Medical Billing and Coding Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Billing and Coding is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills required to manage patient data, process insurance claims, and ensure accurate medical billing procedures in healthcare settings. The course covers essential topics such as the use of ICD-10, CPT, and HCPCS coding systems, understanding of healthcare regulations including HIPAA, and navigating electronic health records (EHR). Students will gain hands-on experience with real-world coding scenarios, learn the ethical and legal considerations of billing practices, and prepare for certification exams, paving the way for a successful career in the administrative sector of healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2016 Edition 1st Edition by Karla R. Lovaasen
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27 Chapters
1674 Verified Questions
1674 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ICD-10-CM,the CM stands for ____.
A)Clinical Modification
B)Centers for Medicaid and Medicare
C)Core Measures
D)Chief Medical Officer
Answer: A
Q2) In a closed system like the ICD-10-CM system,a disease,condition,or procedure can be classified only in ____ location(s).
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Answer: A
Q3) Compliance is defined as acting according to certain accepted standards or,in simple terms,abiding by the rules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) HIPAA stands for __________ of 1996.
Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
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Chapter 2:
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) CMS
A)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
B)Temperature,pulse,and respiration
C)Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set
D)Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Answer: A
Q2) Which of these is NOT considered a physician?
A)Internist
B)Hospitalist
C)Resident
D)Medical student
Answer: D
Q3) The AHIMA practice brief says that a physician query should____.
A)"lead" the physician
B)contain precise language
C)be written on scratch paper
D)sound presumptive
Answer: B
Q4) When coding a record,where is one of the best places to begin?
Answer: The discharge summary if available.
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Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement cortical cataract is a(n) ____ modifier.
A)essential
B)nonessential
Answer: B
Q2) Why is it important for the coder to understand coding conventions?
Answer: Ensures accurate assignment and sequencing of codes
Q3) What does NEC stand for?
Answer: Not elsewhere classifiable
Q4) The code "L01 impetigo" represents a ____.
A)chapter
B)section
C)category
D)subcategory
Answer: C
Q5) "__________" is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a causal relationship. Answer: Due to or with
Q6) What are the two tables found in the Alphabetic Index in ICD-10-CM?
Answer: Neoplasm Table and the Table of Drugs and Chemicals
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Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main term for procedures in ICD-10-CM is identified by the ____.
A)anatomic site
B)place of incision
C)procedure performed
D)none of the above are correct
Q2) What is the subterm in "rheumatoid arthritis"?
Q3) Provides advice on how to correctly code specific diagnoses
A)Tabular List
B)See also
C)Subterms
D)Discharge summary
E)Coding Clinic
F)ER
G)Differential diagnosis
H)Chief complaint
I)The first basic step in coding the principal diagnosis
J)Nonessential modifiers
Q4) What is the subterm in "esophageal reflux"?
Q5) What is the main term in "infantile eczema"?
Q6) What is the main term in "esophageal reflux"?
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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codes for symptoms,signs,and ill-defined conditions are NOT to be used as a principal diagnosis when a related definitive diagnosis has been established.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a patient is admitted for a complication due to a surgical procedure,the reason for the surgical procedure is the principal diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic respiratory failure?
Q4) The selection of codes A00.0 through Z99.89 will NOT be used frequently to describe the reason for the admission/encounter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If the principal diagnosis was abdominal pain due to acute appendicitis,the abdominal pain would be coded as a secondary diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic renal failure?
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Chapter 6: General Coding Guidelines for Medical and Surgical Procedures
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173 Verified Questions
173 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart transplant,cadaver donor with extracorporeal circulation auxiliary during the open heart surgery
Q2) Altering the route of passage of the contents of a tubular body part is bypass.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Exploration or inspection of a body part(s) that is integral to the performance of the procedure is coded separately.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The approach for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is percutaneous endoscopic. A)True
B)False
Q5) Right inguinal herniorrhaphy with synthetic mesh,open
Q6) If the identical procedure is performed on contralateral body parts and a bilateral body part value is available for that body part,two codes with the right and left body part should be assigned.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
Q7) Thoracentesis,right pleural cavity,therapeutic
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Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medicaland
Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Casting of nondisplaced left tibial fracture
Q2) Mechanical respiratory ventilation less than 24 hours
Q3) The seventh character identifies whether the procedure is a physical rehabilitation procedure or a diagnostic audiology procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fitting of voice prosthesis using voice analysis equipment
Q5) Modality qualifier is the fifth character in the radiation oncology section.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Medication management for drug dependence with methadone maintenance
Q7) The first character value for substance abuse treatment is B.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What is the section value for other procedure?
