Medical Billing and Coding Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Billing and Coding is a vital course designed to introduce students to the administrative processes that support healthcare delivery. The course provides a thorough understanding of medical terminology, insurance claim procedures, and standardized coding systems such as ICD-10, CPT, and HCPCS. Students will learn to accurately assign codes to diagnoses and procedures, ensuring proper documentation and reimbursement from insurance providers. Emphasis is placed on regulatory compliance, ethical practices, and the use of electronic health record (EHR) systems. By the end of this course, students will possess the foundational skills needed to work in healthcare administration settings, supporting efficient and effective revenue cycle management.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are facing a situation in which you must act assertively to solve a problem. Summarize below the steps you should use in delivering an assertive message. Answer: Choose a feeling word that describes how you feel about the situation; think about the specific situation that must be described; form an "I" sentence with the appropriate feeling word and specific description of the circumstances. Then, establish eye contact, raise one's voice slightly, if necessary, to get the individual's attention, and deliver the "I" sentence.
Q2) Summarize the characteristics of nonassertive communication. Answer: Keeping the eyes downcast, shifting one's weight when talking, slumping the shoulders or wringing the hands, whining or using a hesitant tone of voice. Also, using terminology such as "maybe," or "I guess," "I wonder if you could," "Would you mind very much if," or "It's not really important."
Q3) Learning styles are determined by your individual method of _____________, or examining, new material and the way you process it or make it your own.
Answer: perceiving
Perceiving is the method individuals use to examine information and recognize it as real.
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chiropractors treat only bone and joint disorders.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q2) A medical doctor who specializes in the treatment of disorders of the eye is called an
A) otolaryngologist.
B) optometrist.
C) obstetrician.
D) ophthalmologist.
Answer: D
Q3) Which statement best describes the main difference between the DO and the MD?
A) The training for the DO includes more courses and a longer residency.
B) Only the MD can prescribe drugs for the prevention and treatment of disease.
C) The DO places more emphasis on the relationship of the musculoskeletal structure to the function of organs and tissues in the body.
D) The license for the MD has more requirements and is more difficult to earn.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ examination is offered as a certification for medical assistants by the AMT.
Answer: RMA
The AMT offers the RMA examination.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a benefit of wearing a uniform or scrubs?
A) Immediately identify employees of the clinic
B) Provides a consistent appearance for all employees
C) Infection control measure
D) Projects a specific status
Answer: D
Q3) Which credential is not offered by the AMT?
A) COLT
B) RMA
C) CMA
D) RPT
Answer: C
Q4) The name of the AAMA's bimonthly journal is __________.
Answer: CMA Today
The AAMA publishes CMA Today.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be overcome with facts about the source of social bias?
A) Prejudice
B) Stereotyping
C) Highly abrasive patients
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) The __________ formed in the early moments of meeting someone remain in our thoughts long after the first words are spoken.
Q3) Which is not likely to be one of the factors that influence the first impression we make on others?
A) What we say
B) What we do
C) What we think
D) How we look
Q4) In the linear communication model, which of the following encodes the message?
A) Sender
B) Receiver
C) Feedback
D) None of the above
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Special damages are injuries that are not a necessary consequence of a physician's negligent act or omission.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Match Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) with the appropriate definition or example. (Select all that apply.)
A) Information should be shared with patients when they are admitted to facilities.
B) Hold insurance companies accountable
C) Architectural standards for new and altered health care facilities
D) Primary purpose was to limit the administrative costs of healthcare.
E) Title I (insurance Reform)
F) Restricts use of annual limits and bans lifetime limits on healthcare benefits
G) Prevents insurance companies from cancelling coverage based on genetic information
H) Intended to eliminate discrimination against individuals with disabilities
Q3) Once a patient has decided to file a lawsuit against a physician, the first step is to find a(n) __________ to accept the case.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tendency of something or someone to act in a certain manner under given circumstances is called
A) idealism.
B) introspection.
C) disposition.
D) veracity.
Q2) Which word best describes issues that have a moral implication of right and wrong?
A) Ethics
B) Etiquette
C) Precepts
D) Contracts
Q3) The provision of care to medical colleagues or their families and staff is called
Q4) A physician committed to saving life and relieving suffering may sometimes find those two goals ______________.
