
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Medical Biochemistry explores the molecular mechanisms that underlie human health and disease, focusing on the chemical processes within the body. This course covers key topics such as the structure and function of biomolecules, metabolism, enzymology, clinical correlations, and biochemical signaling pathways. Students learn to connect biochemical concepts with physiological processes, gain insight into common metabolic disorders, and apply diagnostic techniques relevant to clinical medicine. Emphasis is placed on integrating biochemical principles into the understanding and treatment of various disease states, preparing students for further study in healthcare and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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Q1) Which of the following is a role played by proteins?
A)structural
B)transport
C)information signaling
D)catalysts
E)all of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following organelles is found in plant cells,but not in animal cells
A)chloroplast
B)Golgi apparatus
C)mitochondrion
D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A
Q3) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways.Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid.Based upon this name,draw the molecule.
Answer: 11ea8a11_436d_60c5_8b44_bfd5f6b258f9_TB4872_00
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Q1) You have been asked to determine the pK<sub>a</sub> of an unknown acid.In a solution at pH 7.0,you find that 24% of the acid is in its deprotonated form.What is the pK<sub>a</sub> of the acid?
A)7.9
B)7.5
C)6.5
D)5.6
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) If a buffer is made with the pH below the pK<sub>a</sub> of the weak acid,the ratio of [base]/[acid] will be:
A)less than 1
B)greater than 1
C)equal to 1
D)equal to 0
E)cannot be determined
Answer: A
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Q1) The highly exergonic nature of ATP hydrolysis is explained by which of the following?
A)the resulting orthophosphate is stabilized by resonance
B)electrostatic repulsion occurs between phosphate groups and the adenine base of ATP
C)the resulting product undergoes tautomerization to the keto form of ADP
D)the bond that is hydrolyzed is considered an ester of phosphoric acid,making it highly unstable
E)all of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following correctly relates the relative entropies?
A)sodium chloride crystals > sodium chloride dissolved in water
B)carbon dioxide in air > dry ice
C)carbon in a molecule of glucose > carbon in carbon dioxide gas
D)a solution of ATP > the same solution with ATP converted to ADP and P<sub>i</sub>
E)ice made from pure water > ice made from salt water
Answer: B
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Q1) In a circular DNA molecule of 126 bp with 10.5 bp/turn,which of the following represents an unstrained circle? (L = linking number,T = twist and W = writhe)
A)L = 12,T = 12,W = 0
B)L = 11,T = 11,W = 0
C)L = 11,T = 12,W = -1
D)L = 12,T = 11,W = +1
E)L = 11,T = 10,W = 0
Q2) Which of the following base pairs would have 2 hydrogen bonds and a distance between C-1' of 1.08 nm?
A)A-C
B)G-C
C)A-T
D)G-T
E)none of the above
Q3) Draw the structure of cytosine and thymine,then show the most common tautomer of each.
Q4) Draw the two forms of a phosphodiester bond that can occur under physiological pH.If the pK<sub>a</sub> for this conversion is 6.2,what form predominates in the lysosome where the pH is about 5?
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids is derived from another amino acid by the addition of an amine group?
A)lysine
B)asparagine
C)arginine
D)histidine
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following pairs of amino acids could form a charge-charge interaction through their R-groups?
A)methionine and histidine
B)glutamine and lysine
C)serine and glutamic acid
D)aspartic acid and arginine
E)threonine and asparagine
Q3) Which of the following undergoes an oxidation reaction to form a disulfide bond?
A)serine
B)cysteine
C)methionine
D)threonine
E)tyrosine
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Q1) Which of the following contributes to a positive \(\Delta\)G for protein folding?
A)conformational entropy
B)hydrophobic effect
C)charge-charge interactions
D)internal hydrogen bonds
E)van der Waals interactions
Q2) Which of the following could contribute to quaternary structure?
A)charge-charge interaction between arginine and glutamic acid
B)disulfide bond
C)hydrogen bond between threonine hydroxyl group and imidazole ring of histidine
D)hydrophobic interaction between phenylalanine and tryptophan
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following types of secondary structure has a non-integer value of residues per turn?