Q9) Root type is the sixth character in the physical rehabilitation and diagnostic audiology section.
A)True
B)False Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Symptoms, Signs,
and
Abnormal
Clinical and Laboratory Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Outpatient Encounter: Patient has been taking Lipitor for hypercholesterolemia for 1 year.A hepatic function laboratory test was performed to assess any adverse effects on the patient's liver function.A fasting lipid profile was also done to assess the effectiveness of the Lipitor.
A)Z51.81,Z79.899,E78.0
B)E78.1,Z51.81,Z79.899
C)Z51.89,Z79.810,E78.0
D)E78.0,Z79.891
Q2) Oral phase dysphagia: __________
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a specific Z code category?
A)Family history
B)Screening
C)Nutrition
D)Observation
Q4) Name one problem that can result from lack of documentation.
Q5) A Z code for long-term use of antibiotics should not be assigned when antibiotics are taken for a short period of time for an acute illness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is a bacterial infection usually found in wild or domestic animals.
A)Anthrax
B)Tuberculosis
C)Meningitis
D)Clostridium difficile
Q2) Spread by sexual contact;men are more likely to have symptoms such as burning while urinating and discharge from the penis;treated with antibiotic
A)SIRS
B)Bacteremia
C)Septicemia
D)Gonorrhea
E)Septic shock
F)Sepsis
Q3) TB stands for ____________________.
Q4) The CDC considers a patient to have AIDS if a CD4+ T-cell count is less than ___ cells/ml.
Q5) Category B20 is assigned for ____________________.
Q6) Assign the code(s) for diaper rash due to candidiasis.
Q7) Assign the code for Colorado tick fever.
Q8) Assign the code for screening for HIV.
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Chapter 10: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinomas in situ are malignant cells that remain within the original site with no spread to or invasion of neighboring tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patient was admitted for back pain due to vertebral metastasis.An MRI indicates that the disease has progressed.Patient has a history of prostate cancer.Beam radiation with heavy particles was administered.
A)G89.28,C79.51,Z85.46,DPOC3ZZ
B)C61,G89.28,C79.51,DP0C4ZZ
C)G89.3,C79.51,Z85.46,DP0C3ZZ
D)C79.51,G89.3,Z85.46,DP0C4ZZ
Q3) ____ is the use of high-energy radiation to treat cancer.
A)Chemotherapy
B)Radiation
C)Brachytherapy
D)Palliative procedure
Q4) Primary cancer of the cauda equina: __________
Q5) Benign neoplasm of Cowper's gland: __________
Q6) Lymphangioendothelioma: __________
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient takes Coumadin for chronic atrial fibrillation.
A)I48.1,Z79.01
B)I48.2,Z79.01
C)Z79.01
D)I48.0,Z79.02
Q2) Familial erythrocytosis: __________
Q3) Childhood anemia: __________
Q4) A patient's own blood sometimes donated before an elective surgery in case (s)he needs a transfusion
A)Apheresis
B)Blood
C)Autologous transfusion
D)5000 to 10,000/mm3
E)Hemoglobin (HGB)
F)Purpura
G)Idiopathic
H)Hematocrit (Hct)
I)Bone marrow biopsy
J)WBC
K)Secondary thrombocytopenia Page 14
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Page 15
Chapter 12: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothyroidism is an abnormality of the thyroid gland in which secretion of thyroid hormone is usually increased.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When there is hypersecretion of hGH after puberty,a condition called acromegaly,where does the overgrowth occur?
Q3) Patient was admitted to the hospital with DKA.Labs showed glycosuria,ketonuria,and acidosis.Patient was admitted and was started on a sliding scale of insulin for type 1 DM.Patient's past history includes diabetic retinopathy.Patient's at-home medications include insulin.Discharge Diagnosis: Diabetic ketoacidosis.