Q5) Something that is ______________ is oriented or directed toward social needs and problems.
Q6) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Commensurate
B) Commensarate
Q2) Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly?
A) Wheal
B) Prosthesis
C) Rhyhmical
D) Vacuum
Q3) An ergonomic workstation designed for prolonged use will not include which of the following?
A) Headsets
B) Split-key keyboards
C) Laptops and tablets
D) Foam wrist rest
Q4) Which of the following describes a phrase without a main clause and is a major error in writing?
A) Complete sentence
B) Verb
C) Noun
D) Fragment
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When answering incoming calls, what is the first thing the caller should hear?
A) The name of the facility
B) Your name
C) Your offer to help or assist
D) All of the above
Q2) Answering services usually provide a(n) __________ to answer the phone rather than a recording device.
Q3) Active listening involves
A) giving the same attention to a person on the phone as would be given to a person face to face.
B) concentrating on the conversation at hand.
C) discovering vital information.
D) All of the above
Q4) If your office is in California and it is noon, what time is it on the East Coast?
A) 8 AM
B) 9 AM
C) 3 PM
D) 4 PM
Q5) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant must remember that the physician will have other types of appointments that will need special notation in the appointment schedule, such as A) new patients.
B) physicals.
C) surgeries.
D) established patients.
Q2) An unexpected event that throws a plan into disorder is called a ______________.
Q3) Time is one of the physician's most valuable commodities. A)True B)False
Q4) When informing patients that you must postpone their appointments because of the absence of the physician, it is good practice to
A) give them the name of one or more alternative physicians. B) explain exactly why the physician cannot see them.
C) offer them priority over patients already scheduled in the future.
D) be extremely apologetic about the inconvenience.
Q5) If something is marked by accord in sentiment or action, it is said to be ____________.
Q6) Two-way communication is also called ______________. Page 11
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Books, manuscripts, and computer-recorded items are classified as __________ mail.
A) first class
B) standard
C) media
D) bulk
Q2) Many state laws mandate that termination letters be sent by which of the following services?
A) First-Class Mail
B) Priority Mail
C) Certified Mail
D) Certified Mail with Return Receipt
Q3) A difference among conflicting facts, claims, or opinions is called a(n)
A) error.
B) discrepancy.
C) outsource.
D) circumvention.
Q4) Mail sent within the Unites States and its territories is called ___________ mail.
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Q5) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) A set of physical properties, the values of which determine characteristics or behavior, is called
A) interoperables.
B) parameters.
C) informatics.
D) gauges.
Q2) The preferred filing method for a physician's office is A) alphabetic.
B) numeric.
C) alphanumeric.
D) the one most preferred by the staff.
Q3) To make greater, more numerous, larger, or more intense is to __________.
Q4) Which statement is not accurate about correcting charting errors?
A) Insert the correction above or immediately after the error.
B) Draw two clear lines through the error.
C) In the margin, initial and date the error correction.
D) Do not hide charting errors.
Q5) When a patient is transferred from one facility to another, __________ of care ensures that no lapses in treatment occur and that transitions are smooth.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ICD-10-CM sections includes guidelines for reporting additional diagnoses in non-outpatient settings?
A) Section I
B) Section II
C) Section III
D) Section IV
E) Section V
Q2) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
Q3) The "code first" notation can usually be ignored.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A code from category Z37 should be included on
A) every maternal record when a delivery has occurred.
B) subsequent records.
C) newborn records.
D) Both A and B
Q5) Etiology refers to the underlying cause or origin of a disease.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The signs and symptoms of a disease are its __________.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total splenectomy
A) 38115
B) 38102
C) 38101
D) 38100
Q2) Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images
A) 78201
B) 78205
C) 78220
D) 78223
Q3) The dollar value of each basic unit value used in anesthesia coding is called the __________.
Q4) Biopsy of external ear
A) 69090
B) 69100
C) 69140
D) 69150
Q5) CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.
Q6) A(n) __________ patient is one who is having his or her first encounter with the physician.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pays the hospital surgical room fee?
A) Disability
B) Basic medical
C) Surgical
D) Hospital
E) Both C and D
Q2) The physician who enters into a contract with an insurance company and agrees to certain rules and regulations is called a ______ provider.
