Medical Coding
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Medical Coding is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles and practices of classifying and coding medical diagnoses, procedures, and services using nationally recognized coding systems such as ICD-10-CM, CPT, and HCPCS. The course covers medical terminology, anatomy and physiology, healthcare compliance regulations, and the fundamentals of billing and reimbursement processes. Students will gain hands-on experience in analyzing patient records, assigning accurate medical codes, and ensuring accurate data communication for insurance claims and statistical analysis, preparing them for roles in healthcare administration and codification.
Recommended Textbook
Step by Step Medical Coding 2016 1st Edition by Carol J. Buck
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27 Chapters
1233 Verified Questions
1233 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Reimbursement, Hipaa, and Compliance
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a QIO provider renders a covered service that costs $100 and bills Medicare for the service and Medicare allowed $58, the provider would bill this amount to the patient.
A)$42
B)$58
C)$100
D)$0
Answer: D
Q2) Part B services are billed using:
A)RBRVS, GPCI, and RVUs
B)ICD-10-CM, CPT, HCPCS
C)MS-DRGs
D)APCs
Answer: B
Q3) RBRVS ________________________________________
Answer: Resource Based Relative Value Scale
Q4) List the three types of persons eligible for Medicare.
Answer: (in any order) 65 and over, those with some disabilities, those with permanent kidney failure requiring dialysis or transplant
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Chapter 2: An Overview of ICD-10-CM
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are 10 times more codes in the ICD-10-CM than in ICD-9-CM.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) There are 21 chapters in the ICD-10-CM.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) All ICD-10-CM codes have seven characters.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The following are characteristics of the ICD-10-CM index:
A)Main terms are in bold type.
B)Subterms are indented under the main term.
C)Only the first four characters of some codes are given.
D)All of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: ICD-10-CM Outpatient Coding and Reporting
Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A multigravida 48-year-old patient presents for routine prenatal visit, first trimester. No complications are noted.
ICD-10-CM Code: ___________________
Answer: O09.521
Q2) A patient is admitted to an observation unit for a medical condition that has worsened and is then admitted as an inpatient to the same hospital for the same medical condition. The primary diagnosis would be the medical condition that led to the admission.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) An established patient is seen for migraines and seizures, to rule out the possibility of a brain tumor. ____________________
Answer: Migraines
Seizures
Q4) Established patient presents with chest pain. He has a history of previous myocardial infarction and coronary artery bypass surgery.
Answer: Chest pain
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Chapter 4: Using ICD-10-CM
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct reporting for acute cholecystitis with cholelithiasis with obstruction:
A)K80.19
B)K80.12
C)K80.10
D)K80.01
Q2) A combination code is a single code used to classify:
A)two diagnoses
B)a diagnosis with an associated secondary process (manifestation)
C)a diagnosis with an associated complication
D)all of the above
Q3) Rubella meningoencephalitis.
ICD-10-CM Code:____________________
Q4) Acute and chronic prostatitis due to Escherichia coli bacterial infection.
ICD-10-CM Codes: _________________, _________________,
Q5) Primary hypertension.
ICD-10-CM Code:____________________
Q6) Arteriosclerosis of native arteries of the left leg with gangrene.
ICD-10-CM Code:____________________
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Introduction to CPT
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Sample Questions
Q1) 2xxxx Strapping; thorax
2xxxx low back
2xxxx shoulder
2xxxx elbow or wrist
A) description of extent of service
B) alternative anatomic site
C) alternative procedure
Q2) According to the Surgery guidelines, surgical destruction may be considered part of a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How often are Category III codes released?
A)annually
B)twice a year
C)every 3 years
D)as often as necessary
Q4) UFR
A)See Uroflowmetry
B)See Audiologic Function Test; Ear, Nose, and Throat
C)See Lipoprotein, Blood
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Chapter 6: Introduction to Level II National Codes HCPSC
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temporary national codes for items or services requiring uniform national coding between one year's update and the next.
A)G, K, Q
B)E, D, A
C)J, S, T
D)P, L, J
Q2) What is the HCPCS Level II code for Injection, gadoterate meglumine, 0.1 ml?
Q3) The entries in the index of the National Codes are listed under one main term.
A)True
B)False
Q4) intramuscular
A)IT
B)IV
C)IM
D)SC
E)IHN
Q5) Level II National Modifiers are located in the introduction section of the HCPCS and also in ____________________ of CPT.
Q6) Chemotherapy drugs J9000-J9999 include the ____________________ of the drug.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Modifiers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modifier -51, Multiple Procedure, is used on what type of services?
