Medical Assisting Textbook Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Assisting is a comprehensive course designed to prepare students for entry-level positions in medical offices, clinics, and other healthcare settings. The course covers essential topics such as medical terminology, patient care procedures, administrative duties, medical law and ethics, pharmacology, and basic laboratory techniques. Students will develop practical skills in taking vital signs, assisting with examinations and minor surgeries, administering medications, and managing medical records. Emphasis is placed on effective communication, professionalism, and the importance of confidentiality in healthcare. Through a combination of classroom instruction, hands-on practice, and clinical experiences, learners gain the foundational knowledge and competencies necessary for certification and successful employment as medical assistants.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match active processors with all the appropriate applications. (Select all that apply.)
A) Spend time thinking and learning before acting
B) Think about the information before they internalize it
C) Jump in and start doing
D) Make sense of the new material by using it now
E) Observe and consider what is going on
F) Look for practical ways to apply the new material
G) Learn best with practice
Answer: C, D, F, G
Q2) Which type of coping strategies may actually increase stress levels?
A) Adaptive coping mechanism
B) Nonadaptive coping mechanism
C) Constructive coping mechanism
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Describe three strategies that can help you become successful at taking tests.
Answer: Prepare adequately, control negative thoughts during test time, and understand how to manage different types of questions.
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations became the most famous medical school in the world in the 1800s?
A) Royal Society of London
B) General Medical Council of Britain
C) Geneva Medical College
D) Johns Hopkins University
Answer: D
Q2) The first national organization formed for medical assistants was the A) CAAHEP.
B) ABHES.
C) AMT.
D) AAMA.
Answer: D
Q3) The agency that inspects facilities for workplace safety violations is A) the CDC.
B) OSHA.
C) CLIA.
D) the DHHS.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match responsible and honest with the appropriate example (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide patient- and family-centered care
B) Accept responsibility for your failures or errors
C) Demonstrate interest in patients as individuals
D) Show sensitivity to the needs of healthcare team members
E) Consistently communicate politely and honestly
F) Always use proper grammar to demonstrate respect for the individual
G) Display positive nonverbal behaviors
H) Never misrepresent yourself or the medical practice
Answer: B, H
Q2) A task that is noted as an E priority is probably a(n)
A) important task.
B) task that should be done early in the day.
C) errand.
D) extra task for that day.
Answer: C
Q3) The name of the AAMA's bimonthly journal is __________.
Answer: CMA Today
The AAMA publishes CMA Today.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perception of the receiver in communication is important.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients from other countries and cultures may need extra time to understand what is being said to them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is always helpful to have a(n) ____________ staff member to communicate with patients who speak another language.
Q4) Which of the following is the most common communication error in patient care?
A) Providing unwarranted assurance
B) Giving advice
C) Using medical terminology
D) Using leading questions
E) Talking too much
Q5) In the linear communication model, which of the following encodes the message?
A) Sender
B) Receiver
C) Feedback
D) None of the above
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ damages are small awards that are token compensation for invasion of a legal right in which no actual injury was suffered.
Q2) Local governments create and enact
A) precedents.
B) acts.
C) ordinances.
D) All of the above
Q3) The medical assistant cannot legally provide the information for the patient about which of the following?
A) Informed consent
B) Expressed consent
C) General consent
D) None of the above
Q4) A written defamatory statement or representation that conveys an unjustly unfavorable impression is called libel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Municipal regulations are also called __________.
Q6) Failure to perform a duty is called __________.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
Q2) The type of ethical problem in which two or more agents think that each knows what is best for the patient but only one agent can prevail is called
A) distributive justice.
B) locus of authority.
C) an ethical dilemma.
D) ethical distress.
Q3) A medical assistant is authorized to release which of the following information without the patient's permission?
A) Public domain information
B) Verification that a patient is under the provider's care
C) Patient's condition
D) None of the above
Q4) According the AMA's code of ethics, which of the following is acceptable?
A) Payment by or to a physician for the referral of a patient
B) Contingency fees
C) Fee based on the value of service provided
D) All of the above
Q5) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a professional letter's signature block, how many blank lines should be placed between the closing and the typed name and credentials of the sender?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q2) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Competent
B) Compatant
Q3) What is the purpose of noting "c: Alice Adams, M.D." at the bottom of a letter?
