Medical Assisting Textbook
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Assisting is a dynamic course that prepares students for essential roles within healthcare teams by equipping them with comprehensive clinical and administrative skills. The curriculum covers topics such as medical terminology, anatomy and physiology, patient care procedures, medical office management, basic laboratory techniques, and communication with healthcare professionals and patients. Students gain hands-on experience performing tasks like taking vital signs, administering medications, assisting with examinations, and maintaining patient records. Emphasizing both ethical standards and professionalism, this course lays a solid foundation for those pursuing entry-level positions in medical offices, clinics, and other healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Q1) Mrs.L.came into the office for her stitches to be removed by the medical assistant as scheduled.Mrs.L.said she had a fever and would need to see the physician.What is the primary personal attribute you need to deal with this situation?
A)Flexibility
B)Dependability
C)Initiative
D)Effective communication
Answer: A
Q2) Certification
A) voluntary
B) mandatory
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following does regulation NOT ensure?
A)Competence of health care providers
B)Minimum standard of skill
C)Limiting of performance of certain procedures to a specific occupation
D)Minimal standard of empathy and initiative
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Q1) treats disorders of the urinary tract
A)emergency medicine
B)internal medicine
C)urology
D)otolaryngology
E)pediatrics
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following best describes the form of medical practice management in which the provider's personal property is attached and may be sold if the business fails?
A)CHAPTER S corporation
B)Limited partnership
C)Professional service corporation
D)Sole proprietorship
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is an eye specialist?
A)Ophthalmologist
B)Orthopedist
C)Otolaryngologist
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Q1) Become proficient in all back office clinical skills during the first year of employment.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of short-duration stress?
A)Accomplishing tasks within maximum time limits
B)Helping to focus on details
C)Helping to achieve difficult goals
D)Assisting to perform at best levels
Answer: A
Q3) What can help prevent stress and panic associated with too much work?
A)Antidepressants
B)Planning and prioritization
C)Procrastination
D)Bright colors in the workplace
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Q1) Which of the following is the person who decodes the message?
A)Sender
B)Message
C)Receiver
D)Messenger
Q2) What is a good way to show respect for a shy and quiet patient?
A)By offering constant feedback
B)Speaking for them
C)Discounting their anxiety
D)Occasional silence or pauses
Q3) Which of the following best describes the interview technique used when asking the patient, "What type of care will you have during your recovery? "
A)Close-ended question
B)Open-ended question
C)Direct statement
D)Indirect statement
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Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness
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Q1) In the acronym TEAR, the "T" stands for which of the following?
A)To experience the pain of the loss
B)To adjust to what was lost
C)To accept the reality of the loss
D)To reinvest in a new reality
Q2) To which of the following categories of patients does the Patient Self-Determination Act pertain?
A)Patients in nursing homes
B)Patients at personal homes
C)Patients receiving care from Medicare/Medicaid institutions
D)Patients receiving only hospice care
Q3) Which of the following is the main reason for discussing patient's needs with the patient?
A)To give the patient power in dealing with the illness
B)To provide the patient all the services he wants
C)To make sure all referrals are made
D)To give the family a patient "to do" list
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four Ds of negligence?
A)Deposition
B)Derelict
C)Damage
D)Duty
Q2) Which of the following best describes the legal violation if a medical assistant sends a patient's medical records to an insurance company without the patient's signature to release the information?
A)Standard of care
B)Confidentiality
C)Public duty
D)Informed consent
Q3) Which of the following best describes the outcome if an informed consent form was not secured as necessary before surgery was performed?
A)Medical assistant will be fired
B)Provider will be fired
C)May lead to litigation
D)Injury to the patient
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Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Q1) Which of the following statements applies to a medical assistant's knowledge of information in a patient's life acquired in the course of employment?
A)It should be the topic of office discussions.
B)It is considered confidential information.
C)It should be discussed with the medical assistant's family.
D)It should be divulged only to the patient's immediate family members.
Q2) Which of the following refers to a physician's directive that specifies an individual's end-of-life wishes?
A)Euthanasia
B)Advance directive
C)Brain death
D)Hospice
Q3) The process by which the ovum is fertilized in a culture dish, allowed to grow, and then implanted into the uterus is known as which of the following?