A)E/M
B)surgery
C)anesthesia
D)all of the above
Q2) Mr. Jones is admitted to the hospital by the orthopedic surgeon for severe hip pain. The ortho surgeon provides an initial hospital visit during which it is determined that Mr. Jones has a fractured hip that will require surgical intervention. Mr. Jones is taken later that day to the OR where Dr. Ortho performs the surgical procedure to repair Mr. Jones' hip. Which modifier would you use for the hospital visit? ____________________
Q3) Modifiers are used to indicate what type of information?
A)bilateral procedure
B)multiple procedures
C)service greater than usually required
D)all of the above
Q4) ____________________ lists some HCPCS modifiers in the CPT book.
Q5) What modifier would you use if you were coding only for the professional component of a diagnostic procedure? ____________________
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Chapter 8: Evaluation and Management EM Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) The level of E/M service is based on:
A)documentation
B)key components
C)contributing factors
D)all of the above
Q2) The examination is the ____ portion of the E/M service.
A)subjective
B)objective
C)assessment
D)plan
Q3) The request for advice or opinion from one physician to another physician is this type of service:
A)counseling
B)concurrent care
C)coordination of care
D)consultation
Q4) respiratory
A) BA
B) OS
Q5) The code range for Home Services is ____________________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anesthesia for radical hysterectomy.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) Which codes begin with the number 99 and are used to indicate anesthesia services provided during situations that make the administration of the anesthesia more difficult?
A)special circumstances
B)adjunct services
C)qualifying circumstances
D)physical status modifiers
Q3) Assign a CPT anesthesia code and applicable modifiers for anesthesia services for a 9-month-old normal child who received anesthesia for hernia repair in the lower abdomen.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Anesthesia code for a biopsy of the clavicle.
CPT Code: _____________
Q5) ____________________ of the CPT manual lists some HCPCS modifiers.
Q6) Daily hospital management of epidural, continuous drug administration.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q7) Assign a CPT anesthesia code for total hip replacement, open procedure.
CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 10: Surgery Guidelines and General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Third-party payers determine the contents of a surgical package.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What code is used to report routine postoperative care?
A)No code
B)99212
C)99024
D)99211
Q3) The CPT code that is used to report materials and supplies by the physician for which no other more specific CPT code exists is:
A)99070
B)99080
C)99071
D)99000
Q4) CPT Surgical Package Definition
A)Evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area
B) Special Services and Reports are presented in the Medicine Section
C)List drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided
D)Complexity of service
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Chapter 11: Extension 1: Chapter-Specific Guidelines:
ICD-10-CM Chapters 1-10
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encounter for chemotherapy for malignant glioma of the frontal lobe.
ICD-10-CM Codes: _____________________, ____________________
Q2) Atherosclerotic coronary artery disease with history of stent placement via angioplasty in the native right coronary artery.
ICD-10-CM Codes: ____________________, _____________________
Q3) If a patient is admitted for dehydration due to chemotherapy, the dehydration is the first-listed diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Congestive heart failure.
ICD-10-CM Code: ____________________
Q5) Arthritis due to Lyme disease.
ICD-10-CM Code: ____________________
Q6) Mood disorders are also known as affective disorders with the main characteristic of disturbance in mood, most commonly anxiety, depression, and bipolar disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Candidal infection of the mouth.
ICD-10-CM Code: ____________________
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Chapter 13: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which treatment of a fracture requires the fracture to be exposed to view or opened at a remote site for nailing across the fracture?
A)percutaneous
B)open
C)mixed
D)closed
Q2) Insertion of a device into the muscle to measure the pressure within the muscle is monitoring of:
A)interstitial fluid pressure
B)electrical flow
C)microvascular pressure
D)stimulation pressure
Q3) The application of a cranial halo is a form of:
A)insertional device
B)implantation fixation
C)external fixation
D)internal fixation
Q4) Total knee replacement (arthroplasty) for the treatment of severe osteoarthritis. CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 14: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fine-needle aspiration of the breast without imaging:
A)19000
B)19100
C)10021
D)19030
Q2) Incision and drainage codes are divided into subcategories according to the:
A)size of the lesion
B)condition for which the procedure is performed
C)depth of the incision
D)amount of drainage
Q3) When an excision is being performed, the "margins" refer to the ____ required to adequately excise the lesion based on the physician's judgment.
A)widest diameter
B)narrowest margin
C)square centimeters
D)length
Q4) To correctly code lesion excision, you must know the behavior (benign/malignant) as well as the site, ____________________, and ____________________ of the lesion(s).