A) To request that the receiver make a copy of the letter for Dr. Adams
B) To instruct the medical assistant to send the same letter to Dr. Adams
C) To advise the receiver that a duplicate letter has been sent to Dr. Adams
D) To tell the receiver that Dr. Adams has more information about the subject of the letter
Q4) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Commensurate
B) Commensarate
Q5) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced.
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using speakerphone, which of the following should occur to comply with HIPAA?
A) Inform the caller that you will be using speakerphone
B) Let the person know who else will be listening in
C) Door or reception window should be closed
D) Should not be used in areas where conversation can be overheard
Q2) Patients should always be given an exact time that the physician will return a call.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An insurance claim may be __________ if the physician is not a provider for that particular insurance company.
Q4) If English is not the caller's primary language, the medical assistant must use listening skills to ensure understanding.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Having a keen sense of what to do or say to maintain good relations with others is called __________.
Q6) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Q1) A process required by some insurance carriers in which the provider must prove medical necessity before performing a procedure is called ___________________.
Q2) An unexpected event that throws a plan into disorder is called a ______________.
Q3) Every patient has the right to expect courteous treatment in a physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A space of time between events is called a(n) ____________.
Q5) For security reasons, stating that the doctor is unavailable is best used in which of the following situations?
A) When provider is called to an emergency
B) When provider is out of town
C) When provider is delayed
D) All of the above
Q6) All patients should leave the medical facility feeling that they were treated with
Q7) Competency as a result of training or practice is called ____________.
11
Q8) If a patient has a poor experience at the physician's office, he or she will tell
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of special postal service would you use for a heavy, expensive piece of medical equipment being returned to the manufacturer for a refund?
A) Registered
B) First class
C) Certified
D) Special delivery
Q2) The medical assistant should check to make sure all patients have left the facility before locking up and leaving for the day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Inventories of computer hardware, calculators, and copiers for tax purposes are A) deducted as a practice expense for the year in which they are purchased.
B) depreciated over 2 years.
C) depreciated over 5 years.
D) depreciated over 7 years.
Q4) Leasing equipment, such as copiers, often proves to be more expensive than purchasing the equipment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant must always listen to the patient's __________ about the EHR system.
Q2) The type of electronic record of health-related information about an individual that can be created, gathered, managed, and consulted only by authorized clinicians and staff in a single healthcare organization is a(n)
A) PHR.
B) EHR.
C) EMR.
D) PHI.
Q3) Information contained in an electronic health record usually can be accessed from several different physical places.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Who is the legal owner of the information stored in a patient's record?
A) The patient
B) The physician or agency where services were provided
C) The patient's insurance company
D) Both the patient and the physician
Q5) __________ information is provided by the patient.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a Code First Note is present and the patient has an underlying condition, the underlying condition should be sequenced first. Wherever such a combination exists, a Use Additional Code Note is found with the etiology code, and a Code First Note is found with the manifestation code.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) A neoplasm or new growth is coded by the site or location of the neoplasm and its behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are subterms treated in the alphabetic index to diseases and injury?
A) Bold type
B) Enclosed in parentheses
C) Italicized
D) Indented two spaces under the level of the preceding line
Q4) Etiology refers to the underlying cause or origin of a disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization
A) 74710
B) 74740
C) 74742
D) 74775
Q2) The state of the patient as either new or established is called the patient
Q3) __________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.
Q4) CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.
Q5) New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
Q6) Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.
Q7) Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.
Page 16
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Mr. Jones's insurance has a $500 deductible and a $50 surgery co-pay and then pays 80% of the charges, how much will his policy pay on his bill of $4,359?
A) $3027.20
B) $3047.20
C) $3047.00
D) $3067.50
Q2) Which of the following managed care plans require preauthorization for medical services such as surgery?
A) HMOs
B) PPOs
C) EPOs
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Under which of the following Medicare plans for primary care and specialists' services is the patient required to pay a monthly premium?
A) Part A
B) Part B
C) Part C
D) Part D
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dirty claims cannot be resubmitted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The federal tax identification number is found in block __________.
Q3) A claim that is missing information and is returned to the provider for correction and resubmission is called a(n) __________ claim.
Q4) Claims submitted to a(n) __________ are forwarded to individual insurance carriers.
Q5) Electronic data interchange is
A) transferring data back and forth between two or more entities.
B) sending information to one insurance carrier.
C) sending information to one clearinghouse for processing.