A)Surrogacy
B)In vitro fertilization
C)In vitro insemination
D)Ovulation
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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Q1) A few of the common signs and symptoms of a snake bite include which of the following?
A)Thirst and diarrhea
B)Rapid pulse, nausea, and vomiting
C)Weak pulse, nausea, and vomiting
D)Thirst and dehydration
Q2) In the medical office a cardiac patient, accompanied by his wife, complains to you of chest pain.In assessing the patient, what would you do first?
A)Tell the patient to stay calm.
B)Obtain information about the symptoms being experienced.
C)Immediately take the patient to the provider.
D)Bring the patient and his wife back to the provider.
Q3) Which of the following statements is false regarding burns?
A)First-degree burns usually heal within a month, and some scarring may occur.
B)A second-degree burn involves the epidermis and dermis.
C)Blisters form with second-degree burns.
D)Third-degree burns affect or destroy all layers of the skin.
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Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the number of employees necessary in order to require a business to be in compliance with the ADA?
A)2
B)5
C)15
D)50
Q2) Which of the following, regarding the medical facility, most often contributes as much to a patient's well-being as does the medical attention given by the providers?
A)Location
B)Size
C)Accessibility
D)Environment
Q3) Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of having fresh flowers in the medical facility?
A)They need to be replaced frequently.
B)The odor might be unpleasant.
C)They may affect patient's allergies.
D)They can easily be knocked over.
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11
Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Q1) Which of the following networks transmits data that are broken into packets and are reassembled when they reach the final destination?
A)Internet
B)LAN (Local Area Network)
C)WAN (Wide Area Network)
D)Operating system
Q2) Which of the following best describes the most widely used type of computer in today's health care facility?
A)Supercomputer
B)Mainframe
C)Microcomputer
D)Minicomputer
Q3) keyboard
A) data input device
B) data output device
C) data storage device
Q4) standard telephone modem (dial-up)
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
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Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a system that answers the call and provides the caller with a choice of departments or services that can be accessed by pressing a specified number on the touch-tone telephone?
A)Facsimile machine
B)Automated routing unit
C)Electronic mail
D)Answering service
Q2) You start an incoming call by asking the caller some questions in order to screen calls.Why is this important?
A)To be sure the caller talks to the person who will be most helpful
B)To elicit information and give you time to think
C)To give you time to signal the office manager for help
D)To get out your protocol book to help the person
Q3) Which of the following is a way by which first impressions are conveyed?
A)Body posture
B)Body language
C)Facial expressions
D)All of the above
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a requirement of screening?
A)Ask appropriate questions.
B)Determine whether it is a life-threatening matter.
C)Obtain information to help determine urgency.
D)Send all patients to the emergency room.
Q2) When screening phone calls, what question would NOT be considered appropriate to determine the urgency of the situation?
A)Is the patient in immediate need of medical assistance?
B)How far are you from the facility?
C)Is there any bleeding?
D)Are there chest pains?
Q3) Which of the following scheduling systems schedules 2 or 3 patients at the beginning of each hour followed by single appointments every 10-20 minutes
A)Double booking
B)Modified wave
C)Open hours
D)Stream
E)Clustering
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14
Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the tab-alpha system?
A)Lateral moveable files
B)Combination of 13 colors
C)Full-cut folders and a color-coded label
D)Ten colors and 1/3-cut folders
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT best describe the importance of accurate medical records?
A)They are essential to patient care.
B)They assist in controlling the costs of medical care.
C)They may be released without a patient's knowledge.
D)They are needed to provide referrals.
E)They maintain a conscientious record of patient care.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of electronic medical records?
A)Multiple users are possible.
B)Office storage is not required.
C)On-site assistance may be required.
D)Patterns and data are more easily accessed.
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Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many misspelled words are in the letter?
A)None
B)One
C)Two
D)Three
Q2) ¶
A) align type horizontally
B) center
C) move left
D) insert
E) insert space
F) paragraph indent
Q3) Which of the following procedures is NOT followed after the mail is opened?
A)Stamp to indicate date received.
B)Attach the envelope to the letter.
C)Give the envelope with contents in it to the physician.
D)If the address is not included on the letter, write it on.
