Medical Coding and Classification Systems
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to medical coding and classification systems commonly used in healthcare settings. Students will explore the principles and guidelines of coding patient diagnoses, procedures, and services using standardized systems such as ICD-10-CM, CPT, and HCPCS. Emphasis is placed on the accurate interpretation of clinical documentation, code assignment, and the ethical and legal considerations involved in medical coding. Through practical exercises and case studies, students will develop the skills necessary to apply coding conventions, ensure data quality, and support the healthcare reimbursement process. The course prepares learners for roles in medical coding, billing, compliance, and health information management.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2016 Edition 1st Edition by Karla R. Lovaasen
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27 Chapters
1674 Verified Questions
1674 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) CCS
A)American Academy of Professional Coders
B)Certified Coding Specialist
C)American Hospital Association
D)National Center for Health Statistics
E)Registered Health Information Technician
Answer: B
Q2) The two most well-known professional associations for coders are __________ and __________.
Answer: AHIMA;AAPC
AAPC;AHIMA
Q3) Compliance Officers became part of the healthcare industry as a result of ____.
A)Obamacare
B)OIG findings
C)HIPAA
D)The False Claims Act
Answer: C
Q4) ICD-10-CM can be updated _________ times each year. Answer: 2 two
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Chapter 2: The Health Record As the Foundation of Coding
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic conditions include all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A)hypertension
B)congestive heart failure
C)diverticulitis
D)emphysema
E)all of the above are correct
Answer: C
Q2) It is the responsibility of a coder to extract from the health record the diagnoses and procedures for which a patient is being treated.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A query should contain all of the following items EXCEPT ____.
A)date of service
B)amount of increased reimbursement due to query
C)patient name
D)area for provider signature
Answer: B
Q4) When coding a record,where is one of the best places to begin?
Answer: The discharge summary if available.
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Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
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39 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The code "L01 impetigo" represents a ____.
A)chapter
B)section
C)category
D)subcategory
Answer: C
Q2) The code "L05.0 pilonidal cyst and sinus with abscess" represents a ____.
A)chapter
B)section
C)category
D)subcategory
Answer: D
Q3) What does an Excludes2 note in ICD-10-CM advise a coder?
Answer: That a condition he or she may be looking for is not contained in that code and that another code may be required
Q4) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement aspiration pneumonia is a(n) ____ modifier.
A)essential
B)nonessential
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A differential diagnosis is when a patient presents with a symptom that is usually related to only one possible diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main terms usually are nouns and/or disease conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the main term in the procedure "vaginal hysterectomy"?
A)Vaginal
B)Hysterectomy
C)Vaginal hysterectomy
D)None of the above
Q4) In the discharge summary,a physician lists the __________ that were evaluated and treated and any procedures that were performed.
Q5) What is the main term in "rheumatoid arthritis"?
Q6) A coder must always remember that,once a term is located in the Alphabetic Index,the code must be verified in the Tabular List.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you assign separate codes that are used to identify acute and chronic conditions,the acute code is sequenced first.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic bronchitis?
Q3) What is the diagnosis code(s) for thoracolumbar scoliosis (neuromuscular) due to past history of poliomyelitis?
Q4) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic cholecystitis?
Q5) A patient who is a known diabetic is admitted for treatment of an ulcer of the left great toe.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q6) Principal diagnosis is defined in the Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) as that condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care.
A)True B)False
Q7) What is the diagnosis code(s) for posttraumatic osteoarthritis due to previous left femoral neck fracture (hip)?
Q8) What are the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic pancreatitis?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: General Coding Guidelines for Medical and Surgical Procedures
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173 Verified Questions
173 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body site for perirenal is kidney.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Procedure codes identified by the Medicare Code Editor as Noncovered Operating Room Procedures for which Medicare does not provide reimbursement
A)Non-OR procedure affecting MS-DRG assignment
B)Limited coverage
C)Noncovered OR procedure
D)Valid OR procedure
E)Bilateral procedure
Q3) It is a routine part of most surgical procedures to close the operative wound(s),so it is not necessary to code this separately.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alphabetic Index entry for gastric banding (stomach)
Q5) Removal of mole right upper arm
Q6) ____________________ is a minimally invasive technique that uses robotic arms to manipulate the surgical equipment and tools.
Q7) Alphabetic Index entry for resection of the adrenal glands
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Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medical-
and Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first character value for a physical rehabilitation or diagnostic audiology procedure is B.