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Chapter 14: Respiratory System
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69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician removes fluid from the chest cavity by puncturing through the space between the ribs. Using an aspirating needle attached to a syringe, the physician carefully passes the needle over the top of a rib, punctures through the chest tissues, and enters the pleural cavity. With the end of the needle in the chest cavity, the physician withdraws the fluid from the chest cavity by pulling back on the plunger of the syringe.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) The code range ____________________ is for the control of nasal hemorrhage and is located in the Other Procedures category.
Q3) Surgical thoracoscopy with pleurodesis.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Excision of a cervical tracheal tumor.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) Drainage of an abscess in the nose via internal approach.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q6) Which of the following terms does not describe the nasal turbinates?
A)exterior
B)superior
C)inferior
D)middle
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Extension 2: Chapter-Specific Guidelines:
ICD-10-CM Chapters 11-14
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Includes and Excludes of a code are only listed in the Tabular; therefore, it is imperative that you reference the Tabular before selecting a code.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patient with arthropathy of left hip associated with dysentery due to enteritis Yersina enterocolitica.
ICD-10-CM Codes: _____________________, _____________________
Q3) Direct infection of the left ankle due to leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae).
ICD-10-CM Codes: _____________________, ______________________
Q4) Dyskinesia of esophagus.
ICD-10-CM Code:_____________________
Q5) Contact dermatitis due to nickel allergy.
ICD-10-CM Code: _____________________
Q6) Ventral incisional hernia, without obstruction or gangrene.
ICD-10-CM Code:____________________
Q7) Osteoporosis is a systemic condition, meaning that all bones of the musculoskeletal system are affected.
Page 17
A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary endarterectomy with embolectomy requiring cardiopulmonary bypass.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) PTCA of left anterior descending coronary artery. A 6-French JL4 guiding catheter was used, and a 014 extra-support wire was passed through the LAD obstruction and "entered" the distal vessel. This was first dilated with a 3-mm 20 CrossSail balloon, subsequently with a 3.5 10 cutting balloon (arteriectasis). With the cutting balloon, there were four inflations at 6-7 atmospheres and up to 1-minute inflation times.
The balloon was withdrawn, and angiography showed the vessel to be wide open with mild irregularities and less than 15% narrowing remaining. There was no distal embolism. There was no dissection noted. There was normal TIMI flow. The case was then terminated at this point and balloons, catheters, and wires were removed, and the patient was sent to her room in good condition.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) A percutaneous transluminal balloon angioplasty of the right renal artery from a right femoral artery access.
CPT Codes: (Surgery Codes)____________________, ____________________ (Radiology Code, professional component only)____________________
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Chapter 17: Hemic, Lymphatic, Mediastinum, and Diaphragm
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper jugular group of lymph nodes are located in the groin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____ is a malignant disease of the bone marrow in which excessive white blood cells are produced.
A)Anemia
B)Leukocytosis
C)Leukemia
D)Leukopenia
Q3) Imbrication of the diaphragm for eventration, transabdominal, nonparalytic.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Biopsy of a lymph node by fine-needle aspiration without image guidance. CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) A diaphragmatic hernia is also known as a(n):
A)gastro hernia
B)umbilical hernia
C)esophageal hiatal hernia
D)thoracoabdominal hernia
Q6) The physician performs a complete axillary lymphadenectomy. CPT Code: ____________________ Page 19
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Chapter 18: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a colectomy is performed, a segment of the stomach is resected and an anastomosis is performed between the remaining ends.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first step in choosing the correct digestive endoscopic procedure code is to identify the ____ of the procedure.
A)extent
B)complexity
C)urgency
D)position
Q3) Colotomy with removal of foreign body.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) A direct ligation of esophageal varices.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) A diagnostic, transoral, flexible esophagoscopy was performed. During the procedure an esophageal polyp was found and removed by hot biopsy forceps.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q6) Plastic repair of a bilateral cleft lip, primary, in one stage.
CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 19: Urinary and Male Genital Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urethral dilation codes are often divided based on this factor:
A)initial or subsequent
B)new or established
C)patient status
D)none of the above
Q2) When coding 51797 it is necessary to add a modifier -51.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Urinary System subsection is first arranged anatomically.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Removal of the prostate
A) Prostatectomy
B) Retroperitoneal
C) Nephrectomy
D) Manometric study
E) Bladder aspiration
F) Calculus
Q5) Cystourethroscopy with insertion of permanent urethral stent. CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 20: Reproductive, Intersex Surgery, Female Genital System,
and Maternity Care and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetal non-stress test is completed on a 36-week pregnancy. The correct code would be:
A)59050
B)59012
C)59020
D)59025
Q2) The patient is undergoing clinical brachytherapy with insertion of Heyman capsules.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) You would expect to code a service for an amniocentesis using a code from the Female Genital System subsection and a code from the ____ section.
