Medical Biochemistry Practice Questions - 1534 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Medical Biochemistry Practice

Questions

Course Introduction

Medical Biochemistry explores the chemical processes and molecular mechanisms underlying human health and disease. The course covers the structure, function, and metabolism of biomolecules such as proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids, emphasizing their roles in physiological and pathological states. Students learn about enzyme function, metabolic pathways, hormonal regulation, and bioenergetics, along with the integration of these pathways in various organ systems. Clinical correlations illustrate how biochemical abnormalities can lead to disease, preparing students for applications in medicine, diagnostics, and healthcare research.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Biochemistry Life at the Molecular Level 5th Edition by Donald Voet

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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lynn Margulis' Theory of Endosymbiosis is an explanation for the origin of

A)the endoplasmic reticulum.

B)the nucleus.

C)the mitochondria.

D)peroxisomes.

E)the Golgi apparatus.

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following statements about hydrothermal vents is true?

A)The vents have temperatures as high as 800°C and emit H2S and metal sulfides.

B)The vents have temperatures as high as 600°C and emit H2S and metal nitrates.

C)The vents have temperatures as high as 400°C and emit H2S and metal sulfides.

D)none of the above

E)all of the above

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Water

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Q1) To make a phosphate buffer at pH 6.82 starting with one liter of 10 mM phosphoric acid (pKs are 2.15,6.82,and 12.38),you could add

A)5 millimoles of HCl.

B)20 millimoles of K+.

C)25 millimoles of HCl.

D)15 millimoles of KOH.

E)You can't make a buffer by adding HCl or KOH.

Answer: E

Q2) The pKs of succinic acid are 4.21 and 5.64.How many grams of monosodium succinate (FW = 140 g/mol)and disodium succinate (FW = 162 g/mol)must be added to 1 L of water to produce a solution with a pH 5.28 and a total solute concentration of 100 mM? (Assume the total volume remains 1 liter,answer in grams monosodium succinate,grams disodium succinate,respectively. )

A)11.3 g,4.2 g

B)9)7 g,4.9 g

C)4)9 g,9.7 g

D)14.9 g,1.1 g

E)1)1 g,14.9 g

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Nucleotides, nucleic Acids, and Genetic Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) What group is attached to the pyrimidine ring in thymine and is not present in uracil?

A)"ribose"

B)"-CH3"

C)"-NH2"

D)"deoxyribose"

E)"none of the above"

Answer: B

Q2) DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is used in PCR because A)it is a soluble protein.

B)the genes from Thermus aquaticus are readily distinguished from those of 'normal' organisms.

C)the enzyme is readily deactivated by heat,effectively halting the reaction.

D)it is stable at high temperatures.

E)it is not infectious.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Amino Acids

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the three-letter symbol for the C-terminal amino acid in the peptide shown above?

A)Gly

B)Asp

C)Tyr

D)Met

E)Phe

Q2) The pK1,pK2,and pKR for the amino acid histidine are 1.8,9.3,and 6.0,respectively.At pH 4.0 would be charged predominantly as follows:

A)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate +1,\(\alpha\)-amino 0,imidazole 1,net charge 0"

B)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate 1,\(\alpha\)-amino +1,imidazole 0,net charge 0"

C)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate +1,\(\alpha\)-amino +1,imidazole 1,net charge +1"

D)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate 1,\(\alpha\)-amino +1,imidazole +1,net charge +1"

E)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate 0,\(\alpha\)-amino +1,imidazole +1,net charge +2"

Q3) Glutamine is an amino acid (pKas are 2.2,and 9.1).Draw the predominant structure of glutamine at pH 1.0.

Q4) Glutamic acid is an amino acid (pKas are 2.1,4.1 and 9.5).Calculate the isoelectric point of glutamic acid.

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Chapter 5: Proteins: Primary Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) ELISA is an example of a(n):

A)enzyme assay.

B)biological assay.

C)binding assay.

D)immunological assay.

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of these reagents is commonly used to determine the number of polypeptides in a protein?