A)antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet
B)parallel \(\beta\)-sheet
C)\(\alpha\)-helix
D)3<sub>10</sub> helix
E)polyproline II helix
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Q1) Which of the following occurs when hemoglobin switches from the T (deoxy)state to the R (oxy)state?
A)the heme group goes from a slightly puckered conformation to a flat conformation
B)the ferrous ion is pulled into the plane of the heme group
C)the F8 (proximal)histidine rotates about 8S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 to better align with the ferrous ion
D)movement of the F8 histidine causes a shift in the F helix,thus weakening interactions with other subunits
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following mutations is correctly defined?
A)silent: change of a single base in the non-coding intron region of a gene
B)missense: substitution of a single base results in a premature stop codon
C)nonsense: substitution of a single base results in a complete change of amino acid sequence
D)frameshift: deletion of a single base results in a single amino acid change
E)permissive: results in a protein that has greater thermodynamic stability
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of how actin and myosin work in cooperation to allow muscle contraction?
A)myosin head groups push against actin filaments to lengthen the sarcomere
B)myosin head groups walk along the actin filament to shorten the sarcomere
C)myosin head groups interact with actin only when the sarcomere is fully lengthened
D)all myosin head groups move along the actin filament simultaneously to shorten the sarcomere
E)none of the above
Q2) In muscle,thin filaments are made of _______ while thick filaments are made of
A)myosin;actin
B)actin;myosin
C)myofibril;myofiber
D)myofiber;myofibril
E)none of the above
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Q1) The reaction of a cyclic monosaccharide with an alcohol converts a(n)_________ into a(n)________.
A)acetal;hemiacetal
B)hemiacetal;acetal
C)acetal;ether
D)hemiacetal;ether
E)alcohol;ether
Q2) Draw a \(\beta\)-disaccharide composed of glucose linked to its C-2 epimer by an \(\alpha\)(1\(\to\)4)glycosidic bond with the anomeric carbon of glucose contributing to the glycosidic bond.
Q3) How many carbon atoms are found in the smallest molecules that are classified as carbohydrates?

Q4) Show the interaction that would take place between the R-group of asparagine in a protein and the substituent on C-2 of an N-acetylglucosamine residue of a glycan.
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Q1) Which of the following is used to drive glucose uptake by intestinal epithelial cells?
A)potassium gradient across the blood vessel/epithelial cell membrane
B)potassium gradient across the intestinal lumen/epithelial cell membrane
C)sodium gradient across the blood vessel/epithelial cell membrane
D)sodium gradient across the intestinal lumen/epithelial cell membrane
E)none of the above
Q2) A ceramide is derived from which combination of the following?
A)a molecule of sphingosine and a monosaccharide
B)a molecule of sphingosine and a molecule of phosphocholine
C)a molecule of sphingosine and a fatty acid
D)a molecule of sphingosine and two fatty acids
E)a molecule of sphingosine,a fatty acid and a monosaccharide
Q3) The transient association of lipid rafts is thought to play a significant role in which of the following?
A)cell signaling
B)bacterial entry into host cells
C)protein trafficking
D)membrane receptor dimerization
E)all of the above
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Q1) The steady state assumption in enzyme kinetics:
A)insures that the product of an enzymatic reaction will always be formed
B)explains why enzymes are effective catalysts
C)states that the formation of ES is equal to its breakdown
D)is based upon the fact that the maximum velocity of an enzyme is very high
E)none of the above
Q2) The activity of lysozyme is greater than 50% of maximum between pH 3.8 and 6.1 with peak activity occurring around pH 5.Below 3.8 and above 6.1,the activity drops rapidly.Which of the following provides the best explanation for this?
A)two histidine residues in the active site must be protonated for enzyme activity
B)the active site contains an aspartic acid and glutamic acid,both of which must be deprotonated
C)the active site contains an aspartic acid that must be deprotonated and a glutamic acid that must be protonated
D)the active site contains a histidine that must be protonated and a glutamic acid that must be deprotonated
E)none of the above
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the general concepts of metabolism is true?
A)once glucose is converted to pyruvate,there is no way to convert pyruvate back to glucose
B)when triacylglycerols are used as fuel,only the fatty acids can be metabolized,the glycerol is a waste product
C)amino acids serve as substrates for many pathways including glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
D)the citric acid cycle is generally considered an anabolic pathway while gluconeogenesis is generally considered a catabolic pathway
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following functional groups is a commonly seen nucleophile in biochemical reactions?