A)E10.11,E10.319
B)E10.319,E10.10
C)E10.10,E11.319
D)E10.10,E10.319
Q4) Hypopituitarism (low levels of pituitary hormones) can be caused by ____. A)tumor
B)stroke
C)head trauma
D)all of the above
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Chapter 13: Mental, Behavioral, and Neuro developmental Disorders
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychogenic dyspareunia: __________
Q2) Dementia with wandering: __________
Q3) Organic psychosis occurs because of deterioration in the brain and is usually progressive and irreversible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An anxiety disorder that is triggered by memories of a traumatic event
A)Sexual problems
B)PTSD-posttraumatic stress disorder
C)Phobias
D)Panic disorder
E)Generalized anxiety disorder
F)Mood disorders
G)Schizophrenia
Q5) Asexual transsexualism: __________
Q6) Severe intellectual disability is classified when the person has an IQ of ____.
A)50 to 70
B)35 to 49
C)20 to 34
D)less than 20 Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter
Eye and Adnexa,and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid
Process
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ICD-10-CM,there are three chapters for the nervous system and sense organs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A disorder of the brain that causes a progressive decline in mental and physical function
A)Glaucoma
B)Hydrocephalus
C)Meningitis
D)Epilepsy
E)Parkinson's disease
F)Cataract
G)Cholesteatoma
H)Mastoiditis
I)Myasthenia gravis
J)Alzheimer's disease
Q3) Amaurosis: __________
Q4) Hydrocephalus can be acquired or congenital.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the two main divisions of the nervous system? Page 19
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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Circulatory System
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stricture or hardening of the artery due to deposits of plaque
A)Transient ischemic attack
B)Atherosclerosis
C)Aneurysm
D)Pericarditis
E)Endocarditis
F)Cardiomyopathy
G)Conduction disorder
H)Diagnostic cardiac catheterization
Q2) Patient comes into the ER after fainting at work.The physician determines that the fainting was caused by hypertensive urgency.
A)R55.0,R03.0
B)R55.0
C)I10,R55
D)I10
Q3) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blood clot that forms deep in a vein,usually in the leg or hip.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of the heart?
21
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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73 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of infection?
Q2) Patient was admitted to the hospital in acute respiratory failure due to congestive heart failure.The patient was intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation for 2 days.The patient responded well to IV diuretics.
A)J96.00,I50.9,5A1945Z,0BH17EZ
B)J96.01,I50.1,5A1935Z
C)J96.02,I50.20,5A1955Z,0BH13EZ
D)J96.22,I50.30,5A1945Z,0BH17EZ
Q3) Patient is admitted with status asthmaticus.Patient was started on albuterol treatments.Patient has been intubated on previous admissions.Patient is positive for sickle cell trait and is on methadone for treatment of heroin dependence.What codes are applicable?
Q4) The most common cause of pneumonia is ____.
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Haemophilus influenza
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q5) The condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs is called ____________________.
Q6) Escherichia coli pneumonia: __________
Page 22
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ means vomiting of blood.
A)Hematuria
B)Hematochezia
C)Hematemesis
D)None of the above
Q2) Patient who is a 60-year-old female presents to the ER with severe abdominal pain.The patient has a history of Crohn's disease.She had asthma as a child with last attack at age 18 and currently appears dehydrated.After study it is determined that the patient has an abscess of the large intestine.Antibiotics are administered,as well as IV fluids with potassium to treat the dehydration and hypokalemia.
A)K50.914,K63.0,J45.909,E87.5,E86.0
B)K63.0,K50.914,E87.6
C)K50.10,J45.909,K63.0,E87.6,E86.0
D)K50.914,E87.6,E86.0
Q3) Symptoms of gastric ulcers may include pain when eating,vomiting,and tarry bowel movements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Assign the code for portal thrombophlebitis: __________
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The assignment of the code for unstageable pressure ulcer should be based on clinical documentation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sebaceous glands secrete an oily substance called
Q3) The functions of the integumentary system include all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A)protection
B)temperature regulation
C)sensory reception
D)vitamin A synthesis
Q4) Senile dermatosis: __________
Q5) In ICD-10-CM,pressure ulcers require a separate code to identify the stage of the ulcer.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Granuloma pyogenicum: __________
Q7) What usually causes hives?