A) participating
B) paying
C) physician
D) None of the above
Q3) The "cafeteria-style" plan allows employers to choose the benefits they want for their respective employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A physician can choose whether to accept Medicaid patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) To examine claims for accuracy and completeness before they are submitted is to _________ the claims.
A) correct
B) audit
C) revise
D) reject
Q2) Insurance information should be collected on the first visit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Q4) The physician's signature is located in block
A) 12.
B) 13.
C) 31.
D) 33.
Q5) Electronic claims are submitted via electronic media.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The primary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Q7) Secondary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called ______________.
Q2) Who is financially responsible for a minor seeking treatment for STD without parental consent?
A) The parent who brings the child in for treatment
B) The legally emancipated minor
C) It depends; the medical assistant must determine where the statement should be sent
D) The minor
E) The legal guardian
Q3) Which of the following should be considered when using a collection agency?
A) Net back
B) Fee percentage
C) Fee charged by the collection agency
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) In the physician's office, the accounts payable is the amount of money that all patients owe the physician.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________. Page 19
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first thing the medical assistant should do when a check is returned unpaid by the bank?
A) Contact the person who wrote the check.
B) File it with the district attorney's office.
C) Send a letter refusing to see the person as a patient until the matter is resolved.
D) Write off the account.
Q2) The deposits in cash today are $657 and the checks total $8,343. What is the total deposit?
Q3) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called the __________.
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the four types of endorsements?
A) Blank
B) Quality
C) Restrictive
D) Special
Q5) The stamp "For deposit only" is a restrictive endorsement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best time to terminate an employee is usually at the beginning of the day.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which subjects cannot be discussed in a job interview?
A) Religion
B) Work history
C) Previous terminations of employment
D) None of the above
Q3) A remark that is said to be ___________ is completely obvious or obtrusive.
Q4) Which of the following documents lists the order in which business is to be conducted during a meeting?
A) Agenda
B) Bylaws
C) Itinerary
D) Minutes
Q5) Breaks and time off do not meet the physiologic needs of employees.
A)True
B)False
Q7) No supervisor enjoys giving a(n) ____________ that is less than positive. Page 22
Q6) A word that means submissive to or controlled by another is ____________.
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Page 23
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) A URL is a web address.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Brochures in the provider's office can substitute for medical advice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Keeping the office open later one night per week is a marketing strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Creating or changing attitudes, beliefs, and perceptions by influencing people with purchased broadcast time, print space, or other forms of written and visual media is called _____________.
Q5) Which of the following categories evaluates the advantage a healthcare facility would have over its competitors?
A) Strengths
B) Weaknesses
C) Opportunities
D) Threats
Page 24
Q6) The phase of planning during which the problem or goals are reviewed is the _____________ stage.
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Page 25
Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV is transmitted by blood that splatters onto intact skin or mucous membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ is an infection that is acquired in a healthcare setting and is often caused by failure to follow Standard Precautions in the facility.
Q3) Relapse is the disappearance of the clinical symptoms of disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most important step in achieving hand asepsis is A) removing jewelry.
B) rinsing with alcohol.
C) using surgical soap.
D) wearing gloves.
Q5) Adequate infection control procedures include all of the following except A) intermittent hand washing.
B) proper use of antiseptics.
C) effective disinfection.
D) sterilization.
Q6) __________ infections persist for a long time.
Q7) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following questions or statements would encourage the patient to continue to communicate?
A) "Does your arm hurt?"
B) "Did you hurt yourself?"
C) "Tell me about how your arm feels right now."
D) "Do you have a family history of arthritis?"
Q2) Objective data include which of the following?
A) Complaints of pain
B) Social history
C) Blood pressure recordings
D) Past medical history
Q3) Research on the significance of body language indicates that 50% of the message received by patients is interpreted from the caregiver's nonverbal language.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is acceptable to skip lines when documenting to give the physician room to enter a note after the patient has been seen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability to understand the complexities of the disease and treatment recommendations carries which of the following impacts?
A) Sociocultural
B) Intellectual
C) Economic
D) Spiritual
Q2) The holistic model suggests that patient education should consider all aspects of the patient's life, including the person's __________, emotional, social, economic, and spiritual needs.
Q3) A crucial aspect of successful patient teaching is
A) restate.
B) repeat.
C) rephrase.
D) ask for feedback.