D) None of the above
Q6) The patient's name is found in block
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
Q7) The charges for procedures are listed in column __________ of block 24.
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Q8) The primary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is financially responsible for a minor seeking treatment for STD without parental consent?
A) The parent who brings the child in for treatment
B) The legally emancipated minor
C) It depends; the medical assistant must determine where the statement should be sent
D) The minor
E) The legal guardian
Q2) In the physician's office, the accounts payable is the amount of money that all patients owe the physician.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q4) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
Q5) Which of the following should be considered when using a collection agency?
A) Net back
B) Fee percentage
C) Fee charged by the collection agency
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Banking by mail is never done now that the use of the Internet is so prevalent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When should checks from patients and other sources be deposited?
A) At the same time bills are paid
B) As soon as possible after they are received
C) When the bank statement is reconciled each month
D) At the end of every week
Q3) The person who writes the check is called the drawee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called
A) disbursement.
B) reconciliation.
C) principal.
D) holder.
Q5) A patient writes a check for $78 on an account with a balance of $285. What is the total due after the check is posted?
Page 20
Q6) A person who writes a check is sometimes called the __________.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following employee behaviors is grounds for immediate dismissal without warning?
A) Embezzlement
B) Insubordination
C) Violation of patient confidentiality
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a traditional probationary period for a new employee?
A) 30 to 45 days
B) 60 to 90 days
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
Q3) All staff members should be encouraged to participate in professional organizations and complete continuing education units.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All ____________ should be carefully checked before a new employee is hired.
Q5) Before advertising for a new employee, the office manager should be sure to review the job _____________, so that a fair interview and evaluation can be conducted.
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Q6) A remark that is said to be ___________ is completely obvious or obtrusive.
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the Coordinated Care PCMH Domain with the appropriate descriptors. (Select all that apply.)
A) Partnering with patients and families
B) Sharing quality data and improvement activities
C) Efficient care transitions
D) Oriented towards the whole person
E) Team-based approach
F) Clinical decision-support tools
G) Across all elements of the health care system
Q2) The four Ps do not include
A) product.
B) practicality.
C) placement.
D) price.
Q3) Creating or changing attitudes, beliefs, and perceptions by influencing people with purchased broadcast time, print space, or other forms of written and visual media is called _____________.
Q4) _____________ boxes are a great way to get patient and employee input.
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Q5) The medical assistant must be careful not to __________ photographs and graphics on a website.
Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Q1) As a medical assistant, it is important that you understand the inflammatory response. Describe the step-by-step process that occurs with an inflammatory reaction.
Q2) __________ are surface bacteria introduced by contaminated objects or by exposure to microorganisms; they can be destroyed if managed properly.
Q3) What should not be done when sanitizing an instrument?
A) Wear latex gloves when cleaning sharp instruments.
B) Use a separate work area to avoid cross-contamination.
C) Prevent coagulation of blood on instruments.
D) Separate sharp and blunt instruments.
Q4) An antiseptic is an agent that can be used on the skin to inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a medical assistant performs medical aseptic hand washing or hand sanitization routinely, he or she does not have to wear disposable gloves when sanitizing contaminated surfaces.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sally Tipoke, age 17, is scheduled for her first Pap test today. She appears anxious and scared. Choose the medical assistant's most appropriate statement.
A) "There's no need to worry about the test. Dr. Smith never hurts anyone."
B) "You look worried about the exam. Can I answer any questions?"
C) "If you just think about something positive, it will be over before you know it."
D) "Dr. Smith expects you to stay still during the exam."
Q2) Value systems are learned beliefs and behaviors that can affect therapeutic relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient's lifestyle factors would be included in the family history section of the medical history.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an open-ended question or statement?
A) "How old are you?"
B) "Do you smoke?"
C) "What brings you to the office today?"
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Q1) To accept the severity of a disease, the patient first must understand the potential complications of the disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The holistic model suggests that patient education should consider all aspects of the patient's life, including the person's __________, emotional, social, economic, and spiritual needs.
Q3) Nonverbal communication is important when interacting with patients who have a language barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the first requirement in developing a teaching plan that works for a particular individual?
A) Overview of similar teaching outcomes
B) Assessment
C) Summary of anticipated outcomes
D) Determine barriers
Q5) What factors should be considered in a holistic approach to patient education for Mr. Ignatio?
