Medical Assisting Test Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Assisting is a comprehensive course designed to prepare students for roles in various healthcare settings, including clinics, physician offices, and hospitals. The curriculum covers both clinical and administrative responsibilities, such as taking vital signs, assisting with examinations and procedures, administering medications, managing patient records, and handling front-office tasks like scheduling and billing. Emphasis is placed on effective communication, ethical practice, patient care techniques, and adherence to current healthcare regulations. The course blends theoretical instruction with hands-on training, preparing students for certification exams and entry-level employment in the fast-paced medical field.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant An Applied Learning Approach 11th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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Chapter 1: Becoming a Successful Student
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are facing a situation in which you must act assertively to solve a problem.Summarize below the steps you should use in delivering an assertive message. Answer: Choose a feeling word that describes how you feel about the situation; think about the specific situation that must be described; form an "I" sentence with the appropriate feeling word and specific description of the circumstances.Then, establish eye contact, raise one's voice slightly, if necessary, to get the individual's attention, and deliver the "I" sentence.
Q2) The constant practice of considering all aspects of a situation in deciding what to believe or what to do
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: G
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Chapter 2: The Healthcare Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Pasteur Institute began as a clinic for rabies treatment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A registered nurse who administers anesthetics to patients is called a nurse
Answer: anesthetist
A nurse anesthetist administers anesthetics; a nurse practitioner provides basic care services.
Q3) Antonia Novello was the former editor-in-chief of the New England Journal of Medicine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The first Hispanic to be named Surgeon General of the United States was __________.
Answer: Antonia Novello
Antonia Novello was the first Hispanic Surgeon General, as well as the first female to hold that position.
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Chapter 3: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Q1) Medical assisting attracts __________ students who may be older than the average postsecondary student by a decade or more.
Answer: nontraditional
The field of medical assisting attracts many nontraditional students.
Q2) Medical assistants cannot legally perform skills for which they have not been trained.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Patients are not concerned about the medical assistant's grooming and wardrobe.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Which quality in a medical assistant is most likely to promote positive relations in the medical office?
A)Businesslike behavior
B)Consistently high grades during medical assisting training
C)Attractiveness
D)Sincere interest in patients' welfare
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Q1) When the body needs or thinks it needs a drug to function normally, this is called:
A)addiction
B)abuse
C)misuse
D)dependence
Q2) The questionnaire used to diagnose issues associated with alcohol is called:
A)RAGE
B)PAGE
C)CAGE
D)GAGE
Q3) When educating the patient, the medical assistant should have a professional __________ of concern and helpfulness.
Q4) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A)tolorance
B)tolerance
Q5) The medical assistant should strive to have a work ethic that is above __________.
Q6) Great exaggerations and manipulations of the truth can affect employee
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Chapter 5: Interpersonal Skills and Human Behavior
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Q1) The stage in Maslow's hierarchy of needs in which we maximize our potential is:
A)self-actualization
B)esteem and recognition
C)love and belonging
D)safety and security
Q2) Cecelia is angry with her supervisor over a disciplinary write-up.During her counseling session, Cecelia complains that the supervisor never gets to work on time.What passive-aggressive type is Cecelia?
A)Subject changer
B)Distracter
C)Mind reader
D)Trapper
Q3) It is acceptable to tell a patient, "I know how you feel."
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a patient hesitates when speaking, he or she might:
A)be lying
B)have more to say
C)feel fear
D)all of the above
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Q1) A physician may be subject to civil or criminal __________ for violation of government laws.
Q2) Something that is __________ is oriented or directed toward social needs and problems.
Q3) The prime objective of the medical profession is to:
A)heal patients
B)render service to humanity
C)make money
D)all of the above
Q4) A physician committed to saving life and relieving suffering may sometimes find those two goals __________.
Q5) Requesting payment at the time services are rendered is unethical.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Filing a false or intentionally inaccurate report is punishable by:
A)loss of one's job
B)criminal charges
C)fines
D)all of the above
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Q7) Administering a lethal drug to a patient to promote death is called __________.
Chapter 7: Medicine and Law
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Q1) Public medical facilities must allow individuals with disabilities to easily and safely:
A)enter and exit buildings
B)use drinking fountains
C)move from floor to floor
D)all of the above
Q2) An infraction is a more serious crime than a misdemeanor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Something that has significant and demonstrable bearing on the matter at hand is:
A)relevant
B)frequent
C)recourse
D)stipulated
Q4) How many cases are heard by the Supreme Court each year?
A)10 to 28
B)80 to 90
C)240 to 300
D)500 or more
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Chapter 8: Computer Concepts
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Q1) The term for individuals who break into computers with dishonorable intent is
Q2) Which of the following is an example of computer software?
A)E-mail
B)Internal memory
C)Floppy diskette
D)Word 2007
Q3) The main circuit board for the computer to which other devices are attached is called the:
A)CPU
B)motherboard
C)expansion board
D)modem
Q4) Many printers in use today are __________ and can perform several different tasks.
Q5) A computer user cannot copy an entire disk.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) __________ is a device that connects several computers or networks.
Q7) The __________ allows a user to return to previously viewed Web sites.
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Chapter 9: Telephone Techniques
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Q1) Callers who refuse to __________ themselves should not be put through to the physician.
Q2) An insurance claim may be __________ if the physician is not a provider for that particular insurance company.