Q4) Teaching interventions should be postponed if the patient is extremely anxious or agitated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diagram and explain how to develop and implement a patient teaching plan.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not an antioxidant?
A) Beta-carotene
B) Vitamin E
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin C
Q2) Which of the B vitamins is especially important for childbearing women to prevent neural tube defects?
A) Niacin
B) Biotin
C) Riboflavin
D) Folic acid
Q3) A diet high in omega-3 fatty acids is recommended for patients with a history of blood clot formation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unsaturated fats are heavier and denser than saturated fats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ can be neutralized by antioxidant-rich foods.
Q6) Define essential and nonessential nutrients.
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) An aural thermometer should not be used if the patient has A) chest pain.
B) bilateral impacted cerumen.
C) tachycardia.
D) pierced ears.
Q2) An infant's pulse typically is taken by which method?
A) Auscultating over the apex of the heart
B) Palpating the brachial artery
C) Palpating the carotid artery
D) Auscultating the brachial artery
Q3) The systolic BP is measured during which Korotkoff phase?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Q4) The thickening, decreased elasticity, and calcification of arterial walls is called
Q5) A patient who is __________ has an elevated body temperature.
Q6) Discuss the OSHA guidelines for taking vital signs.
Page 30
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) Which examination position is used in emergencies for patients with severe hypotension or who are in shock?
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Knee-chest
C) Lithotomy
D) Trendelenburg's
Q2) Measuring the circumference of an infant's head is an example of __________.
Q3) A murmur indicates a possible problem with a cardiac valve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The usual sequence of the general physical examination moves from the A) head toward the feet.
B) center of the body.
C) area where there is a complaint.
D) trunk outward to the limbs.
Q5) The sinuses are visualized during the physical examination by passing light through the nasal passages in a technique called __________.
Q6) The acronym __________ means the patient's eyes react normally during the physical examination.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physicians registered to dispense controlled drugs are required by law to maintain an inventory of the drugs. The inventory must be maintained for how many years after the date of registration?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 6
D) 7
Q2) Therapeutic drugs treat and cure disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Monistat is used to treat fungal infections.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Medications used for palliative treatment are designed to prevent the incidence of a disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ibuprofen is classified as both an antipyretic and an anti-inflammatory agent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lot number of the drug is an important item on the label, in case the medication is recalled by the pharmaceutical company that produced it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Correctly convert the following metric units of measurement
a. 14 mcg = ____ mg
b. 3.7 g = ____ kg
c. 1.12 kg = ____ g
d. 0.33 L = ____ mL
e. 49.6 mg = ____ g
f. 96.4 mL = ____ L
Q3) Your patient is to receive Precef 20 mg/kg every 12 hours. The patient weighs 88 pounds. What is the correct dose?
A) 500 mg
B) 600 mg
C) 800 mg
D) 1000 mg
Q4) The top number in a fraction is the __________.
Q5) Always in a proportion, the problem is solved by __________.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a medication container has a damaged label, the label should be fixed in the office before a medication error occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dorothy is responsible for assisting Dr. Thau with pediatric allergy testing. What route of administration will be used?
A) Intradermal
B) Subcutaneous
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Intramuscular
Q3) The _________ and _________ of the medication ordered determine the size of the syringe-needle unit selected.
A) color; odor
B) color; amount
C) amount; viscosity
D) viscosity; odor
Q4) Subcutaneous injections are administered just under the dermal layers into fatty, or __________, tissue.
Q5) List and describe the seven rights of safe drug administration.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would the physician order if a patient is in insulin shock?
A) Insulin
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Glucose
D) Normal saline
E) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q2) The condition in which blood is present in the urine is called __________.
Q3) Explain the steps that should be taken to maintain a safe work environment.
Q4) Hemorrhagic shock is caused by excessive loss of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An AED apex pad is placed next to or underneath the left breast for which of the following patient scenarios?
A) Child
B) Female patient
C) Male patient
D) Adolescent
Q6) Mild frostbite may be treated by rubbing the affected extremity gently.
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which potentially destructive disorder of the eye is characterized by increased fluid inside the eyeball?
A) Cataracts
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Glaucoma
D) Strabismus
Q2) An optician is an important member of the eye care team who is responsible for A) performing eye examinations.