A)aldehyde
B)deprotonated alcohol
C)amide
D)carbocation
E)iodide ion
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13: Carbohydrate Metabolism: Glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose
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Q1) Besides its role in glycogen synthesis,which of the following directly relies on UDP-glucose?
A)glycolysis
B)gluconeogenesis
C)fructose metabolism
D)sucrose metabolism
E)galactose metabolism
Q2) Which of the following is the fate of pyruvate in a blood cell?
A)acetyl CoA
B)carbon dioxide
C)lactate
D)ethanol
E)none of the above
Q3) Which enzyme catalyzes the primary regulation site of glycolysis?
A)hexokinase
B)phosphofructokinase-1
C)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
D)phosphoglycerate kinase
E)pyruvate kinase
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Q1) Which of the following is an inhibitor of citrate synthase,isocitrate dehydrogenase,and \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?
A)NADH
B)succinyl-CoA
C)ATP
D)acetyl-CoA
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following citric acid cycle enzymes is bypassed in the glyoxylate cycle?
A)citrate synthase
B)aconitase
C)isocitrate dehydrogenase
D)succinate dehydrogenase
E)fumarase
Q3) In the citric acid cycle,acetyl-CoA reacts with ________ to produce _________.
A)fumarate;\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
B)oxaloacetate;citrate
C)citrate;isocitrate
D)succinyl-CoA;oxaloacetate
E)malate;cis-aconitate
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Q1) Which of the following uses the energy of the proton gradient to drive transport of its substrates?
A)ADP/ATP carrier
B)phosphate translocase in symport mode
C)phosphate translocase in antiport mode
D)pyruvate transport system
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following steps in the catalytic cycle of the F<sub>1</sub> component is the most energetically unfavorable?
A)binding of ADP
B)binding of P<sub>i</sub>
C)formation of ATP from ADP and P<sub>i</sub>
D)release of ATP
E)all of the above are equally energetically unfavorable
Q3) In addition to iron,what metal is found in certain cytochromes?
A)manganese
B)copper
C)chromium
D)cobalt
E)zinc

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Q1) Which of the following best describes photosynthesis in purple photosynthetic bacteria?
A)a reaction center resembling PSI transfers electrons to plastocyanin
B)a reaction center resembling PSII transfers electrons to plastoquinone
C)water is split by the reaction center that resembles PSII
D)NADPH is generated using electrons from a protein resembling ferredoxin
E)the proton gradient is used for both ATP synthesis and NADPH generation
Q2) Which of the following acts as a corepressor for the transcription of chloroplast genes?
A)3-phosphoglycerate
B)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
C)CO<sub>2</sub>
D)sucrose
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following would have an inhibitory effect upon rubisco?
A)Mg<sup>2+</sup>
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)H<sup>+</sup>
D)reduced thioredoxin
E)none of the above
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Q1) For each acetyl-CoA that is incorporated into a growing fatty acid,what energy inputs are required,assuming that the growing fatty acid already contains at least 4 carbons?
A)1 NADPH,1 FADH<sub>2</sub>,1 ATP
B)2 NADPH,1 ATP
C)2 NADPH,1 FADH<sub>2</sub>,1 ATP
D)1 NADPH,1 FADH<sub>2</sub>,2 ATP
E)2 NADPH,2 ATP
Q2) Which of the following coenzymes is required by acetyl-CoA carboxylase?
A)NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)biotin
C)pyridoxal phosphate
D)tetrahydrofolate
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following lipoproteins distributes dietary lipids?
A)chylomicron
B)very low density lipoprotein
C)intermediate density lipoprotein
D)low density lipoprotein
E)high density lipoprotein
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Q1) Under starvation conditions,which of the following shows an increase in activity in the first few days,followed by a large decrease in activity after a week?
A)use of ketone bodies by the brain
B)lipolysis
C)glycolysis
D)muscle protein mobilization
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following pathways would be active between meal when blood glucose is low but inactive after several days of starvation?
