
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Medical Genetics is an interdisciplinary course that explores the principles of genetics as they apply to human health and disease. It covers the molecular basis of genetic inheritance, chromosomal abnormalities, gene mapping, and the genetic mechanisms behind common and rare diseases. The course emphasizes the role of genetics in diagnosis, management, and counseling of hereditary conditions, as well as the ethical, legal, and social considerations involved in genetic testing and therapy. Through case studies and current research, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how genetic information influences medical practice and personalized patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics 3rd Edition by Robert J. Brooker
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24 Chapters
913 Verified Questions
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Q1) The traits of an individual organism can be influenced by both genes and the
A) genome
B) environment
C) population size
D) genetic variation within a population
Answer: B
Q2) A variation of a gene is called a(n)________.
A) species
B) morph
C) genome
D) allele
E) proteome
Answer: D
Q3) RNA is formed by the process of ________.
A) transcription
B) translation
C) both transcription and translation
Answer: A
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Q1) A bivalent contains how many sister chromatids?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) depends on the cell
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical?
A) homologous chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) X and Y chromosomes
D) All of these choices are identical.
Answer: B
Q3) During sexual reproduction,each parent contributes one set of chromosomes.Similar chromosomes from each parent are called ________.
A) karyotypes
B) sister chromatids
C) homologs
D) sex chromosomes
Answer: C
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Q1) Differences in plant characteristics such as flower color or height are called variants or traits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Mendel's work on inheritance had an immediate influence on the scientific community and theories of inheritance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following would be used to determine the probability of three independent events in order?
A) sum rule
B) product rule
C) chi square test
D) binomial expansion
E) random sampling error
Answer: B
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Q1) Red-green colorblindness is a X-linked recessive trait in humans.If a woman who is a carrier for red-green colorblindness marries a normal male,what percent of their sons will be colorblind?
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 0%
Q2) Sex determination in humans and Drosophila is similar in the fact that
A) the ratio of X chromosomes to sets of autosomes determines maleness or femaleness in both.
B) males in both will always have one Y chromosome, whereas females will not have a Y chromosome.
C) females lack X chromosomes.
D) males have one X chromosome and females have two X chromosomes.
Q3) The coat color of calico cats is a result of ________.
A) maternal inheritance
B) X-inactivation
C) imprinting
D) extra nuclear inheritance
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Q1) In a dihybrid cross of two heterozygous individuals,you expect a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in the offspring,but observe a ratio of 9:7.What is the most likely explanation?
A) codominace
B) a sex-limited trait
C) simple Mendelian inheritance
D) incomplete penetrance
E) epistatic interactions of the two genes
Q2) Typically,a recessive allele increases the expression of a functional protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The coat characteristics of Siamese cats and Himalayan rabbits,where proteins in the extremities function differently than in other parts of the body,is an example of
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple allele systems
C) semilethal alleles
D) temperature-sensitive allele
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Q1) What is thought to be the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A) cyan bacteria/purple bacteria
B) purple bacteria/fungus
C) purple bacteria/cyanobacteria
D) algae/cyanobacteria
Q2) The inheritance of leaf pigmentation in the four-o'clock plant Mirabilis jalapa is an example of ________.
A) maternal effect
B) maternal inheritance
C) epigenic inheritance
D) imprinting
Q3) An example of genomic imprinting is
A) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy.
B) neurogenic muscle weakness.
C) snail coiling in water snails.
D) Angelman Syndrome.
E) bicoid gene in Drosophila.
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A testcross is always performed between the individual that is heterozygous for the genes to be mapped and an individual who is ________.
A) heterozygous for the genes
B) homozygous dominant for the genes
C) homozygous recessive for the genes
D) lacking the genes
Q2) Which of the following defines gene linkage?
A) Two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome.
B) Genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.
C) The process by which genetic information is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.
D) All of these choices are correct.
E) Both two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome and genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.
Q3) Map distance is the number of recombinant offspring divided by the total number of nonrecombinant offspring.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which human cells exhibit endopolyploidy?
A) sex cells
B) nerve cells
C) all somatic cells
D) liver cells
E) red blood cells
Q2) Select the pairs that correctly match an aneuploid condition to its genotype.
A) Edward syndrome - trisomy 18
B) Down syndrome - trisomy 21
C) Jacobs syndrome - XYY
D) Turner syndrome - XXY
E) Klinefelter - XO
Q3) Polytene chromosomes are
A) chromosomes that lack telomeres.
B) chromosomes with high copy number variation.
C) backup copies of chromosomes that are kept segregated away from the functional copies.
D) bundles of hundreds of copies of the same chromosome.
Q4) Visible or measurable characteristics of an organism,resulting from its genotype,are called its ________.
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Q1) This form of DNA transfer uses a sex pilus to transfer the genetic material.