B) writing prescriptions for corrective lenses.
C) preparing corrective lenses from physicians' prescriptions.
D) screening patients for vision abnormalities.
Q3) The medical term for a drooping eyelid is A) glaucoma.
B) a cataract.
C) blepharoptosis.
D) a stye.
Q4) The semicircular canals are responsible for maintaining balance and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ eye drops are used to treat open-angle glaucoma.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Full-thickness thermal injury is also referred to as
A) first degree burn.
B) second degree burn.
C) third degree burn.
D) superficial burn.
Q2) A patient experiencing an exacerbation of disease symptoms is finally cycling through a period of relief from the most challenging symptoms of the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical term for itching is
A) cyanosis.
B) jaundice.
C) ecchymosis.
D) erythema.
E) pruritus.
Q4) Grading of a tumor requires a pathologic assessment of the level of cellular differentiation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatitis B vaccine is given in four doses 6 months apart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hepatitis can be caused only by infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Any disorder or enlargement of the lymph nodes is called __________.
Q4) Ulcerative colitis differs from Crohn's disease in what way?
A) It cannot be cured by surgery.
B) The disease typically recurs at the site of a previous ulcer.
C) Scar tissue at the site may cause a bowel obstruction.
D) Ulcers form on the surface of the colon, starting in the rectum and spreading proximally.
Q5) Which of the following diseases is often asymptomatic and discovered during a routine x-ray?
A) Gallstones
B) Cirrhosis
C) Hernia
D) Diverticular disease
Q6) A hard, impacted mass of feces in the colon is called a(n) __________.
Page 38
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize what you learned in the chapter about the prostate-specific antigen test.
Q2) Match the following signs and symptoms with benign prostatic hyperplasia. (Select all that apply.)
A) Hematuria
B) Dysuria
C) Frequent UTIs
D) Nocturia
E) Urinary urgency and frequency
F) Difficulty starting urination
G) Secretion of pus from the tip of the penis
Q3) Urinary reflux disorder may be caused by
A) a problem with a ureteral valve.
B) neurologic damage to the bladder.
C) an obstruction that causes blockage.
D) All of the above
Q4) Renal calculi may result in hydronephrosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________________ is cancer of the kidney in children.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to have a menstrual period is called
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q2) OCPs can be used to treat which of the following conditions?
A) Anovulation
B) Prevention of ovarian cysts
C) Polycystic ovaries
D) All of the above
Q3) A mammogram is recommended for all women starting at age 50 and then each year after that.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary symptom of uterine fibroids is
A) menorrhagia.
B) an abnormal Pap smear.
C) dyspareunia.
D) uterine dysplasia.
Q5) A woman is considered _____________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current pediatric growth charts can be downloaded from the FDA's website.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Strep throat may result in damage to the heart valves if not treated properly with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Skeletal growth in girls is completed between 15 and 16 years of age and in boys between ages 17 and 18.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A middle ear infection is called
A) otitis media.
B) otitis externa.
C) otalgia.
D) meningitis.
Q5) If diarrhea continues for longer than 4 days, medical intervention is needed to prevent serious complications.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ in children is called rickets.
Q2) An adult with osteomalacia is said to have rickets.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diathermy is a deep heat therapy that can be used to treat muscle spasms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Passive ROM involves which procedure?
A) The patient assists in moving the joint.
B) The physician moves the affected joint to assess its ROM.
C) The patient moves the joint, and the physician measures the movement with a goniometer.
D) The patient holds the affected area still while the physician measures the joint angle.
Q5) Medications used to treat osteoporosis include which of the following?
A) Evista
B) NSAIDs
C) Prednisone
D) Lyrica
Q6) A(n) __________ fracture in a young child is suggestive of a child abuse injury.
Page 42
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peripheral neuropathy is frequently seen in patients with what other health problem?
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Meningitis
D) A secondary brain tumor
Q2) A patient calls to report symptoms that are commonly associated with the flu. However, he has not improved after 2 weeks of rest, so he may have
A) ALS.
B) CVA.
C) encephalitis.
D) MS.
Q3) Which type of paralysis from spinal cord transection occurs in the upper thoracic or cervical region of the spinal cord?