A)iodoacetate

B)dansyl chloride

C)2-mercaptoethanol (\(\beta\)-ME)

D)cyanogen bromide

E)DEAE

Q3) The positive charge on proteins in electrospray ionization mass spectrometry is the result of

A)protons fired at the gas-phase protein molecules.

B)protonated side chains of Asp and Glu residues.

C)protonated side chains of Arg and Lys residues.

D)a high pH.

E)electrons fired at the gas-phase protein molecules.

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Chapter 6: Proteins: Three-Dimensional Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the following,which amino acid is most likely to be found in position 1 or 4 on keratin?

A)Phe

B)Ala

C)Lys

D)Trp

E)Pro

Q2) When considering fibrous proteins,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Noncovalent interactions contribute to the strength of all of these proteins.

B)All of them consist of \(\alpha\) helix structure.

C)All of them require vitamin C.

D)Decrease in amounts of any of them cause scurvy.

E)All of these are true of fibrous proteins.

Q3) Proteins can denature due to a change in A)pH.

B)temperature.

C)ionic strength.

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

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Chapter 7: Protein Function Part I: Myoglobin and Hemoglobin

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hemoglobin's p50 value is about ______ as great as myoglobin's p50 value.

A)one-tenth

B)half

C)twice

D)ten times

E)twenty times

Q2) Which class of antibodies has been implicated in allergic reactions?

A)IgA

B)IgD

C)IgE

D)IgG

E)IgM

Q3) Which of the following is not a ligand to the porphyrin ring Fe(II) ion in oxymyoglobin?

A)His E7

B)His F8

C)Nitrogen atoms in the porphyrin ring

D)Oxygen

E)all are ligands

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Chapter 8: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Glycoproteins

A)are only found in bacteria.

B)are extremely homogeneous.

C)are typically less than 1% carbohydrate by weight.

D)are assembled under strict genetic control.

E)exhibit microheterogeneity.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of a heteropolysaccharide?

A)cellulose

B)chitin

C)starch

D)glycogen

E)hyaluronic acid

Q3) Alcohols react with aldehydes to form

A)hemiketals.

B)lactones.

C)lactams.

D)glycosides.

E)hemiacetals.

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Chapter 9: Lipids and Biological Membranes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following processes presented in this chapter is (are)readily reversible with the help of enzymes known as thioesterases?

A)myristoylation

B)glycosylphosphotidylinositalation

C)palmitoylation

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

Q2) Which would be most likely to be found in the membranes of mouse brain cells?

A)cholesterol

B)glycerolphospholipids

C)GM1,GM2,or GM3

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

Q3) In bacteria,phospholipids are synthesized:

A)on the cytoplasmic face of cell membranes

B)at the rough endoplasmic reticulum

C)on the extracellular face of the cell membrane

D)on site at the endoplasmic reticulum.

E)nonenzymatically at the site of the membrane.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Membrane Transport

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Ca2+-ATPase requires ATP directly and is therefore an example of ______ transport.

A) Porins

B) gap junctions

C) symport

D) active

E) ion channel

F) secondary active

G) channel-forming

H) carrier ionophores

I) passive-mediated

J) uniport

K) simple diffusion

L) anti-ion transport

Q2) Vanilomycin

A)is a cyclic polypeptide that functions as a K+ carrier.

B)is a transmembrane polypeptide that transports K+.

C)is a cyclic polypeptide that functions as a Na+ carrier.

D)is a transmembrane polypeptide that transports Na+.

E)is a \(\beta\)-barrel pore transporter that transfers K+.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Enzyme Catalysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A new serine protease was discovered that preferentially cleaves a peptide bond adjoining a negatively charged side chain.Which of the following is true?

A)The specificity pocket would mimic that of chymotrypsin.

B)The specificity pocket would mimic that of trypsin.

C)The specificity pocket is likely lined with amino acids such as Arg and Lys.

D)It likely reacts much slower than chymotrypsin.

E)It likely reaction much faster than chymotrypsin.