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Q1) Low-fiber diets are recommended for patients with diverticulitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The result of fat metabolism for energy is the production of
A) glucose molecules.
B) ketone bodies.
C) amino acids.
D) glycogen for storage.
Q3) Mercury is a very serious environmental contaminant that is most dangerous for aging adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following dairy servings is equal to 1 cup of milk?
A) 1/2 cup of yogurt
B) 2 ounces of natural cheese
C) 2 ounces of processed cheese
D) 1 egg
Q5) Whole-wheat pasta with spinach is an example of a meal that combines
Q6) __________ molecules combine with proteins and are carried through the bloodstream as high- or low-density lipoproteins.
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) Gil's mother calls to make an appointment for her son. She reports that he has had an elevated temperature for 24 hours, ranging from 99° to 102.8° F. Mrs. Harris is describing which type of fever?
A) Constant
B) Remittent
C) Intermittent
D) Continuous
Q2) A pulse rate over 100 beats per minute is identified as __________.
Q3) A newborn with periods of __________ actually stops breathing momentarily.
Q4) Dr. Xu is concerned that an elderly patient may be experiencing orthostatic hypotension. How would you check this patient's BP?
A) Instruct the patient to lie flat on her back while you take the BP.
B) Have the patient sit up on the side of the bed for 5 minutes before recording the BP.
C) With the cuff in place, take the BP with the patient lying down and then immediately after she stands.
D) Take the BP bilaterally 2 minutes apart.
Q5) The thickening, decreased elasticity, and calcification of arterial walls is called
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) A percussion hammer is used for which part of the physical examination?
A) Neurologic
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Urinary
D) Respiratory
Q2) Dr. Kosto is very serious about enforcing HIPAA guidelines for patient confidentiality. According to what you learned in this chapter, explain three applications of HIPAA that you would expect to see in a physician's office.
Q3) For administration of a rectal suppository, the patient would be placed in the __________ position.
Q4) Which of the following positions is sometimes referred to as the "lateral position" and used for rectal examinations?
A) Sims' position
B) Lithotomy position
C) Prone position
D) Trendelenburg's position
Q5) Part of Felicia's responsibilities is to make sure the examination rooms in the office are prepared for the day. Describe four of her responsibilities in preparing these rooms.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs when a patient has a reduced responsiveness to one drug and becomes resistant to other, similar drugs?
A) Acquired tolerance
B) Cross tolerance
C) Physical dependence
D) All of the above
Q2) Cefaclor is the generic name for the antibiotic Zithromax.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The government agency that is responsible for drug abuse prevention and enforcement is which of the following?
A) DEA
B) FTC
C) FDA
D) OTC
Q4) Statins are classified as antitussives.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) __________ is used for the treatment of allergic reactions.
Q6) __________ medications are used to delay or block blood clot formation.
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Q1) The physician prescribes 500 mg of Keflex. The available dose is 1 g/tab. How many tablets should the patient receive.
A) 2 tabs
B) 1.5 tabs
C) 1/2 tab
D) 1.25 tabs
Q2) The most frequently used method for calculating pediatric doses relies on which of the following factors?
A) Differences in absorption
B) Differences in drug metabolism
C) Age
D) Weight in kg
E) All of the above
Q3) Decimal numbers can be converted to percentages by?
A) Dividing the number by 100
B) Moving the decimal point two spaces to the right
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Q4) The fraction 3/4 is an example of a(n) __________ fraction.
Q5) The __________ is the bottom number of a fraction.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) If the medical assistant finds a container of medication without a label, the appropriate action is to discard the medication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a medication error?
A) Giving an unordered medication
B) Giving the wrong drug to a patient
C) Failing to give a drug at the prescribed time
D) Failing to give a drug when you know it is contraindicated
Q3) If you accidentally aspirate blood into the syringe when administering an IM injection, you should quickly administer the medication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During an insulin injection, the medical assistant must remember to aspirate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, the injection is administered into the __________ muscle.
Q6) In an infant, the safest site for an intramuscular injection is the __________.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4224
Sample Questions
Q1) What would the physician order if a patient is in insulin shock?
A) Insulin
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Glucose
D) Normal saline
E) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q2) Which of the following should be done immediately when administering first aid to a patient with a partial-thickness chemical burn?
A) Apply a burn ointment.
B) Break the blisters.
C) Cover the burn with dry gauze.