A) Quadriplegia
B) Paraplegia
C) Hemiplegia
D) None of the above
Q4) Supportive cells of the nervous system are called ______________ cells.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with diabetes mellitus must be very careful about foot care to prevent complications. Which of the following would be part of a patient education intervention about diabetic foot care?
A) Wash your feet every day with hot water and soap.
B) Check your feet once a week using a mirror if necessary.
C) Cut your nails straight across to avoid ingrown toenails and possible injuries.
D) When wearing open-toed sandals or going barefoot, watch for possible injuries.
Q2) Many patients with diabetes need to void frequently during the night, a condition called __________.
Q3) Which of the following is a condition in which serum levels of thyroid hormones are excessively high?
A) Myxedema
B) Cretinism
C) Goiter
D) Thyrotoxicosis
Q4) Diabetes type 2 occurs much less frequently than diabetes mellitus type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healthcare workers who have a positive PPD skin test must have the test repeated annually to screen for active tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Clubbing of the fingers in a patient with emphysema is caused by
A) chronic tissue hypoxia.
B) low blood glucose levels.
C) complications from medications.
D) congestive heart failure.
Q3) A patient with an elevated level of carbon dioxide in the blood is said to have
Q4) Discuss the recommended treatment for individuals exposed to TB who have a negative sputum culture compared with the recommended treatment for individuals diagnosed with active TB.
Q5) A diagnosis of TB is confirmed with a chest x-ray examination.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A surgical procedure to repair or alter the shape of the nose is called a(n)
45
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C) Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
D) Triazolam (Halcion)
E) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q2) A symptom of chronic peripheral vascular disease is __________.
Q3) The ______________ is the saclike membrane surrounding the heart.
A) endocardium
B) bundle of His
C) pericardium
D) sinoatrial node
Q4) The blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood to the heart is called the A) vena cava.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) carotid artery.
D) renal artery.
Q5) Patients taking diuretics may be prescribed a KCl supplement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A protein that forms the inelastic fibers of tendons, ligaments, and fascia is
A) elastin.
B) collagen.
C) a lipocyte.
D) cartilage.
Q2) Changes caused by the ultraviolet light from the sun or by the normal aging process can affect which of the following layers of skin?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) All of the above
Q3) Physical activity and continued mental stimulation have no effect on the development of memory problems in aging persons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Urinary frequency is not a common occurrence in aging persons because of the decreased ability of the bladder wall to expand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is a combination of all of the electric events that occur in the heart during a single heartbeat.
Q2) A cardiac event monitor must be worn at all times, even during bathing, to detect cardiac abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the ECG recording appears as a series of small, uniform spikes in the baseline, the medical assistant should
A) check for nearby electric appliances.
B) ask the patient to lie still.
C) help the patient relax and stay warm.
D) check the cable connection to the electrodes.
Q4) The medical assistant may assist with pacemaker implantation in the physician's office setting.
A)True B)False
Q5) ECG paper has horizontal and vertical lines at __________ intervals.
Q6) What information should be documented on the ECG strip?
Q7) The __________ on an ECG machine creates the image on the ECG paper.
Page 48
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ ultrasonography can be used to detect vascular disease, such as atherosclerosis and venous thrombosis.
Q2) Patients with cardiac pacemakers cannot have an MRI scan.
A)True
B)False
Q3) PET scans frequently are used to assess the spread of cancerous tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ______________ is the direct observation of the x-ray image in motion.
A) CT scan
B) MRI
C) IVU
D) Fluoroscopy
Q5) Diverticulosis may be diagnosed with which procedure?
A) UGI
B) LGI
C) Abdominal sonography
D) MRI with iodine dye
Q6) The radiopaque substance used to enhance the visibility of soft tissues in imaging studies is called a(n) __________.
Page 49
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most effective means of preventing infection and is the single most effective way of preventing the spread of all infections?
A) Use of PPE
B) Hand hygiene
C) Safe needle practices
D) Respiratory hygiene
Q2) The __________ is the substance tested for or analyzed in a specimen.
Q3) The metric system is based on a decimal system in which a combination of basic units and prefixes indicates a system of division in multiples of 100.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A test may be used for testing patients when a series of control results show test
A) precision.
B) accuracy.
C) reliability.