A)True
B)False
Q2) External is the only root operation that can be used in the osteopathic section.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Detoxification services are a procedure that can be coded in the substance abuse treatment section.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the extracorporeal assistance and performance section,the definition for performance is completely taking over a physiological function by extracorporeal means.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Proton radiation (beam) therapy for brain metastasis
B)False Page 9
Q6) The first character value for substance abuse treatment is B. A)True
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Chapter 8: Symptoms,
Signs, and
Abnormal
Clinical and Laboratory Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure to syphilis: __________
Q2) A screening code may be listed first if the reason for the visit is specifically a screening exam.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Counseling on the initiation of contraceptive foam use: __________
Q4) Retained metal fragment: __________
Q5) A person who is not currently sick encounters health services for some specific reason,such as to act as an organ donor;to receive prophylactic care,such as inoculations or health screenings;or to receive counseling on health-related issues
A)A primary circumstance for using Z codes
B)Symptom
C)Screening exam
D)Is a main term in the Alphabetic Index
E)Sign
Q6) Gas pain: __________
Q7) Principal diagnosis is documented as right upper quadrant abdominal pain due to cholecystitis versus peptic ulcer disease: __________
Q8) Camp physical: __________ Page 11
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Chapter 9: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient was admitted with difficulty swallowing.EGD showed esophageal candidiasis.Patient is HIV positive.
A)B37.81,Z21,0DJ08ZZ
B)B37.89,B20,0DB17ZX
C)B20,B37.81,0DJ08ZZ
D)B20,B37.0,0DB38ZZ
Q2) Assign the code for Colorado tick fever.
Q3) Gonococcal conjunctivitis is coded to ____.
A)A54.30
B)A54.9
C)A54.03
D)A54.31
Q4) A patient is HIV positive and is currently being treated for Burkitt's lymphoma of inguinal region.
A)Z21,C83.74
B)Z21,C83.75
C)B20,C83.74
D)B20,C83.75
Q5) Assign the code for chicken pox.
Q6) Assign the code for infectious diarrhea.
Page 13
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Chapter 10: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphangioendothelioma: __________
Q2) Adrenocortical carcinoma,left gland: __________
Q3) Metastasis to Zuckerkandl's organ: __________
Q4) Patient is being treated for chemotherapy-induced anemia.Patient is receiving chemotherapy for right renal cell carcinoma.
A)C64.9,D63.0,T45.1X1A
B)D64.89,T45.1X1A,C64.2
C)C64.1,D64.81,T45.1X5A
D)D64.81,T45.1X5A,C64.1
Q5) Primary cancer of the cauda equina: __________
Q6) A patient is admitted with hematuria.The patient is a long-time cigarette smoker.A diagnostic cystoscope is performed with excision of a bladder dome lesion.The pathology report reveals transitional cell bladder carcinoma.A metastatic workup is performed with high suspicion for bone lesion.Smoking cessation advised for nicotine dependence.Discharge Diagnosis: Bladder cancer with metastasis to the bone.__________
Q7) Glossopalatine fold carcinoma: __________
Q8) What does it mean when a tumor is benign?
Q9) CDC stands for ____________________.
Q10) What is the abbreviation for non-small-cell lung cancer? Page 14
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Chapter 11: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Childhood anemia: __________
Q2) Pancytopenia due to myelodysplastic syndrome.
A)D46.9
B)D61.818,D46.9
C)D46.9,D61.818
D)D46.Z
Q3) ____ is a reduction in new blood cells due to an impairment or failure of bone marrow function.
A)Aplastic anemia
B)Thalassemia
C)Sickle cell anemia
D)Cooley's anemia
Q4) ____ is a disorder that results in the depletion of clotting factors in the blood.
A)Apheresis
B)Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C)Aplastic anemia
D)Purpura
Q6) Scorbutic anemia: __________ Page 16
Q5) The correct abbreviation for aspirin is ____________________.
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Chapter 12: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothyroidism in patient who has had a previous thyroidectomy: __________
Q2) Type 1 diabetics must use ____________________ to replace what their bodies do not produce.
Q3) Lactic acidosis: __________
Q4) A 15-year-old male patient with cystic fibrosis was diagnosed at the age of 2 and has respiratory and gastrointestinal manifestations.Patient needs a PEG tube to maximize his nutritional status.A percutaneous gastrostomy tube is inserted,and feeds are initiated.The patient's mother is instructed on gastrostomy care and tube feedings.Final Diagnosis: Cystic fibrosis.Moderate malnutrition.Procedure: Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy placement.