D) Flood the affected area with water.
E) Give pain medication.
Q3) If the facility must be evacuated, all staff members and patients should leave immediately without worrying about combustible supplies such as oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List at least four questions that should be asked if a patient calls about a possible poisoning.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) Match the myopia eye disorder with the appropriate description, when it occurs, and the correction. (Select all that apply.)
A) Cornea or lens is shaped like a football
B) Can be corrected with refractive surgery or a convex corrective lens
C) Occurs when light rays entering the eye focus in front of the retina
D) Occurs when the eyeball is too short from the anterior to the posterior wall
E) Can be corrected with glasses, contacts, or surgery
F) Occurs when light enters the eye and focuses behind the retina
G) Eyeball is elongated from the anterior to the posterior wall
H) Occurs when the light rays entering the eye are focused irregularly
Q2) A patient with photophobia is afraid to leave home.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical term for the earwax formed by glands lining the external auditory canal is
A) serumen.
B) cerumen.
C) ceruman.
D) cerumane.
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Q4) In ______________, heat is used to reshape the cornea in patients over age 40.
Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When interpreting a skin test, the presence of pseudopods may be read as a A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
Q2) All of the following statements are true about herpes zoster except it A) can be prevented in adults over age 60 with Zostavax. B) can cause chronic pain.
C) appears as a vesicular, erythemic, pruritic, papular rash.
D) affects bilateral nerve dermatomes.
Q3) Streptococcal impetigo, if left untreated, may result in glomerulonephritis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Repeated episodes of herpes simplex occur because the bacteria is able to lie dormant in a nearby nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
Q6) Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) Cirrhosis of the liver may be caused by excessive fat deposits in liver tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diverticulitis, pancreatitis, and pyloric stenosis are disorders of which body system?
A) Respiratory system
B) Reproductive system
C) Urinary system
D) Digestive system
Q3) Hepatitis carriers can be asymptomatic but infectious.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Signs and symptoms of which of the following diseases include loose, semi-formed stool; melena if the ulcers break through blood vessels; pain or tenderness in the right lower quadrant; anorexia; weight loss; anemia; and fatigue?
A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Crohn's disease
C) Appendicitis
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
Q5) Any disorder or enlargement of the lymph nodes is called __________.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) Azotemia occurs when nitrogen wastes build up in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q2) UTIs frequently are caused by Escherichia coli from the anal region.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An elevated PSA test result confirms the presence of cancer of the prostate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lasix can be used to help control urinary incontinence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Testicular tumors generally are benign.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following refers to the passage of urine from the body?
A) Micturition
B) Urination
C) Voiding
D) All of the above
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment for candidiasis is either OTC antifungal medications or Diflucan.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are idiopathic benign tumors composed mainly of smooth muscle and some fibrous connective tissue?
A) Fibromyomas
B) Leiomyomas
C) Myomas
D) All of the above
Q3) Which type of examination usually involves taking pelvic measurements?
A) New patient visit
B) Diagnosis of PID
C) Initial prenatal visit
D) Consultation regarding contraception
Q4) Teratogens are substances that cause severe fetal deformities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The fertilized egg is called a zygote.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children who are allergic to eggs cannot be vaccinated against chickenpox.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During which phase of growth does a child gain almost half of his or her adult weight, and the skeleton and organs double in size?
A) Toddler phase
B) Preschool phase (3 to 6 years)
C) School-age period (6 to 12 years)
D) Adolescent period (12 to 18 years)
Q3) Which of the following theories discusses the preoperational stage that is characterized by language development?
A) Jean Piaget's developmental theory
B) Lawrence Kohlberg's theory
C) Psychosocial approach of Erik Erikson
D) Sigmund Freud's theory about human behavior
Q4) One way to stop the harsh cough of croup is to take the toddler into an area with cool air.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to diagnose carpel tunnel syndrome?
A) Tinel test
B) Phalen test
C) Electrodiagnostic test
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) All of the following are true about fibromyalgia except it
A) occurs more frequently in men than in women.
B) is associated with sleep disorders.
C) frequently is seen in patients with lupus.
D) causes chronic pain and fatigue.
Q3) Which of the following is the most common symptom of all bone fractures?