A)Medicine
B)Anesthesia
C)Radiology
D)E/M
Q4) Partial removal of the vaginal wall, vaginectomy.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) A radical vulvectomy is the removal of greater than 80% of the vulvar area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Extension 3: Chapter-Specific Guidelines :
ICD-10-CM Chapters 15-21
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perinatal period extends from before birth through 28 days after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Complete traumatic amputation of left arm, below the elbow, subsequent encounter.
ICD-10-CM Code: ____________________
Q3) A congenital anomaly is an abnormality one was born with.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Congenital cystic kidney disease.
ICD-10-CM Code: ____________________
Q5) An adverse effect occurs when a drug has been correctly prescribed and properly administered and the patient develops a reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Multiple closed fractured ribs to the right side, after falling down a staircase at home, initial encounter.
ICD-10-CM Codes:
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Chapter 22: Endocrine and Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reporting a craniectomy/craniotomy procedure, it is common that additional ____ is required.
A)grafting
B)catheterization
C)intubation
D)excision
Q2) What procedure is often performed with a laminectomy?
A)discectomy
B)corpectomy
C)arthrodesis
D)creation of a shunt
Q3) The physician drills a burr hole in the cranium to drain a subdural hematoma.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Craniectomy
A) method of identifying a specific area or point in the brain
B) removal of a portion of the skull
C) a small opening in the skull
D) an incision of the skull
Q5) The physician biopsies an intracranial lesion using stereotaxis.
CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 23: Eye, Ocular Adnexa, Auditory, and Operating Microscope
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Q1) Cataract and lens replacement uses ____ different approaches.
A)3
B)2
C)4
D)1
Q2) Removal of impacted cerumen from both ears using wax curettes and suction.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) The codes in the Eye and Ocular Adnexa subsection are bilateral codes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bilateral repair of blepharoptosis with frontalis muscle technique.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) Otoplasty of the right ear, with size reduction.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q6) Strabismus surgery:
A)corrects the condition in which the refractive surfaces of the eye are unequal
B)removes the opaque covering on or in the lens
C)is a repair of the cornea
D)corrects the muscle misalignment
Q7) The transparent part of the eye is the ____________________. Page 26
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Chapter 24: Radiology Section
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Sample Questions
Q1) Also known as a CAT scan, this technique allows safe, painless, and rapid diagnosis in previously inaccessible areas of the body
A)venography
B)lymphangiography
C)magnetic resonance
D)myelogram
E)cholangiography
F)computed tomography
G)angiography
H)pelvimetry
I)ultrasound
J)tomography
Q2) X-ray shoulder arthrography, supervision and interpretation only.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid leakage detection and localization.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Unlisted ultrasound procedure.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) Renal venography, unilateral, selective, supervision, and interpretation. CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 25: Pathology/Laboratory Section
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Q1) A blood creatinine.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) Code a hepatitis A, IgM antibody; hepatitis B core antibody, IgM; hepatitis C antibody, all ordered at the same time.
CPT Codes: ____________________, ____________________,
Q3) Peripheral blood smear interpretation by physician with a written report.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) bursa/synovial cyst
A) Level II
B) Level III
C) Level IV
D) Level V
E) Level VI
Q5) A service that is rarely provided, unusual, variable, or new would always require a special report in determining medical appropriateness of the service.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A serum amylase.
CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 26: The Medicine Section
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-hour and 15-minute infusion of a chemotherapeutic agent.
CPT Codes: ____________________, ____________________
Q2) Psychiatric diagnostic interview examination includes:
A)history
B)mental status
C)disposition and communication with family or other sources
D)all of the above
Q3) Home visit for stoma care and maintenance of a patient's colostomy.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, acellular pertussis vaccine
A)DtaP
B)IPV
C)HBIg
D)OPV
E)DT
F)HiB
G)MMRV
H)MMR
I)Td
J)DTP
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Chapter 27: Inpatient Coding
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Q1) The root operation that is defined as correcting a portion of a previously performed procedure is:
A)revision of device in
B)replacement
C)reposition
D)transfer
Q2) The root operation that is defined as cutting out or off, without replacement, all of a body part is:
A)restriction
B)reposition
C)resection
D)revision of device in
Q3) The root operation that is defined as freeing of a body part is:
A)release
B)repair
C)removal of device from D)inspection
Q4) Patient is admitted for a lobectomy for cancer of the lung. The patient was noted to be wheezing so the surgery was canceled because of an exacerbation of the patient's COPD.
Page 31
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