations would have the same radiopaque appearance EXCEPT:
A)amalgam
B)gold
C)foils
D)composite
Q2) The nasal septum ends inferiorly at another radiopaque landmark known as the:
A)nasal conchae
B)anterior nasal spine
C)nasal cavity
D)nasopalatine foramen
Q3) All of the following landmarks will appear radiolucent EXCEPT:
A)ridge
B)concavity
C)foramen
D)concavity..
Q4) The broad radiolucent band seen just below the internal oblique ridge is the
Q5) In order to improve viewing of radiographs, mounts should be made of
Q6) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) In determining a differential diagnosis, identify the radiographs that should be initially considered:
A)full mouth series
B)panoramic radiograph
C)CT scan
D)MRI
Q2) The final diagnostic role rests with the _________.
Q3) If a lesion is not seen in three planes:
A)the operator should dismiss the patient
B)no advanced imaging is needed
C)the operator should reschedule the patient's appointment
D)further imaging is needed
Q4) Edentulous areas:
A)cannot be radiographed
B)should be radiographed
C)should not be radiographed
D)may sometimes be radiographed
Q5) ____% of all pathologic conditions seen in the jaws are the result of nonvital teeth and their sequela.
21
Q6) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) All of the following periodontal changes do not appear on radiographs EXCEPT:
A)moderate bone loss
B)inflammation
C)hypertrophy
D)recession
Q2) An example of caries that is almost never seen on radiographs is:
A)incisal
B)interproximal
C)lingual
D)incipient
Q3) Furcation involvement of periodontal disease could be found in which of the following teeth?
A)teeth #4, 5, 6
B)teeth #30, 31, 32
C)teeth #10, 11, 12
D)teeth #8, 9, 10
Q4) Teeth with short conical roots and bone loss have a very _________ prognosis.
Q5) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
Q6) The height of alveolar bone is best evaluated on periapical films taken by the
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Which of the following will appear radiopaque on radiographs?
A)a periapical granuloma
B)first-stage periapical cemental dysplasia
C)a periapical cyst
D)none of the above
Q2) How do a periapical cyst and a periapical granuloma appear radiographically?
A)they may appear identical
B)a cyst is always larger
C)a cyst is always smaller
D)none of the above
Q3) Both internal and external idiopathic root resorption result in:
A)root fracture
B)tooth movement
C)pulpal necrosis
D)all of the above
Q4) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q5) Fistulous tracts are almost ________ seen on periapical radiographs.
Q6) High pulp horns on teeth are usually associated with ___________.
Page 23
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) Impacted teeth can be localized in their mesiodistal position by periapical, ___________, or lateral oblique films.
Q2) The joining of two or more teeth by cementum is termed:
A)germination
B)fusion
C)concrescence
D)taurodontism
Q3) Teeth that exhibit dilaceration may be a problem if what type of treatment is needed?
A)endodontic therapy
B)extraction
C)amalgam restoration
D)a and b
Q4) When a tooth has what appears to be two crowns and one root canal, the condition is called ___________.
Q5) Identify the location of the permanent tooth buds as they develop:
A)mesially to the deciduous teeth
B)apically to the deciduous teeth
C)distally to the deciduous teeth
D)all of the above are correct
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) A slowly growing periapical cyst will have as its borders a ___________.
Q2) An intrabony lesion that on a right-angle occlusal projection shows invasion of the buccal cortex is probably:
A)benign
B)infectious
C)malignant
D)developmental
Q3) The best projection to visualize a sialolith of the submandibular duct is a:
A)mandibular molar periapical projection
B)lateral oblique projection
C)posterior anterior projection
D)right-angle mandibular occlusal projection
Q4) Slow-growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually __________ teeth.
Q5) A malignant lesion will usually have an ____________ border.
Q6) Implants will appear _____________ on radiographs.
Q7) Extraction sockets may be radiographically evident:
A)in the bone
B)up to 6 months after surgery
C)initially as radiolucent areas
D)all of the above
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
Q2) Which of the following is the most important item in defending a malpractice action?
A)records
B)dentist's recollection
C)hygienist's recollection
D)office manager's recollection
Q3) Identify the most important legal aspect of dental radiology:
A)risk management
B)liability
C)licensure
D)quality assurance
Q4) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
Q5) The dentist being physically present in the office during radiographic procedures is known as:
A)compliance
B)direct supervision
C)quality assurance
D)federal regulations
Q6) Original radiographs should ________ be kept in the dental office.
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