A) Pain
B) Swelling
C) Inability to move
D) Misalignment of the bone
E) All of the above
Q4) Ultrasonography is a useful modality for patients with bone pain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xanax is commonly prescribed for patients with mild to moderate depression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients with a grand mal seizure disorder may experience a(n) __________ that warns them of an impending seizure.
Q3) Which statement is not true of ALS?
A) It is a progressive neurologic disease that results in muscle atrophy.
B) Death usually occurs because of respiratory failure.
C) It occurs most frequently in women in their 30s.
D) The cause is unknown.
Q4) Stimuli are carried to the brain from the periphery along the efferent neurologic tract.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following systems promotes responses geared toward protecting the individual ("fight or flight")?
A) Autonomic nervous system
B) Sympathetic system
C) Parasympathetic system
D) Central nervous system
40
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The islets of which endocrine gland regulate the blood glucose levels?
A) Parathyroid
B) Thyroid
C) Pineal
D) Pancreas
Q2) Gestational diabetes can be extremely dangerous for both mother and infant. Because of this, what is recommended for all pregnant women?
A) They should start taking Glucophage in the third trimester.
B) They should limit weight gain to 25 pounds during the pregnancy.
C) All pregnant women should be screened for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.
D) Both A and C are recommended.
Q3) __________ results in fruity-smelling breath.
Q4) Symlin is an injectable drug that may be prescribed to patients with diabetes type 2 to prevent a rapid increase in blood glucose levels after eating.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is required for ovulation to occur.
Q6) Hypersecretion of GH in adulthood is called __________.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emphysema patients find it very difficult to exhale inspired air, which contributes to alveolar damage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carly Appleton, a 16-year-old patient with asthma, needs instruction on performing peak flow readings at home. She has never used a peak flow meter and doesn't understand why the doctor wants her to treat asthma symptoms based on meter readings. Explain the purpose of the meter and the steps for its use.
Q3) A blood test to help diagnose tuberculosis is
A) WBC count.
B) WBC with diff.
C) QuantiFERON-TB Gold test.
D) Mantoux.
E) PPD.
Q4) Patients with emphysema do best on a high-calorie diet, to compensate for the extra effort needed just to breathe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical term for runny nose is __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood to the heart is called the A) vena cava.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) carotid artery.
D) renal artery.
Q2) Mevacor is an anticholesterol medication used to help prevent an MI.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood vessels branching from the aorta to carry oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle are called
A) venae cavae.
B) coronary arteries.
C) carotid arteries.
D) renal arteries.
Q4) +Lifestyle changes recommended for patients who have had an MI include A) controlling hypertension.
B) eating a low-fat, restricted-sodium diet.
C) exercising five days a week.
D) All of the above
Q5) Contraction of the atria and ventricles is called __________.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may be the result of A) lack of exercise.
B) poor diet.
C) stress.
D) All of the above
Q2) The family of an aging patient in the practice contacts you about the need for home-based help for their mother. Summarize the services available in the area to help aging individuals remain in their homes.
Q3) Which of the following is the age-related loss of close vision?
A) Presbycusis
B) Cataracts
C) Presbyopia
D) Glaucoma
Q4) Which of the following is caused by increasing pressure inside the eye?
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Macular degeneration
Q5) List five suggestions the medical assistant can make to help prevent falls at home.
Q6) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transverse plane leads on a standard ECG include which of the following?
A) Lead I
B) Lead II
C) Lead III
D) Leads V1 to V6
E) VR, VL, and VF
Q2) The right leg is used to ground the recording of the augmented leads.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the placement of each precordial lead.
Q4) To check the standardization of the ECG machine, the medical assistant depresses the standardization button. The stylus should deflect how many millimeters?
A) 20
B) 5
C) 15
D) 10
Q5) A cardiac __________ is a diagnostic procedure performed to evaluate the patient's myocardial response to measured exercise.
Q6) What information should be documented on the ECG strip?
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) PET scans frequently are used to assess the spread of cancerous tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a frontal projection, the coronal plane of the body or body part is parallel to the film plane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _____________ is a fluoroscopic examination of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum, involving oral administration of barium sulfate as a contrast medium.
A) CT scan
B) MRI
C) lower GI scan
D) upper GI scan
Q4) Which of the following fluoroscopic examinations would have the patient swallow a barium sulfate suspension?
A) Upper gastrointestinal series
B) Lower gastrointestinal series
C) Intravenous urogram
D) Arthrogram
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of specimen must be chilled if testing will not be performed immediately?