Q4) anurysm
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Q1) When one provider requests the services of another provider in the care and treatment of a patient, what type of report is generated?
A)Operative report
B)Consultation report
C)Examination report
D)Referral report
Q2) Important things to consider before outsourcing transcription include?
A)Be sure the office and the service use compatible hardware and software
B)Be cost conscious
C)Have a user-friendly method of tracking documents
D)All of the above
Q3) Turnaround times for hospital reports fall into three categories.Which one is NOT a category?
A)ASAP
B)STAT
C)Aged
D)Current
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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Q1) Which of the following best describes insurance policies that provide coverage on a fee-for-service basis?
A)Traditional
B)Group
C)Managed care
D)Indemnity
Q2) Which of the following traditional types of insurance coverage covers specific dollar amounts for provider's fees, hospital care, and surgery?
A)Major medical
B)Individual
C)Group
D)Basic
E)Indemnity
Q3) annual deductible
A) managed care
B) traditional
Q4) usually can go outside provider network
A) managed care
B) traditional
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Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Q1) On completion of the processing of the claim, the insurance company sends what to the insured person?
A)POS
B)Claim remittance
C)EOB
D)1490 form
Q2) Separating the components of a procedure and reporting them as billable codes with charges in order to increase reimbursement rates is known as what?
A)Upcoding
B)Unbundling
C)Bundling
D)Downcoding
Q3) The new CMS-1500 form is distinguishable from the old form in that the 1500 symbol and date are located where?
A)Top right margin
B)Bottom right margin
C)Bottom left margin
D)Top left margin
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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Q1) Which of the following is the type of endorsement that should be used in a clinic?
A)Blank
B)Limited
C)Full
D)Restrictive
E)Open
Q2) When is the recommended time for deposits?
A)Twice a week
B)Once a week
C)Daily
D)Monthly
Q3) Which of the following is a primary advantage to accepting credit cards?
A)No fees are paid.
B)Confidentiality is not a problem.
C)Money is not a problem.
D)Money is available within 24 hours or so.
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Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Collection calls to patients with overdue accounts are more likely to be answered during what time frame?
A)5:00-8:00 a.m.
B)5:00-8:00 p.m.
C)12:00-1:00 p.m.
D)8:00-10:00 a.m.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a service offered by collection agencies?
A)Provide intercept letters.
B)Provide credit ratings to providers' offices.
C)Trace patient accounts who are "skips."
D)Obtain funds from bankruptcy accounts.
Q3) Match the appropriate description with the federal regulation. Truth in Lending Act
A) legal guidelines governing telephone collections
B) shows installment payments and interest agreements
C) bankruptcy laws
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21
Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Q1) laboratory procedures
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
Q2) Which bond covers all employees and is most beneficial?
A)Position-scheduled bond
B)Blanket-position bond
C)Family-practice bond
D)Personal bond
Q3) Which of the following is an unwritten promise to pay for credit purchases or services?
A)Debt collection
B)Cost ratio
C)Accounts payable
D)Cost accounting
Q4) property taxes
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
Q5) depreciation
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
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Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Q1) In any of the acute viral hepatitis diseases, which organ is affected?
A)Heart
B)Liver
C)Gallbladder
D)Kidney
Q2) touching
A) blood-borne
B) inhalation
C) ingestion
D) direct contact
E) vector
Q3) According to the CDC, standard precautions should be practiced at all times.These practices apply to which of the following?
A)Body fluids
B)Blood
C)Non-intact skin
D)All the above
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Q1) Which is considered the patient's chief concern?
A)Disease
B)Illness
C)Treatment
D)Medication
Q2) Which of the following components of the review of systems would include change in speech?
A)Neurological
B)Cardiovascular
C)Musculoskeletal
D)Gastrointestinal
E)Respiratory
Q3) Which of the following components of the review of systems would include shortness of breath?
A)Nervous
B)Cardiovascular
C)Musculoskeletal
D)Gastrointestinal
E)Respiratory
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Q1) Which of the following is the most important action when obtaining an aural temperature using a tympanic thermometer?
A)Do not cover the thermometer.
B)Pull the earlobe outward and down.
C)Place the probe in the canal to seal the area.
D)Do not pull the earlobe back at all, leave it as it is.