Q2) Carbohydrate metabolic enzymes bind D-glucose specifically.D-glucose has an estimated caloric value of 1 kcal per 4 grams of carbohydrate.Based on the methods used to convert the energy of D-glucose into a useable form,what would you estimate the caloric value of L-glucose to be using the same method?

A)1 kcal per 4 grams

B)1 kcal per 2 grams

C)1 kcal per 8 grams

D)0 kcal per 4 grams

E)2 kcal per 8 grams

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Chapter 12: Enzyme Kinetics, inhibition and Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) This diagram refers to a (an)

A)Ping Pong reaction.

B)ordered bisubstrate reaction.

C)random bisubstrate reaction.

D)double order ping pong reaction

E)X,Y,and Z must be provided in order to answer correctly

Q2) Allosteric activators

A)bind via covalent attachment.

B)stabilize conformations with higher Ks.

C)stabilize conformations with higher substrate affinity.

D)all of the above

E)none of the above.

Q3) A lead compound would be most promising if it had:

A)KI = 4.7 × 105 M.

B)KI = 1.5 × 108 M.

C)KI = 1.5 × 10-8 M.

D)KI = 4.7 × 10-5 M.

E)KM = 4.7 × 105 M.

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Chapter 13: Biochemical Signaling

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are produced in the adrenal cortex?

(I)Glucorticoids

(II)mineralcorticoides

(III)androgens

(IV)estrogens

A)I only

B)I,II

C)II only

D)II,IV

E)I,II,III,IV

Q2) Somatostatin

(I)inhibits the release of insulin.

(II)inhibits the release of glucagon.

(III)stimulates the release of insulin. (IV)stimulates the release of glucagon.

A)I only

B)II only

C)I and II

D)III and IV

E)IV only

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Chapter 14: Introduction to Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) While ____ is always involved in reactions that require the transfer of 2 electrons,____ can participate in reactions that transfer either 1 or 2 electrons.

A)O2;NAD+

B)NAD+;FAD

C)NAD+;O2

D)flavin;niacin

E)FAD;NAD+

Q2) The ______ is equal to the rate of synthesis minus the rate of breakdown of the metabolic intermediates.

A)metabolic rate

B)Keq

C)rate determining step

D)flux

E)none of the above

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Chapter 15: Glucose Catabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true regarding glycolysis?

(I)There is a net oxidation of substrate carbon atoms. (II)There is no net release of free energy.

(III)Pyruvate is generated only during aerobic glycolysis.

(IV)There is 2 ATP formed for every 2 glucose molecules.

)

A)I only

B)I,IV

C)I,III,IV

D)IV only

E)II,IV

Q2) Which of the following best describes the control exhibited by phosphofructokinase (PFK)?

A)It is allosterically inhibited by ATP and citrate.

B)It is allosterically activated by F2,6P.

C)It is allosterically activated by ATP and citrate.

D)Both A and B are correct.

E)Both B and C are correct.

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Chapter 16: Glycogen Metabolism and Gluconeogenesis

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Q1) Which of the following best describes the role of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate (FBP)in liver cells?

A)It is an intermediate in glycolysis.

B)It is an intermediate in gluconeogenesis.

C)It is an intermediate in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

D)FBP is a potent allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase and an inhibitor of fructose bisphosphatase.

E)FBP is a potent allosteric activator of fructose bisphosphatase and an inhibitor of phosphofructokinase.

Q2) Muscle cells are not able to supply glucose for other tissues because

A)they lack the GLUT2 transporter.

B)they lack pyruvate carboxylase.

C)they lack glucose-6-phosphatase.

D)they lack the malate-aspartate shuttle.

E)they lack glycogen phosphorylase.

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Chapter 17: Citric Acid Cycle

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Q1) ______ is the first compound that is oxidized in the citric acid cycle.

A) oxaloacetate

B) malate synthase

C) malate

D) malonate

E) Krebs

F) aconitase

G) succinyl-CoA synthetase

H) -ketoglutarate

I) carbon dioxide

J) malate dehydrogenase

K) isocitrate

L) succinate dehydrogenase

Q2) Which of the following coenzymes is required by E1 of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex for catalytic activity?