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) fission
Q2) How does a transducing phage directly contribute to DNA transfer between bacteria?
A) By injecting a fragment of the bacterial genome from a previous host into another bacterial cell
B) By stimulating the formation of a sex pilus
C) By injecting phage DNA into a living bacterial cell
D) By incorporating DNA fragments from two different bacterial cells so that recombination can occur within the phage
Q3) During homologous recombination,areas of mismatched DNA form structures called a heteroduplex.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The direct movement of DNA between two bacteria is called genetic transfer.
A)True
B)False

Page 11
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Q1) The genetic material of HIV is single-stranded RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a property of emerging viruses?
A) mutate frequently
B) recent origin
C) more likely to cause infection compared to other strains
D) all of these
Q3) Most biologists consider viruses to be living organisms,which are classified with the bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which virus uses reverse transcriptase in its reproductive cycle?
A) HIV
B) Phage lamda
C) Both of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
D) Neither of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
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Q1) According to Chargaff's rule,if the DNA of a species contains 20% adenine,what percent of guanine will it contain?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) A purine on one strand of the DNA is always paired with a pyrimidine on the other strand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What form of DNA is most common in living organisms?
A) A DNA
B) B DNA
C) Z DNA
D) R DNA
Q4) DNA differs from RNA in which way?
A) the structure of the nucleotide
B) the five-carbon sugar it uses
C) the size of the phosphate groups
D) the number of bases attached to the sugar
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of the nonrepetitive genes in an organism are found in which of the following?
A) unique sequences
B) moderately repetitive sequences
C) highly repetitive sequences
D) None of these choices are correct.
Q2) Overwinding of the DNA decreases the number of turns in the double helix,and thus results in supercoils in the DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To date,there are no indications that transposable elements offer a selective advantage to a species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transposons that use an RNA intermediate for transposition are called ________.
A) R elements
B) RNAi transposons
C) retrotransposons
D) reverse transposons
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Q1) What process does the Holliday model help explain?
A) recombination between homologous chromosomes
B) recombination between sister chromatids
C) the creation of shortened chromosomes
D) replication initiation
Q2) DNA polymerase III has the ability to begin synthesis of the new daughter strands immediately following the formation of the replication fork.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What enzyme relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork?
A) DNA ligase
B) DNA primase
C) topoisomerase
D) DNA polymerase I
E) DNA polymerase III
Q4) A primosome consists of a polymerase and a single-stranded binding protein.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In transcription,the closed complex consists of
A) RNA polymerase.
B) transcription factors.
C) double-stranded DNA.
D) single-stranded DNA.
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a eukaryotic regulatory element?
A) enhancers
B) silencers
C) core promoters
D) cis-acting elements
E) All of the answers are examples.
Q3) Select the eukaryotic regulatory elements.
A) enhancers
B) silencers
C) cis-acting elements
D) Pribnow box
Q4) The Prinbow box contains a CACAAC consensus sequence located in the 100 region of the promoter.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which component of the ribosome is able to detect when the wrong tRNA has inserted into the A site?
A) 16S rRNA
B) P site
C) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
D) snRNA
E) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
F) 23S rRNA
Q2) The one-gene,one-enzyme hypothesis was first proposed by Beadle and Tatum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mitochondria import their ribosomes from the pool of ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What site on the ribosome is primarily responsible for holding the growing polypeptide?
A) A
B) E
C) P
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Q1) Translational regulatory proteins recognize specific areas of what molecule?
A) tRNA
B) Ribosome
C) rRNA
D) mRNA
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) How many promoters are in an operon?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) It depends on how many genes there are in the operon.
Q3) Riboswitches have been shown to have regulation of ________.
A) transcription and translation
B) only transcription
C) only translation
D) only RNA splicing
Q4) Negative transcriptional regulation is conducted by activator proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A common way of studying methylation in cells is to sequence DNA samples before and after modification with sodium bisulfite. The sodium bisulfite deaminates Cytosine residues,generating Uracil residues,therefore resulting in a change in the sequence as compared to the nonmodified DNA. Sodium bisulfite does not react with 5-methylcytosine so there will be no change in the sequence of those modified bases. When tumors are sequenced to study methylation patterns and epigenetic control,what would be the best control for sequencing using this technique?
A) Noncancerous tissue DNA from a different individual but from the same organ
B) Liver DNA from the same individual that the cancer sample is from
C) DNA from noncancerous tissue from the same individual's organ as the cancer
D) A combination of DNA from liver, brain and muscle from the same individual that has the cancer
Q2) Which of the following is part of the mechanism for epigenetic regulation of the Igf2 gene?
A) Methylation of the H19 locus
B) Methylation of the ICR and DMR domains
C) Binding of CTC factors to methylated sequences
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Q1) Select the ways in which modifications to the chromatin brought about by HOTAIR and associated proteins are proposed to inhibit transcription.