D) None of the above
Q5) __________ is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the most accurate results, urine specimens should be kept refrigerated and processed within 2 hours of collection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reagent strip testing must be performed on a fresh specimen within 1 hour of collection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A red blood cell seen in urine sediment that has scalloped, leaflike edges is described as ____________.
Q4) A small amount of which of the following is always present in normal urine?
A) Bilirubin
B) Glucose
C) Urobilinogen
D) Leukocyte esterase
Q5) Abnormal urine color may be related to which of the following?
A) Diet
B) Medication
C) Disease
D) Pathologic factors
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The needle size most commonly used for adult venipuncture is _____ gauge.
A) 18
B) 10
C) 12
D) 21
Q2) The clear part of whole blood that contains clotting agents is
A) plasma.
B) blood cells.
C) serum.
D) hemoglobin.
E) B and D.
Q3) A tourniquet should never be used when a venous blood sample is to be drawn from the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All Vacutainer tubes should be inverted three to five times to mix the blood sample with the tube additive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Page 52
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The life span of an erythrocyte is approximately 120 days.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The physician orders both liver and cardiac panels for Mr. John Seymour, a 48-year-old patient. Summarize the blood tests included.
Q3) An RBC with a normal amount of hemoglobin is said to be hyperchromic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Match the mean cell ratio of Hgb and Hct (MCHC) red cell test with the appropriate description and reference range.
A) The average weight of hemoglobin in the RBC
B) The average weight of hemoglobin compared with the cell size
C) The average size of the RBCs
D) The average circumference of the RBCs
E) Reference range is 32 to 37 g/dL
F) Reference range is 82 to 108 femtoliters (fL)
G) Reference range is 26 to 34 picograms (pg)
H) Reference range is 25 to 37 g/dL
Q5) An RBC that is larger than normal is described as ______________.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tightly coiled, spiral-shaped bacteria are called
A) spirilla.
B) sarcinae.
C) spirochetes.
D) streptobacilli.
Q2) An organism that is flexible as far as its oxygen requirements are concerned is called a(n)
A) aerobe.
B) anaerobe.
C) facultative aerobe.
D) facultative anaerobe.
Q3) A cellulose tape test for pinworms requires
A) a thin specimen of stool to be spread on cellulose tape to immobilize the worms.
B) a length of cellulose tape to be touched against the anal folds to collect worms.
C) temporarily taping the anus closed to trap the worms.
D) a microscope to view the eggs that have adhered to a length of cellulose tape.
E) B and D
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should instruments be handled after the surgery is complete?
A) Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collection basin.
B) Keep all instruments locked to prevent accidental injury.
C) Wait until any blood on the instrument has dried before cleaning.
D) Use a detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds.
E) Both A and D are correct.
Q2) Suture scissors have a beak or hook tip that can slide under the suture for removal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Opening or widening the circumference of a body orifice (e.g., the cervix) with a surgical instrument is called ___________.
Q4) One method of controlling epistaxis is to apply silver nitrate sticks to the bleeder site. A)True B)False
Q5) Sterile technique does not have to be followed in the preparation of a site for surgery.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the medical assistant's role during laser surgery.
Q2) What is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life?
A) Disinfection
B) Germicide
C) Sanitization
D) Sterilization
Q3) A(n) __________ is a sterile covering that is placed directly over a wound.
Q4) Autoclave wrapping material must be __________ so that steam can circulate around the instruments.
Q5) A(n) __________ occurs when a nonpenetrating wound damages blood vessels.
Q6) A large, gaping wound that must heal from the bottom of the wound outward heals by first intention.
A)True
B)False
Q7) In __________, a high-frequency current is used to cut through tissue and seal blood vessels.
56
Q8) Very low temperatures are used in __________ to destroy tissue by freezing it on contact.
Q9) With __________ healing, a wound heals by granulation from the bottom of the
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Performance evaluations should be perfect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Newspaper ads for available positions usually produce only a few applications or résumés.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following résumé formats focuses on the person's employment history, bulleting out the job duties for each position?
A) Chronological
B) Combination
C) Functional
D) Targeted
Q4) When applying for a position for which you are qualified, which of the following actions would most likely increase your chances of getting hired?
A) Writing a polite note thanking the employer for the interview
B) Making frequent telephone calls to express your interest in the position
C) Getting to know the office staff at the site where you wish to work
D) Not inquiring about salary or work hours at the interview
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