Q8) The skin is composed of ____________________ layers.
Q9) Another name for furuncle is a(n) ____________________. Page 24
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ICD-10-CM has a combination code for osteoporosis with pathologic fracture. A)True
B)False
Q2) Arthroscopic surgery is a highly invasive surgery that involves the use of instruments to perform surgery through very large incisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lower limb amputation status-below left knee
A)Z87.39
B)Z82.61
C)Z82.69
D)Z96.641
E)Z89.512
F)Z13.828
G)Z13.820
Q4) Chondromalacia of the left patella: __________
Q5) What does the abbreviation SLE stand for?
Q6) Tennis elbow (right): __________
Q7) What does the abbreviation AKA stand for?
Q8) Staphylococcal pyogenic arthritis of left knee: __________ Page 26
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old woman came to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting,fever,lower abdominal pain,and vaginal discharge with foul odor.The patient was started on IV antibiotics and was transferred to the medical unit.Per social history,the patient has engaged in some high-risk heterosexual sexual practices and was advised regarding safer sex practices.She was discharged with a prescription of oral antibiotics and will follow up with her regular GYN practitioner.Final Diagnosis: Lower abdominal pain due to pelvic inflammatory disease.
A)N73.1,Z72.52
B)N73.9,Z72.51
C)N73.1,Z72.51
D)N73.3,Z72.53
Q2) Which of the following is/are Z code(s) that may be used with diseases of the genitourinary system?
A)Z16.21 Resistance to vancomycin
B)Z87.448 Personal history of other diseases of urinary system
C)Z93.59 Artificial opening status,other cystostomy
D)All of the above
Q3) Leukoplakia of vulva: __________
Q4) Ulceration of the vulva: __________
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Chapter 21: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
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Sample Questions
Q1) ICD-10-CM does NOT have separate categories for high-risk pregnant individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient is an elderly multigravida at 39 weeks who has come in for trial labor following previous cesarean.The patient has been taking iron for iron deficiency anemia and is obese.Labor progresses,but fetal decelerations require repeat LTCS.On day 2,the patient develops a fever and is treated with antibiotics for suspected endometritis.
A)O76,Z37.0,O34.21,O99.02,D50.9,O99.214,O86.12,O09.523,E66.9,Z3A.39,10D00Z
B)Z37.0,O76,O34.21,O99.02,D50.9,649.11,E66.9,O86.12,Z3A.39,10D00Z1
C)O34.21,O76,Z37.0,O99.02,O99.214,O86.12,Z3A.39,10D00Z1
D)O76,O34.21,O99.02,D50.9,O99.214,O86.12,Z3A.39,10D00Z1
Q3) Coding a normal pregnancy requires only three diagnostic codes and one or more procedure codes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Severe antepartum deep thrombophlebitis of the right calf at 25 weeks:
Q5) What happens in a molar pregnancy?
Q6) Lupus nephritis in second trimester of pregnancy (20 weeks): __________
Page 29
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Chapter 22: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
Period and Congenital Malformations, deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polydactyly fingers: __________
Q2) An infant is born via vaginal delivery with intrauterine growth retardation.The baby is premature being born at 33 2/7 weeks and weighing 1800 grams.Meconium aspiration is noted at delivery.Jaundice due to prematurity which was treated with phototherapy,single session.
A)Z38.00,P05.9,P24.01,P59.0,6A600ZZ
B)Z38.00,P07.17,P07.36,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ
C)Z37.0,P05.9,P07.35,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ
D)Z37.0,P07.36,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a congenital condition?
A)Marfan syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
D)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q4) Spina bifida is a curable congenital anomaly because there is a way to repair the damaged nerve tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What does LGA stand for?
Page 30
Q6) What is meconium?
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Chapter 23: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ____________________ fracture causes injury to the surrounding tissues.
Q2) Small piece of grass from mowing lawn at a single-family house stuck on right cornea.Grass was removed.Assign injury and procedure codes only.