A) Direct inhibition of RNA polymerase binding
B) Attraction of other chromatin-modifying enzymes
C) Formation of a double-stranded RNA structure between HOTAIR and the mRNA preventing translation
D) Recruitment of repressors to the DNA
Q2) What is the make up of the bacterial and eukaryotic SRP,respectively?
A) Bacterial: 1 ncRNA, 1 protein; Eukaryotic: 1 ncRNA, 6 proteins
B) Bacterial: 1 ncRNA, 1 protein; Eukaryotic: 6 ncRNAs, 1 protein
C) Bacterial: 1 ncRNA, 6 proteins; Eukaryotic: 1 ncRNA, 6 proteins
D) Bacterial: 6 ncRNAs, 1 protein; Eukaryotic: 1 ncRNA, 1 protein
Q3) The CRISPR-Cas system in bacteria is most similar to what system in vertebrates?
A) Immune system
B) Circulatory system
C) Nervous system
D) Digestive system
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Q1) The complete loss of either a guanine or adenine from DNA is an example of
A) depurination
B) tautomeric shifts
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) A temporary change in the structure of a nitrogenous base is called ________.
A) depurination
B) a tautomeric shift
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Mutagens change the structure of DNA,which may lead to mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The conversion of cytosine to uracil in DNA is an example of ________.
A) depurination
B) tautomeric shifts
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
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Q1) What is the purpose of RNaseH in the making of cDNA?
A) It copies the RNA into a complementary DNA strand.
B) It reforms the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) It generates short RNAs that are used as primers.
D) It proofreads the cDNA for errors.
Q2) What occurs during the annealing stage of a PCR reaction?
A) The DNA strands separate
B) The DNA polymerase copies the template DNA.
C) The primers bind to the template DNA.
D) The reaction stops.
Q3) Bone marrow transplants typically use what type of cells?
A) embryonic stem cells
B) embryonic germ cells
C) hematopoietic stem cells
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q4) Since cDNA is made from RNA,it lacks introns and contains only the coding sequence for the functional protein.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A researcher isolates mRNA from healthy and diseased liver biopsies. Each mRNA sample is converted into cDNA and subjected to next-generation sequencing.Select all statements that describe this experiment and the possible results.
A) The researcher can identify transcripts that are more abundant in healthy liver than in diseased liver, which are candidate genes for further study.
B) The researcher can identify transcripts that are less abundant in healthy liver than in diseased liver, which are candidate genes for further study.
C) This is an RNA-Seq experiment.
D) This is a DNA microarray analysis.
E) Some genes' transcripts may be present in both samples but have different splice forms in healthy and diseased liver.
Q2) What is in situ hybridization used for?
A) cytogenetic mapping
B) physical mapping
C) linkage mapping
D) sequencing
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Q1) In the analysis of a family,you notice that males are more likely to contract a certain disease,and the daughters of affected males produce 50% of their sons affected with the disease.This disease is displaying which of the following patterns of inheritance?
A) X-linked recessive
B) autosomal recessive
C) autosomal dominant
D) None of these choices are correct.
Q2) A gene that promotes the development of cancer when it sustains a gain-of-function mutation is called a
A) housekeeping gene.
B) tumor suppressor gene.
C) proto-oncogene.
D) caretaker gene.
Q3) Epigenetics may play a role in cancer by
A) causing a change in gene expression patterns.
B) directly inducing inversion mutations.
C) directly resulting in gene deletions.
D) causing translocations.
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Q1) Which type of selection would lead to two distinct phenotypes?
A) stabilizing selection
B) phenotype selection
C) fitness selection
D) disruptive selection
E) directional selection
Q2) Consider a hypothetical gene B for which there are two alleles in the population.For every ten BB individuals that survive,six Bb individuals survive,and one bb individual survives.What are the relative fitness values for each genotype?
A) wBB = 1.0; wBb = 0.6; wbb = 0.1
B) wBB = 100; wBb = 0.6; wbb = 0.01
C) wBB = 0.59; wBb = 0.35; wbb = 1.0
D) wB = 26; wb = 7
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equation?
A) The population is large.
B) There is no migration into or out of the population.
C) There is no selection against a given genotype.
D) There is no mutation in the gene being studied.
E) There is nonrandom mating.
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Q1) A trait that varies measurably in a species is called a discontinuous trait.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following best describes the degrees of freedom for the calculation of variance?
A) (n + 1)
B) 2(n + 1)
C) (n - 1)/n
D) (n - 1)
Q3) Inbreeding reduces which of the following variances to near zero?
A) genetic variance
B) environmental variance
C) both variances
D) neither variance
Q4) If a completely inbred population shows phenotypic variance,then that variance is caused by environmental effects.
A)True
B)False
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