A)E84.11,E44.1,E84.9,0DH63UZ
B)E84.19,E44.0,E84.0,0DH63UZ,3E0G76Z
C)E84.0,E84.19,E44.0,0DH64UZ
D)E84.19,E44.1,E84.0,0DH63UZ,3E0H76Z
Q5) Personal history of nutritional deficiency
A)Z79.890
B)Z90.411
C)Z83.49
D)Z86.39
E)Z71.3
18
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Chapter 13: Mental, Behavioral, and Neuro developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catatonic schizophrenia in remission: __________
Q2) ____________________ is a progressive deterioration of mental faculties characterized by impairment of memory and one or more cognitive impairments.
Q3) The recurrent intense sexual urges and fantasies of exposing the genitals to an unsuspecting stranger
A)Masochism
B)Fetishism
C)Exhibitionism
D)Sadism
E)Transvestism
F)Voyeurism
Q4) Name one occurrence during birth that can cause intellectual disability.
Q5) An adult female patient is admitted for treatment of anorexia nervosa.The patient has moderate malnutrition,severe electrolyte imbalance,and nutritional cardiomyopathy.The dietician documents BMI of 18.
A)F50.00,E44.0 E87.8,I43,Z68.1
B)E44.0,F50.00,E87.8,I43
C)E87.8,F50.02,E44.0,I43,Z68.1
D)F50.01,E44.1,E87.8,I43
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Chapter
Eye and Adnexa,and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central nervous system is made up of the ____________________ and ____________________.
Q2) There are no vaccines to prevent meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Can epilepsy be inherited?
A)True
B)False
Q4) What drug could be given to treat epilepsy?
A)Dilantin
B)Cognex
C)Aricept
D)Sinemet
Q5) What does the abbreviation "sz" stand for?
Q6) Amaurosis: __________
Q7) Pseudohole of the macula of the right eye: __________
Q8) Legal blindness in the United States is defined as severe or profound impairment in Page 20
both eyes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diseases of the circulatory system in ICD-10-CM are coded from ____.
A)K00-K94
B)I00-I99
C)H00-H59
D)F01-F99
Q2) What is the abbreviation for congestive heart failure?
Q3) Patient with alcoholic cirrhosis of the liver with bleeding esophageal varices.Watch for withdrawal symptoms due to patient's alcohol dependence.
A)I85.11,K70.31,F10.19
B)K70.30,I85.11,F10.20
C)I85.11,K70.30,F10.20
D)K70.30,I85.00,F10.19
Q4) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blood clot that forms deep in a vein,usually in the leg or hip.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The normal heart rate of a healthy adult is between _____ and _____ beats per minute.
Q6) AF is the abbreviation for ____________________.
Page 22
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation ABG stands for ____________________.
Q2) In relation to the respiratory system,what does RUL stand for?
A)Right upper lip
B)Reasonable upper length
C)Right upper lobe
D)Right upper lid
Q3) Patient is admitted with status asthmaticus.Patient was started on albuterol treatments.Patient has been intubated on previous admissions.Patient is positive for sickle cell trait and is on methadone for treatment of heroin dependence.What codes are applicable?
Q4) The correct abbreviation for bronchoalveolar lavage is ____________________.
Q5) What is the major organ of the respiratory system?
Q6) Aspiration pneumonia with MRSA pneumonia: __________
Q7) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a term used to describe the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space.
A)True
B)False
23
Q8) RAD stands for ____________________.
Q9) Laryngeal spasm: __________
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for degeneration of the liver tissue that causes blockage of the blood through the liver and inhibits its function?
Q2) Patient who is a 60-year-old female presents to the ER with severe abdominal pain.The patient has a history of Crohn's disease.She had asthma as a child with last attack at age 18 and currently appears dehydrated.After study it is determined that the patient has an abscess of the large intestine.Antibiotics are administered,as well as IV fluids with potassium to treat the dehydration and hypokalemia.
A)K50.914,K63.0,J45.909,E87.5,E86.0
B)K63.0,K50.914,E87.6
C)K50.10,J45.909,K63.0,E87.6,E86.0
D)K50.914,E87.6,E86.0
Q3) Assign the code for hematemesis: __________
Q4) What drug could be given to treat GERD?
A)Prilosec
B)Azulfidine
C)Remicade
D)Rowasa
Q5) What are the three parts of the small intestine?
Q6) What is the abbreviation for esophagogastroduodenoscopy?