A)glycogenolysis
B)lipolysis
C)\(\beta\)-oxidation
D)ketogenesis
E)gluconeogenesis
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Q1) Squalene epoxidase is an example of a mixed function oxidase,meaning that it uses both _______ and _______ as substrates.
A)ATP;NADPH
B)ATP;O<sub>2</sub>
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>;NADPH
D)O<sub>2</sub>;NAD<sup>+</sup>
E)O<sub>2</sub>;NADPH
Q2) Phospholipids are synthesized in the ___________,then transferred to the ____________ via transport vesicles.
A)smooth endoplasmic reticulum;Golgi complex
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum;smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum;lysosome
D)Golgi complex;smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Golgi complex;cell membrane
Q3) Show the reaction catalyzed by 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutrayl-CoA reductase.
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Q1) The conversion of nitrogen to ammonia can be accomplished by _________ while the conversion of nitrate to ammonia can be accomplished by _________.
A)plants;diazotrophs
B)diazotrophs;plants
C)diazotrophs;invertebrates
D)denitrifying bacteria;bacteria
E)denitrifying bacteria;plants
Q2) Which of the following represents a correct flow of electrons for nitrogen fixation?
A)ferredoxin \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
B)Fe protein \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) ferredoxin \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
C)MoFe protein \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) ferredoxin \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
D)ferredoxin \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
E)none of the above
Q3) What would be the energy requirements of the urea cycle if both nitrogens of urea came from glutamine (assuming that any NADH made was re-oxidized via electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation)? Explain how this is possible.
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Q1) In animals,all nitrogen and carbon of heme groups comes from the reaction of the amino acid ________ and _________.
A)glutamate;malonyl-CoA
B)aspartate;acetyl-CoA
C)asparagine;propionyl-CoA
D)glycine;succinyl-CoA
E)alanine;methylmalonyl-CoA
Q2) Bilirubin is conjugated with _________ to increase its solubility for excretion.
A)phospholipids
B)glycine
C)glucuronic acid
D)taurine
E)all of the above
Q3) Of the following molecules derived from amino acids,which is used to transport amino acids across the cell membrane?
A)glutathione
B)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid
C)S-adenosylmethionine
D)nitric oxide
E)thyroxine

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Q1) During the conversion of IMP to GMP and AMP,__________ serves as the nitrogen source for GMP,while _________ serves as the nitrogen source for AMP.
A)glutamate,asparagine
B)glutamate,aspartate
C)glutamine,asparagine
D)glutamine,aspartate
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following coenzymes contains an adenylate group?
A)cobalamin
B)tetrahydrofolate
C)thiamine pyrophosphate
D)pyridoxal phosphate
E)coenzyme A
Q3) Which of the following best explains the enzyme(s)involved in ribonucleotide reduction?
A)there is 1 enzyme for each of the 4 different nucleotides
B)1 enzyme for pyrimidine nucleotides and 1 for purine nucleotides
C)1 enzyme for pyrimidine nucleotides,1 for ADP and 1 for GDP
D)1 enzyme for purine nucleotides,1 for CDP and 1 for UDP
E)1 enzyme for all 4 nucleotides
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Q1) What happens when the GTPase activity of a G protein is blocked?
A)the \(\alpha\) subunit associates only with the \(\beta\) subunit,not the \(\gamma\) subunit
B)GTP cyclizes to cGMP
C)binding to GAP occurs with very high affinity
D)adenylate cyclase remains active
E)none of the above
Q2) Glucocorticoids are thought to function as anti-inflammatory agents since they are able to stimulate the synthesis of what protein?
A)tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
B)platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
C)transforming growth factor \(\beta\)(TGF-\(\beta\))
D)nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-\(\Kappa\)B)
E)inhibitor-kappa B\(\alpha\) (I\(\Kappa\)B\(\alpha\))
Q3) A G protein is inactive when the _____ subunit is bound to __________.
A)\(\alpha\);GMP
B)\(\alpha\);GDP
C)\(\beta\);GMP
D)\(\beta\);GDP
E)\(\beta\)/\(\gamma\);GMP
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Q1) BamHI has a restriction site of G\(\downarrow\)GATCC while HpaI has a restriction site of GTT\(\downarrow\)ACC.Based upon this,BamHI produces __________ and HpaI produces __________.