A)T15.01xD,08C8XZZ
B)T15.01xA,08C8XZZ
C)T15.02xA,08C9XZZ
D)T15.02XD,08C9XZZ
Q3) What is the main difficulty that coders have when trying to assign codes for final diagnoses?
Q4) The patient sustained a contusion and severe sprain of left ankle after falling into a hole while hiking in the mountains while on vacation.
A)S93.401D,W17.2xxD,Y92.828
B)S93.401A,W17.2xxD,Y92.828,Y93.01,Y99.8
C)S93.402D,W17.2xxD,Y92.828,Y93.01,Y99.8
D)S93.402A,W17.2xxA,Y92.828,Y93.01,Y99.8
Q5) Anaphylactic shock due to ingestion of milk: __________
Q6) When air or gas bubbles get into the bloodstream,this is called a(n)
Page 32
Q7) C5 spinal cord injury with complete lesion,initial encounter: __________
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Chapter 24: Burns, adverse Effects, and Poisonings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Debridement is one of the most common procedures performed on burn victims.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient combined prescription Percodan with beer and became stuporous and drowsy.
A)T40.2x1A,T51.0x1A,R40.1,R40.0
B)T40.2x1D,T51.0x1D,R40.1,R40.0
C)T40.2x1S,T51.0x1S,R40.1,R40.0
D)T40.2x1A,T51.0x1A
Q3) Personal history of allergy to medicinal agents-other specified medicinal agents
A)Z69.020
B)Z88.8
C)Z91.030
D)Z88.7
E)Z91.010
F)Z91.89
G)Z91.011
H)Z91.410
Q4) What are the four major types of abuse?
Q5) Battered spouse syndrome: Confirmed abuse by her husband: __________
Page 33
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Chapter 25: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codes for complications may be located in the chapter for specified body sites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Coding complications always imply that poor care has been delivered.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient comes to the hospital with acute appendicitis and is taken to the OR for an open appendectomy.During the course of the surgery,the liver is accidentally lacerated and repaired.The patient recovers without any ill effects.__________
Q4) Patient had an outpatient ERCP for extraction of a common bile duct stone.The patient developed acute abdominal pain and was admitted to rule out post ERCP pancreatitis.Impression: Post ERCP pancreatitis.
A)K91.89,K80.50,K85.9,Y83.8,0FC98ZZ
B)K86.1,K80.51,K91.89,Y83.9,0FC98ZZ
C)K85.1,K80.60,Y84.9,0F998ZZ
D)K85.9,K80.61,Y84.8,0F798ZZ
Q5) Mechanical complications are related to ____________________ malfunctions.
Q6) Pneumonitis due to organism growing in ventilation (air conditioning) system:
Page 34
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Chapter 26: Reimbursement Methodologies
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medicare is responsible for more than ___% of patients.
Q2) Criteria or guidelines for what is determined to be reasonable and necessary for a particular medical service are known as ____.
A)good documentation
B)charge description master
C)medical necessity
D)department number
Q3) The old payment method or ____ was based on charges or a percentage of charges that did not promote best practices and quality care because the hospital was paid based on charges;the higher the charges were,the higher was the payment.
A)retrospective payment system
B)prospective payment system
C)preferred provider organization
D)Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act
Q4) One of the goals of a clinical documentation improvement program is to improve a facility's case mix.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is Uniform Bill-04 (UB-04)?
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Chapter 27: Out patient Coding
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports to the outpatient surgery department for an arthroscopic meniscectomy for a torn meniscus.The patient is prepped by anesthesia and is found to be in atrial fibrillation.The surgeon decides not to proceed with the procedure.How should this be coded?
A)The primary diagnosis is atrial fibrillation with a secondary diagnosis of torn meniscus
B)The primary diagnosis is the torn meniscus with a secondary diagnosis of atrial fibrillation
C)The primary diagnosis is arthroscopic,and the secondary diagnosis is meniscectomy
D)The primary diagnosis is atrial fibrillation,and the secondary diagnosis is arthroscopic meniscectomy
E)None of the above are correct
Q2) A gastroenterologist sees a patient in the office for a colonoscopy and biopsy of the colon.Patient is having melena: __________
Q3) The terms encounter and visit are never used interchangeably when outpatient service contacts are described.
A)True
B)False
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