Q2) What could cause a temporal temperature to be inaccurate?
A)Eating or drinking
B)Exercise
C)Perspiration
D)Cerumen
Q3) Which of the following phases of Korotkoff's sounds is noted when the cuff deflates and the sounds are muffled and fading.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
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25
Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Q1) used for genital examinations and urinary catheterizations
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
Q2) used primarily for proctologic and sigmoid examinations and procedures
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
Q3) Which of the following positions requires the patient to kneel on the examination table with buttocks elevated?
A)Sims'
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Supine
D)Proctologic
E)Prone
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT detected in a wet mount?
A)Yeast
B)Clue cells
C)Chlamydia
D)Trichomonas
Q2) Which of the following is the type of abortion in which there is evacuation of the fetus and placenta from the uterus at the mother's request?
A)Spontaneous
B)Complete
C)Threatened
D)Induced
E)Missed
Q3) When does gestational diabetes usually appear?
A)Before a woman is pregnant
B)In the first trimester
C)In the second trimester
D)In the third trimester
E)Both c and d
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27
Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Q1) How will you position Carol to take her apical pulse?
A)Sitting upright on the exam table
B)Sitting prone on the exam table
C)Sitting prone on her parent's lap
D)Sitting on her parent's lap
Q2) Which of the following is the appropriate area for measuring the head circumference?
A)From the occipital protuberance to the first spinal prominence
B)From the mid-forehead to the back of head
C)From the occipital protuberance to the supraorbital prominence
D)From the supraorbital prominence to the forehead
Q3) What is the appropriate needle gauge used when administering pediatric immunizations?
A)18-20 gauge
B)20-21 gauge
C)21-22 gauge
D)22-25 gauge
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28
Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is a method of diagnosing testicular cancer after palpating the testicle and finding a mass?
A)Digital rectal examination
B)Colonoscopy
C)Ultrasound
D)Biopsy
Q2) Which of the following is a common procedure of removing a portion of the vas deferens to cause the male to be sterile?
A)Vasectomy
B)Ureterostomy
C)Rectopexy
D)Prostatotomy
Q3) Which of the following is caused by a spirochete?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Genital herpes
D)Chlamydia
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29
Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a major problem of aging in the gastrointestinal system?
A)Malnourishment
B)Poor eating habits
C)Peristalsis increases
D)Slowed metabolism
Q2) hostile
A) psychological
B) physical
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an effective method of caring for the elderly?
A)Allow for private conversation.
B)Speak slowly as with children.
C)Empathize and listen.
D)Write instructions.
Q4) What is the meaning of "urinary incontinence"?
A)Wetting the bed
B)Inability to control urination
C)Frequent urination
D)Dribbling and burning on urination
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about the sensory system?
A)Permits the body to detect environmental information
B)Contains specialized receptor organs
C)Includes eyes, ears, nose, and taste buds
D)All of the above
Q2) myopia
A) nearsightedness
B) bacterial infection
C) lens loses transparency
D) irregular lens curvature
Q3) A BMI greater than what indicates obesity?
A)20
B)30
C)40
D)50
Q4) Which type of cast extends from the fingers to the axilla?
A)SAC
B)LAC
C)LLC
D)SLC
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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following instruments is inserted into narrowed or constricted ducts and tubes for the purpose of gradually enlarging the opening?
A)Forceps
B)Scalpel
C)Dilator
D)Clamp
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when applying a sterile adhesive skin closure strip?
A)Do not clean the wound before removing the sutures.
B)Apply the first strip to the lower end of the incision.
C)Apply the first strip to the center of the incision.
D)Apply the first strip in a criss-cross manner over the incision.
Q3) If a sterile field that is not poly-lined gets wet, it is still considered sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) used to keep the sterile covering underneath in place
A) dressing
B) bandage
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following is used to emit and receive sound waves when ultrasound is performed?
A)Oscilloscope
B)Transilluminator
C)Transducer
D)Radionuclide
Q2) A technique that allows radiologic procedures to be done without using regular x-ray film is known as what?
A)Computed radiography
B)Computer tomography
C)Magnetic reasoning
D)Ultrasound
Q3) Which of the following must be included in the post-procedure instructions you give to the patient after a barium enema?
A)Take a laxative.