A)thiamine pyrophosphate

B)lipoamide

C)coenzyme A

D)NAD+

E)FAD

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Electron Transport and Oxidative

Phosphorylation

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Q1) The structure of ATP synthase changes in conformation as a result of A)the rotation of the and subunits.

B)the rotation of the subunit.

C)the rotation of ATP.

D)the rotation of the \(\gamma\) subunit.

E)all of the above.

Q2) Which of the following best describes the function of cytochrome c oxidase?

A)Cytochrome c oxidase oxidizes four consecutive cytochrome c molecules,via one-electron transfers,while simultaneously reducing one O2 to two H2O.

B)Cytochrome c oxidase oxidizes two consecutive cytochrome c molecules,via two-electron transfers,while simultaneously reducing one O2 to two H2O.

C)Cytochrome c oxidase oxidizes four consecutive cytochrome c molecules,via one-electron transfers,while simultaneously reducing two O2 to two H2O.

D)Cytochrome c oxidase oxidizes two consecutive cytochrome c molecules,via twoelectron transfers,while simultaneously reducing two O2 to two H2O.

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Chapter 19: Photosynthesis

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Q1) Light activation of P680 results in which of the following? (I)electron transfer as follows: QA \(\to\) QB \(\to\) Chl \(\to\) Pheo

(II)electron transfer from PSI directly back to the Pheo -QA complex (III)reduction of S4 of the OEC to S1 of the OEC (IV)reduction of cytochrome b6f

A)I,III,IV

B)I,II

C)II,III

D)I only

E)IV only

Q2) In plants and cyanobacteria,PSII ______,and PSI ______.

A)oxidizes H2O,reduces NAD+

B)oxidizes H2O,reduces NADP+

C)oxidizes O2,reduces FAD

D)oxidizes H2O,reduces FAD

E)none of the above are true

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Chapter 20: Lipid Metabolism

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Q1) Which of the following accurately ranks lipoproteins from highest to lowest density?

A)chylomicrons > HDL > LDL > IDL > VLDL

B)HDL > IDL > LDL > VLDL > chylomicrons

C)HDL > LDL > IDL > VLDL > chylomicrons

D)chylomicrons > VLDL > IDL > LDL > HDL

E)VLDL > IDL > LDL > HDL > chylomicrons

Q2) The mechanism of the condensing enzyme (KS)of fatty acid synthase is best described as

A)base catalysis using a glu residue in the active site

B)acid catalysis using a glu residue in the active site

C)base catalysis using a cys residue in the active site

D)acid catalysis using a cys residue in the active site

E)covalent catalysis using a cys residue in the active site

Q3) Which of the following is the starting metabolite in ketone body biosynthesis?

A)acetyl CoA

B)malonyl CoA

C)propionlyl CoA

D)acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA

E)acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Amino Acid Metabolism

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Q1) _____ catalyzes the synthesis of ____,a molecule that signals vasodilation,from the precursor _____

A)NOS;nitric oxide (NO);arginine

B)Nitrous oxidase;nitrous oxide;arginine

C)Arginate;nitric oxide (NO);citrulline

D)Citrulline dehydrogenase;nitrous oxide;citrulline

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following glycolytic intermediates is the common precursor to serine,cysteine,and glycine?

A)fructose-6-phosphate

B)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

C)dihydroxyacetone phosphate

D)3-phosphoglycerate

E)pyruvate

Q3) Which of the following is required for synthesis of tryptophan?

A)serine

B)phosphoenolpyruvate

C)erythrose-4-phosphate

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

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Chapter 22: Mammalian Fuel Metabolism: Integration and Regulation

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Q1) The common products of fuel metabolism in mammals are

A)oxaloacetate and acetyl- CoA.

B)pyruvate and acetyl-CoA.

C)ATP and acetyl-CoA.

D)pyruvate and glucose.