Page 25
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ulcer known as a bed sore
A)Decubitus ulcer
B)Skin ulcers
C)Cellulitis
D)Stasis ulcer
E)Stasis dermatitis
F)Intertriginous dermatitis
G)Gangrene
H)Hives
I)Dermatitis
Q2) Polymorphous light eruption from first-time use of a tanning booth: __________
Q3) On the discharge summary,the provider documents the following discharge diagnoses: exacerbation of COPD and a healing sacral decubitus.
A)J44.9
B)J44.1,L89.159
C)J44.1,L98.411
D)J44.0
Q4) Senile dermatosis: __________
Q5) Another name for furuncle is a(n) ____________________.
Q6) Name a documentation challenge that coders must be aware of.
Page 26
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is an exaggerated inward curvature of the spine that may be caused by increased abdominal girth due to obesity,pregnancy,or abdominal tumors.
A)Lordosis
B)Kyphosis
C)Scoliosis
D)Myosis
Q2) ____________________ affects children usually between the ages of 2 and 5 years;it may affect only a few joints or many joints in the body.
Q3) Tenosynovitis in the right shoulder: __________
Q4) To the side of the body
A)Medial
B)Cranial
C)Ventral
D)Superior
E)Caudal
F)Dorsal
G)Lateral
Q5) Degenerative polyarticular arthritis: __________
Q6) What is the correct abbreviation for dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry?
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the site is known,urinary tract infections are assigned codes based on the site of the infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following can be detected by a urinalysis test?
A)Kidney stones
B)Diabetes
C)Cystitis
D)All of the above
Q3) The patient was admitted for treatment of BPH with urinary retention and a history of frequent urinary tract infections.The patient's PSA was normal.A TURP was performed.The patient recovered uneventfully with only minimal hematuria,which had resolved by the time of discharge.Final Diagnosis: Benign prostatic hypertrophy.Procedure: Transurethral resection of prostate.
A)N41.0,R33.0,Z87.441,0VB07ZZ
B)N41.1,R33.9,Z87.442,0VB08ZZ
C)N40.0,R33.8,Z87.442,0VB08ZZ
D)N40.1,R33.8,Z87.440,0VB08ZZ
Q4) Vesicoperineal fistula: __________
Q5) List one reason a breast biopsy would be performed.
Page 28
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Chapter 21: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient delivered 1 week before admission.She now presents to the ER with SOB and chest pain.CT confirms small pulmonary embolism.Physician documents postpartum pulmonary embolism.Patient is treated with anticoagulants for this blood clot and is discharged in stable condition.What codes are applicable? __________
Q2) A patient is an elderly multigravida at 39 weeks who has come in for trial labor following previous cesarean.The patient has been taking iron for iron deficiency anemia and is obese.Labor progresses,but fetal decelerations require repeat LTCS.On day 2,the patient develops a fever and is treated with antibiotics for suspected endometritis.
A)O76,Z37.0,O34.21,O99.02,D50.9,O99.214,O86.12,O09.523,E66.9,Z3A.39,10D00Z
B)Z37.0,O76,O34.21,O99.02,D50.9,649.11,E66.9,O86.12,Z3A.39,10D00Z1
C)O34.21,O76,Z37.0,O99.02,O99.214,O86.12,Z3A.39,10D00Z1
D)O76,O34.21,O99.02,D50.9,O99.214,O86.12,Z3A.39,10D00Z1
Q3) ICD-10-CM does NOT have separate categories for high-risk pregnant individuals. A)True
B)False
Q4) In referring to a pregnant woman,what does antepartum mean?
Q5) Suppressed lactation postpartum: __________
Q6) Lupus nephritis in second trimester of pregnancy (20 weeks): __________
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Chapter 22: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
Period and Congenital Malformations, deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
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Q1) Cesarean delivery at term of baby;hypothermia noted on admit to nursery:
Q2) Spina bifida is a curable congenital anomaly because there is a way to repair the damaged nerve tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following makes a condition clinically significant?
A)The condition requires a clinical evaluation
B)The condition requires therapeutic treatment
C)The condition requires an extended hospital stay
D)All of the above are correct
Q4) In most cases,pregnancies with chromosomal anomalies end with a natural miscarriage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Newborn is delivered vaginally and is ruled in for group B strep sepsis.
A)Z38.00,A41.9,R65.20,P00.2
B)Z38.01,P00.2
C)Z38.01,R65.20,A41.9
D)Z38.00,P36.0
Page 30
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Chapter 23: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fat embolism syndrome usually is present within _____ to _____ hours following the injury.