B)Report if no bowel movement occurs within 24 hours.
C)Be careful of fiber for 3 days.
D)There are no special instructions.
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Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) The instrument used to measure joint motion is called?
A)ROM
B)Goniometry
C)Goniometer
D)Jointmeter
Q2) For what type of patient is the platform crutch used?
A)Cannot bear weight on hands
B)Has excessive arm strength
C)Needs them short term
D)Adaptability to stairs is not needed
E)Patients who request them
Q3) A physiological benefit from massage therapy is what?
A)Increased metabolism
B)Promotion of healing
C)Improving circulation
D)All of the above
Q4) aquamatic K-pad
A) heat
B) cold
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Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following do you tell Mrs.Martin to avoid in her dietary treatment of diabetes?
A)Vitamins
B)Minerals
C)Simple sugars
D)Amino acids
E)Polysaccharides
Q2) Which of the following may be caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12?
A)Pernicious anemia
B)Weight loss
C)Diarrhea
D)Nervousness
E)Headaches
Q3) The function of which of these nutrients is to build and repair tissues?
A)Minerals
B)Vitamins
C)Proteins
D)Carbohydrates
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Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant working with medications in the ambulatory care setting?
A)Know basic pharmacology.
B)Know the law regarding controlled substances.
C)Have knowledge of drug classifications.
D)Dispense medications.
E)Educate patients regarding medications.
Q2) How often are inventory forms required to be completed for Schedule II drugs and submitted to the federal agency?
A)Each year
B)Every 2 years
C)Every 3 years
D)Every 4 years
E)Upon request
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A)The generic name is the official name of the drug.
B)The brand name begins with a capital letter.
C)The chemical name indicates the molecular structure.
D)Each drug has only one name.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication
Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the recommended maximum volume of fluid introduced to the dorsogluteal site?
A)2 ml
B)3 ml
C)4 ml
D)5 ml
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action to remove the top of an ampule?
A)Flick it off with your index finger.
B)Use a small blade to etch a line at the neck of the ampule and break it off.
C)Use gauze and snap off in the gauze.
D)Unscrew the top.
Q3) Which of the following is the advantage of a Z-track injection?
A)Larger doses can be given.
B)Thicker medication can be given.
C)It prevents medication irritation of tissue.
D)It is less painful.
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Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes when the myocardial cells recovers electrically?
A)Repolarization
B)Negative deflection
C)Depolarization
D)Polarization
Q2) Which of the small devices sends a small dose of electricity to jar the heart back into a normal rhythm?
A)Pacemaker
B)ICD
C)CCT
D)CMR
E)ECG
Q3) Why are electrodes applied to the fleshy part of a limb?
A)To reduce AC interference
B)To correct wandering baseline
C)To prevent interrupted baseline
D)To minimize the artifacts
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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Q1) Which category of tests is simple, unvarying, and require a minimum of judgment and interpretation?
A)Low complexity
B)Waived
C)Moderate complexity
D)High complexity
Q2) lab meets CLIA regulations after inspection
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
Q3) labs who only perform waived tests
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) comprehensive metabolic panel, CBC with diff and TSH
A) arthritis
B) general health
C) lipid
D) obstetric
Q2) To further ensure that test results are accurate, what test must be done along with the patient sample?
A)Proficiency test
B)Daily check
C)Calibration
D)Control test
Q3) In TDM (Therapeutic Drug Monitoring), measuring the highest level of medication in the patient's blood is referred to as which of the following?
A)Trough
B)Peak
C)Diagnosis
D)HRT
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Q1) Which of the following best describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified?
A)Size of the tube
B)Tube stopper color
C)Test name on label
D)Laboratory use
Q2) When using the safer plastic vacuum tubes, which of the following is the correct order of draw?
A)Cultures, blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST
B)Blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST, cultures
C)Cultures, red top and/or SST, blue top (citrate)
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a quality assurance control?
A)Each specimen must have its own label attached to the specimen's primary container.
B)Specimen must be in correct anticoagulant.
C)Patient label must have complete information.
D)Specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached.
Q4) Pull gently with plunger.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a cellular component of the blood?
A)RBC
B)Plasma
C)WBC
D)Platelet
Q2) How can the WBC count be estimated when performing the microhematocrit test?