E)none of the above

Q2) At low glucose concentrations ( 5mM),the majority of glucose produced by liver cells is due to the action of A)glucokinase.

B)hexokinase.

C)glucose-6-phosphatase.

D)AMP-dependent protein kinase (AMPK).

E)AMP-responsive tyrosine kinase.

Q3) Adipose tissue

A)secretes hormones that regulate metabolism.

B)synthesizes both glucose and triacylglycerols.

C)contains enough stored energy to survive about one month.

D)A and B

E)A and C

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Nucleotide Metabolism

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Q1) What category of reaction converts orotate monophosphate (OMP)into uracil monophosphate (UMP)?

A)a transamination

B)a methylation

C)a decarboxylation

D)a carboxylation

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)PRPP is an effective feedback inhibitor of nucleotide synthesis.

B)GTP serves as the energy input for AMP synthesis from IMP.

C)Oxidation of ribosyl moieties to produce deoxynucleotides occurs at the diphosphate level.

D)Thymidylate synthase methylates dUTP to produce dTTP.

E)All of the above are true.

Q3) Formate contributes to the ring at position _____. A)A

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Chapter 24: Nucleic Acid Structure

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Q1) Which of the following would NOT result in the relaxation of supercoiled DNA?

A)heating the DNA to induce denaturation

B)nicking one strand

C)treatment with pancreatic DNaseI

D)treatment with type II topoisomerase

E)treatment with type I topoisomerase

Q2) A circular 25000 base pair DNA molecule with no supercoils will have _____ helical twists if it is B-DNA.

A)about 2.5

B)about 25

C)about 250

D)about 2500

E)about 25000.

Q3) Which of the following prokaryotic enzymes can introduce negative supercoils?

A)topoismerase IA

B)topoismerase III

C)DNA gyrase

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

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Chapter 25: DNA Replication, repair and Recombination

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Q1) The experiments of Reiji Okazaki allowed determination that DNA synthesis occurs in (I)a continuous fashion. (II)different ways on the lagging strand than the leading strand. (III)resulted in new synthesized DNA fragments containing the radioactive isotope.

A)I,II,III

B)II,III

C)I,II

D)I,III

E)II only

Q2) Which of the following would result in increased processivity in E.coli?

A) (sliding)clamp

B)primosome

C)helicase

D)Dna B

E)Dna G

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Chapter 26: Transcription and Rna Processing

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Q1) Why is TBP referred to as a universal transcription factor?

(I)TBP is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.

(II)TBP catalyzes the initiation of all RNA polymersase in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

(III)TBP is required for initiation by RNAP I,RNAP II,and RNAP III.

A)I,II,III

B)I,II

C)I,III

D)II,III

E)III only

Q2) Most ______ have well defined 3' ends terminating in poly(A)tails of ~ 250 nt.

A)prokaryotic mRNAs

B)eukaryotic mRNAs

C)prokaryotic rRNAs

D)eukaryotic rRNAs

E)all of the above

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Chapter 27: Protein Synthesis

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Q1) Inhibitors of translation may be effective as A)antibiotics.

B)anticancer agents.

C)research on translation.

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

Q2) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is

A)used to align ribosome subunits and initiation translation.

B)functions as a stop codon.

C)is used to align RNA polymerase.

D)is used during transcription termination.

E)all of the above

Q3) Insertions or deletions of one or two nucleotides can cause

A)frameshift mutations.

B)degenerate mutations.

C)synonymous mutations.

D)wobble codons.

E)transpeptidation.

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Chapter 28: Regulation of Gene Expression

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Q1) Which of the following genes rarely occur in multiple copies?

(I)histone proteins

(II)protein-coding genes

(III)gene clusters

A)I,II,III

B)I,II

C)I,III

D)II only

E)III only

Q2) Which of the following are requirements for genetic information?

(I)Information must be tapped in an orderly fashion.

(II)Information must be available to direct responses in changes to internal or external conditions.

(III)Information must be removable following development.

A)I,II,III

B)I,II

C)II,III

D)I,III

E)I only

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