Q2) Small piece of grass from mowing lawn at a single-family house stuck on right cornea.Grass was removed.Assign injury and procedure codes only.
A)T15.01xD,08C8XZZ
B)T15.01xA,08C8XZZ
C)T15.02xA,08C9XZZ
D)T15.02XD,08C9XZZ
Q3) Laceration on nose due to being hit in nose by surfboard while vacationing at the beach.Laceration of the skin was repaired.
A)S01.21xD,W21.89xA,Y92.832,Y93.18,0HQ1XZZ
B)S01.21xA,W21.89xA,Y92.832,Y93.18,Y99.8,0HQ1XZZ
C)S01.22xA,W21.89xA,Y92.832,Y99.8,0HQ1XZZ
D)S01.22xD,W21.89xA,0HQ1XZZ
Q4) Where is the best place to look for the petechial rash that forms from fat embolism syndrome?
Q5) A break in a bone is called a(n) ____________________.
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Q6) When air or gas bubbles get into the bloodstream,this is called a(n)
Chapter 24: Burns, adverse Effects, and Poisonings
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of the "Rule of Nines" EXCEPT ____.
A)genitalia is 1%
B)the head and neck are 9%
C)each arm is 9%
D)the anterior trunk is 9%
E)each leg is 18%
Q2) Sunburned chest: __________
Q3) What are the four major types of abuse?
Q4) Active treatment of non-healing second-degree burn to right forearm due to hot iron while ironing (accidental): __________
Q5) Allergy other than to medicinal agents-milk products
A)Z69.020
B)Z88.8
C)Z91.030
D)Z88.7
E)Z91.010
F)Z91.89
G)Z91.011
H)Z91.410
Q6) Battered spouse syndrome: Confirmed abuse by her husband: __________
Page 33
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Chapter 25: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leaking silicone breast implant,initial visit: __________
Q2) Rejection of heart transplant confirmed by left percutaneous ventricular biopsy:
Q3) Patient is admitted for treatment of primary liver cancer.Patient had a liver transplant 2 years ago.Patient has a past medical history of hypertension and COPD and is a former alcoholic,now in remission.Patient has been sober for 10 years.
A)T86.49,C80.2,C22.8,F10.20,Y83.0
B)T86.49,C80.2,C22.9,I10,J44.1,F10.20,Y83.0
C)C80.2,T86.49,C22.9,J44.1,F10.21,Y83.0
D)T86.49,C80.2,C22.8,I10,J44.9,F10.21,Y83.0
Q4) Patient was admitted for TAH (removal of uterus and cervix) due to symptomatic fibroids.The physician documented in the operative report that a complication had occurred in which the bladder was accidentally lacerated during the procedure and was repaired with suture.
A)D25.9,N99.72,0UT97ZZ,0UTC0ZZ,0TQB0ZZ
B)D25.9,N99.71,0UT90ZZ,0UTC0ZZ,0TQB0ZZ
C)D25.9,N99.72,0UT90ZZ,0TQB7ZZ
D)D25.9,N99.71,0UT97ZZ,0TQB7ZZ
Q5) Mechanical complications are related to ____________________ malfunctions.
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Chapter 26: Reimbursement Methodologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A listing of the services,procedures,drugs,and supplies that can be applied to a patient's hospital bill is called a ____.
A)chargemaster
B)charge description number
C)department number
D)revenue code
Q2) The Quality Improvement Organizations function under ___-year contracts called SOW.
A)1
B)3
C)6
D)9
Q3) How do you calculate case-mix index?
Q4) The ____________________ Act was responsible for the establishment of the Medicare program.
Q5) Quality improvement organizations are NEVER required to conduct individual case reviews;it is ALWAYS a combined case review.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Out patient Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnoses are always established at the time of the initial visit.It never takes more than one appointment to confirm a diagnosis.
A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true;the second is false
D)The first statement is false;the second is true
Q2) When a patient is admitted for observation for a medical condition,assign a code for the medical condition as the ____________________.
Q3) A patient goes to see his primary care provider with a cough and a fever and a long history of COPD.After reviewing the chest X-ray,the physician determines that the patient has pneumonia: __________
Q4) Chronic diseases treated on an ongoing basis can be coded only once,when the patient receives treatment and care for the condition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patient with right carpal tunnel syndrome had an endoscopic carpal tunnel release:
Q6) When outpatient procedures are coded,codes from ____________________ are used.
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