A) Blood
B) Urine
C) Semen
D) All of the above
Q2) The act passed by Congress to establish quality standards for all laboratory testing is referred to as
A) FDA.
B) CDC.
C) CLIA.
D) MSDS.
Q3) A centrifuge load always contains an even number of tubes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medical assistant is trained to perform CLIA-waived tests in the ambulatory laboratory setting. Based on your understanding of these tests, summarize at least five of them, along with their functions.
Q5) Describe the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).
Q6) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the last portion of the nephron that the filtrate travels through?
A) Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Loop of Henle
C) Collecting duct
D) Distal convoluted tubule
Q2) A 24-hour urine sample is ordered to determine which of the following?
A) Ketone levels
B) Creatinine clearance rates
C) Proteinuria
D) Anuria
Q3) A turbid urine sample means that the specimen is
A) contaminated.
B) high in ketones.
C) high in glucose.
D) cloudy.
Q4) The most accurate method of testing urine in patients with diabetes requires a second-voided specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are performing a capillary puncture on a patient and are having difficulty collecting an adequate sample. Which of the following is an accepted method to encourage blood flow from the site?
A) Squeeze the finger.
B) Wrap the finger in a cool towel.
C) Make a second puncture mark close to the first.
D) Gently rub the finger along the sides.
Q2) If a patient has had a mastectomy on the left side, you should never draw blood on that side.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the major cause of specimen rejection?
A) Insufficient quantity
B) Incorrect tube used for the test ordered
C) Hemolysis
D) Improper handling
E) Defective tube
Q4) Needles used during venipuncture may be used only once.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following makes up approximately 55% of blood by volume?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Leukocytes
C) Thrombocytes
D) Plasma
Q2) A low microhematocrit is seen in patients with ___________.
Q3) If the Vacutainer is not completely filled with blood, a false ESR reading may result.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which component of the complete blood count is not necessary to calculate the red cell indices?
A) Differential
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Erythrocyte count
Q5) List five studies included in a CBC.
Q6) ____________ cells, the most numerous types of agranular leukocytes, stimulate the activity of other T lymphocytes.
Q7) A(n) ____________ is used to separate blood parts from plasma.
50
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Legionnaires' disease is caused by a gram-positive bacillus that causes a particular type of pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A urinary tract infection can be diagnosed if an organism isolated from a CCMS specimen is found in pure culture and is present in a quantity greater than ________ per milliliter of urine.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 10,000
D) 100,000
Q3) Antimicrobial agents used to treat a broad range of infections are classified as ______________________.
Q4) The physician would order a stool culture to confirm staphylococcal food poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a urine culture is performed, suspicious colonies are subcultured onto an appropriate medium to isolate them in a(n) _____________.
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) These instruments have valves that can be spread to facilitate viewing.
A) Splinter forceps
B) Bayonet forceps
C) Nasal specula
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following are the strongest nonabsorbable sutures?
A) Dacron and Prolene
B) Dexon and Maxon
C) Silk
D) Vicryl
E) Both A and B
Q3) Surgical instruments generally are classified according to use. Which is not a classification for instruments?
A) Cutting
B) Grasping
C) Restabilizing
D) Probing and dilating
Q4) ____________, which resemble gears, have three or more positions and are located just below the ring handle of an instrument so that the instrument can be locked in a particular position.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In __________, a high-frequency current is used to cut through tissue and seal blood vessels.
Q2) The invasion of body tissue by pathogens, which proliferate and damage tissues is _______________________.
A) Contamination
B) Infection
C) Spores
D) Germicides
Q3) In which phase of wound healing is fibrin most involved?
A) First phase
B) Second phase
C) Third phase
D) All phases
Q4) Infection can cause death in some circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life.
Q6) Suppuration can cause problems with wound healing.
A)True
B)False Page 53
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) When developing a portfolio, which of the following can provide "evidence" of specific abilities and skills?
A) Reference documents
B) Certifications
C) Education-related documents
D) Prior employment documents
E) Examples of work or a summary of projects
Q2) Something that is intolerable is bearable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Never speak __________ about former employers.
Q4) The cover letter
A) is always optional.
B) should only be sent when an interview has been arranged.
C) should always be sent along with a résumé.
D) should be approximately two pages long.
Q5) A new employee may arrive late to work as long as it happens no more than twice a month.
A)True
B)False
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