A)a 5' overhang;a 3' overhang
B)a 5' overhang;a 5' overhang
C)a 5' overhang;blunt ends
D)a 3' overhang;a 5' overhang
E)a 3' overhang;blunt ends
Q2) What structure is responsible for linking the centromeres to the spindle fibers during mitosis?
A)metaphase plate
B)nucleosome
C)kinetochore
D)centromere scaffold
E)none of the above
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Q1) In a type I topoisomerase,the active site amino acid _________ is covalently bound to the free _______ end of the cut in the DNA.
A)serine;3'
B)serine;5'
C)tyrosine;3'
D)tyrosine;5'
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following DNA polymerases is correctly defined?
A)polymerase I: DNA repair
B)polymerase I: RNA primer excision
C)polymerase II: DNA repair
D)polymerase III: nucleotide incorporation during replication
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following describes the correct sequence of enzyme activity upon the lagging strand?
A)primase,DNA ligase,DNA polymerase I,DNA polymerase III
B)primase,DNA polymerase I,DNA polymerase III,DNA ligase
C)DNA polymerase III,primase,DNA polymerase I,DNA ligase
D)primase,DNA ligase,DNA polymerase III,DNA polymerase I
E)primase,DNA polymerase III,DNA polymerase I,DNA ligase
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Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification
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Q1) A transposable element in a eukaryotic cell is called a _____________.
A)retrotransposon
B)long terminal repeat
C)oncogene
D)replicative transposon
E)composite transposon
Q2) Which of the following the represents the correct sequence of events for the Holiday model of homologous recombination?
A)nicking,strand invasion,branch migration,ligation,crossed strand breakage,rejoining B)nicking,strand invasion,branch migration,crossed strand breakage,ligation,rejoining
C)nicking,strand invasion,ligation,branch migration,crossed strand breakage,rejoining D)nicking,strand invasion,ligation,branch migration,isomerization,crossed strand breakage,rejoining
E)nicking,strand invasion,branch migration,isomerization,crossed strand breakage,ligation,rejoining
Q3) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
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Q1) In eukaryotic cells,RNA polymerase ____ transcribes most of the ribosomal RNA,RNA polymerase ____ transcribes the major structural genes and RNA polymerase ____ transcribes tRNAs.
A)I;II;III
B)I;III;II
C)II;I;III
D)II;III;I
E)III;II;I
Q2) Which subunit of E.coli RNA polymerase is responsible for DNA binding?
A)\(\alpha\)
B)\(\beta\)
C)\(\beta\)'
D) \(\sigma\)
E)\(\omega\)
Q3) Draw a transcription bubble,clearly labeling the proteins and nucleic acids involved in the process.
Q4) Give the mRNA sequence that would result from the following sense strand:
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Q1) By saying that the genetic code is degenerate,what does this imply?
A)the code is different for bacteria than for eukaryotes
B)some codons can code for non-standard amino acids
C)most amino acids have more than one codon
D)there is more than one start codon
E)there is more than one stop codon
Q2) If a mutation in the template strand of DNA occurred in the following manner,which of the possible amino acid changes would occur?
5'-CAT-3' \(\to\) 5'-TAT-3'
A)methionine \(\to\) isoleucine
B)histidine \(\to\) tyrosine
C)methionine \(\to\) tyrosine
D)histidine \(\to\) isoleucine
E)none of the above
Q3) What enzyme attaches the correct amino acid to its tRNA?
A)aminoacyl-tRNA synthase
B)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
C)aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
D)aminoacyl-tRNA ligase
E)none of the above
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73686
Sample Questions
Q1) In a histone protein,what modification to lysine marks the nucleosome as a transcription target?
A)phosphorylation
B)methylation
C)ubiquitylation
D)ADP-ribosylation
E)acetylation
Q2) Which of the following is the true inducer that binds to the lac repressor in vivo?
A)lactose
B)glucose
C)galactose
D)isopropyl-\(\beta\)-thiogalactoside
E)allolactose
Q3) What elements are contained within the promoter of the lactose operon?
A)operator and CRP site
B)operator and repressor
C)CRP site and repressor
D)operator,CRP site and repressor
E)none of the above
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