A)Cannot be estimated
B)Measured at the bottom of the tube
C)By measuring buffy coat thickness
D)By the amount of plasma and platelets
Q3) When placing the sealed tubes into the microhematocrit centrifuge, what must be done before closing the lid?
A)Place the tubes in slots next to each other.
B)Place the tubes opposite each other, balancing each other across the centrifuge.
C)Determine the average values.
D)Set the timer and adjust the speed.
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Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT included in the physical examination of urine?
A)Observing and recording color
B)Noting unusual urine odor
C)Noting excess glucose
D)Measuring specific gravity
Q2) Which of the following urine specimens is usually requested when quantitative tests are needed for different substances?
A)Random
B)Fasting timed
C)24-hour
D)Catheterized
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a major kidney function?
A)Secretion
B)Reabsorption
C)Diffusion
D)Filtration
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Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can a fungus infection be diagnosed?
A)Use a Woody lamp.
B)Use a Wood's lamp.
C)Use a Wooden lamp.
D)Use a Wood's lantern.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of a quality control program in microbiology?
A)Monitor all equipment with temperature controls daily.
B)Do not use media past the shelf life.
C)Update the laboratory manual daily.
D)Make the SDS available to reference.
Q3) Which of the following methods is used for maintaining an anaerobic condition?
A)Incubator
B)Gas pack jar
C)Petri dish
D)Safety hood
Q4) Which of the following best describes the use of a culturette tube?
A)Transporting stool samples
B)Keeping the swab moist
C)Transporting blood specimens
D)All the above
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicates borderline blood cholesterol levels?
A)150-199 mg/dl
B)200-239 mg/dl
C)225-250 mg/dl
D)250-300 mg/dl
Q2) What is the process of RBC agglutination called?
A)Antigen reaction
B)Antibody reaction
C)Hemagglutination
D)Blood typing
Q3) How is the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis primarily transmitted?
A)Saliva
B)Injection
C)Aspiration
D)Vector
Q4) antigen
A) found on the surface of red blood cells
B) hemagglutination
C) protein molecules that are found in serum
45
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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the most common time period for a new employee to be placed on probation?
A)7 days to 2 weeks
B)2 to 4 weeks
C)60 to 90 days
D)1 year
Q2) Social networking should NOT be used in which of the following ways?
A)To criticize the competition
B)To recruit new employees
C)To build community
D)To engage customers
Q3) making comparisons to different organizations to see how they accomplish tasks
A) benchmark
B) mentor
C) shadow
D) practicum/externship
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generation Y (also known as the Millennial generation) was born between the years of:
A)1954-1977
B)1977-1994
C)1995-2012
D)1966-1976
Q2) Demonstrate the use of any specialized equipment.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
Q3) What should one NOT look for when evaluating a candidate's résumé?
A)Education
B)Good "fit" for the job
C)Errors
D)Religious background
Q4) HIPAA compliance
A) policy manual
B) procedures manual
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Q1) Which of the following is the minimum number of years of work experience in the profession of medical assisting without formal training required for eligibility to sit for the Registered Medical Assistant examination?
A)2 years
B)3 years
C)5 years
D)7 years
Q2) Which of the following best describes a group of practicing medical assistants, providers, and medical assisting educators from across the United States who write items for the American Associations of Medical Assistants' certification examination?
A)Curriculum Review Board
B)Task Force for Test Construction
C)American Medical Association
D)Prometric Testing Center
Q3) After certification through AMT, certificants must reinstate how often?
A)Every 2 years
B)Every 3 years
C)Every 5 years
D)Every 6 years
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Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your self-assessment will require obtaining the opinions of all of the following except::
A)Peers
B)Instrctors
C)Friends
D)Parents
Q2) Which of the following best describes the advantage of completing a pre-job search self-evaluation worksheet?
A)Deciding whether to leave your present job
B)Concentrating on improving weaknesses
C)Seeing how your work is progressing
D)Looking at your strengths, weaknesses, and preferences
Q3) The chronological résuméis NOT advantageous when:
A)Your work history is spotty
B)You are changing career goals
C)You are looking for your first job
D)All of the above are correct
Q4) watched
A) power verb
B) not a power verb
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