Q3) The medical assistant should never argue with a patient on the telephone or attempt to place blame on the patient's actions when a disagreement arises.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a patient's HIV test result is positive, the medical assistant can give the patient the result on the phone, because the patient is aware that the test was performed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The technical terminology or characteristic idiom of a particular group is called:
A)salutation
B)monotone
C)jargon
D)enunciation
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Chapter 10: Scheduling Appointments
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Q1) Jolee, who is 6 years old, has been complaining for several days that her throat hurts.She should be seen:
A)immediately
B)today
C)this week
D)this month
Q2) If a patient has been waiting longer than ________ minutes past his or her appointment time, the medical assistant should offer to reschedule the appointment.
A)5
B)15
C)20
D)30
Q3) __________ means relating to a combination of social and economic factors.
Q4) Well-planned scheduling allows the physician to spend more time with patients.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Approaching a situation with caution is using __________.
Q6) If a symptom is coming and going at intervals and is not continuous, it is said to be
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Patient Reception and Processing
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Q1) Obtaining a copy of each patient's driver's license ensures that the right person is receiving health benefits from the insurance company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Any toys placed in the waiting area should be washable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following do patients not expect to find in the reception area?
A)Good ventilation
B)Television
C)Pleasant room temperature
D)Good lighting
Q4) The office mission statement may:
A)reflect the reason the physician went into practice
B)reflect the reason for the existence of the facility
C)be prominently displayed at the facility
D)all of the above
Q5) Sign-in sheets should not list the __________ for the patient's office visit.
Q6) A quick, acute, and intuitive cognition is called __________.
Q7) Uncertainty in new surroundings can often create __________.
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Chapter 12: Office Environment and Daily Operations
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Q1) A list of the items included in a shipment is called a(n):
A)invoice
B)packing slip
C)itemized bill
D)order
Q2) A(n) __________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q3) At least _____ exits must be designated as fire exits in a medical facility.
Q4) Regular and __________ waste is found in physicians' offices.
Q5) Most facilities insist that employees sign a document stating that they have read the office policy and procedures manual.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What duties should be performed in anticipation of the day at the physician's office?
A)Turn on the lights in all examination rooms.
B)Make sure each room is fully stocked with supplies.
C)Turn on all equipment that will be used throughout the day.
D)All of the above should be performed.
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Chapter 13: Written Communications and Mail Processing
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Q1) Which of the following is the usual business envelope size?
A)No.5
B)No.10
C)No.6 3/4
D)No.5 3/4
Q2) A(n) __________ of paper usually consists of just under or just over 500 sheets.
Q3) Annotating incoming letters for physicians can help them by:
A)preventing them from wasting time with "junk" mail sorting
B)drawing their attention to the most important parts of the letters
C)researching the information needed to answer the letter
D)allowing them to see suggested responses
Q4) Which of the following is not a basic sentence structure pattern?
A)Subject-complement
B)Subject-object
C)Subject-clause
D)Subject-predicate
Q5) Legal-sized paper is 5 1/2 ´ 8 1/2 inches.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The bottom margin of a letter should be _____ inch.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Paper Medical Record Formerly Medical
Records Management
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Q1) Who ultimately decides whether a medical record can be released?
A)The physician
B)The office manager
C)The medical assistant
D)The patient
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of color-coded filing systems?
A)Patient charts can be found quickly.
B)It is easy to tell when a file has been misplaced.
C)Patient charts can be refiled quickly.
D)All of the above are advantages.
Q3) A(n) __________ is made of heavy paper stock and is used to replace an entire folder that has been temporarily removed from its proper place.
Q4) Which statement is not accurate about correcting charting errors?
A)Insert the correction above or immediately after the error.
B)Draw two clear lines through the error.
C)In the margin, initial and date the error correction.
D)Do not hide charting errors.
Q5) Systems that arrange names or topics according to the alphabet are called __________ filing systems.
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Chapter 15: The Electronic Medical Record
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Q1) The EMR system should be backed up __________.
Q2) The EMR system's __________ component allows the physician's staff to communicate with and send claims electronically to insurance companies.
Q3) Advantages of the EMR system include:
A)ability of the physician to see more patients in a day
B)cost of implementation
C)possibility of a breach of confidentiality
D)concern of patients over privacy
Q4) The system is not capable of telling whether a certain procedure matches a specific diagnosis code.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Physicians are all required to convert to electronic medical record systems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The medical assistant should expect __________ from some patients, who may worry that their information is being put "out on the Internet."
Q7) The Executive Order to promote the interoperability of the EMR was issued in _____.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Health Information Management
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Q1) HIPAA compliance is not the medical assistant's responsibility.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most significant obstacle to disclosure of a medical error is the effect on the physician's reputation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Among the least publicized aspects of HIPAA are the sections that deal with the right to patient privacy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Accurate medical records promote good __________ care.
Q5) A thing that is altered in sequence is said to be __________.
Q6) A nosocomial infection is usually acquired:
A)in a physician's office
B)in a hospital
C)in school
D)at home
Q7) Some feel that a(n) __________ is an admission of guilt.
Q8) Encoded is another word for __________.
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Chapter 17: Privacy in the Physicians Office
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Q1) HIPAA regulations limit the use of pre-existing condition exclusions and guarantee that certain individuals can buy healthcare insurance after leaving or losing a job.
A)True
B)False
Q2) HIPAA violators face only civil charges if patient privacy rights are compromised.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Providers must review requests for amendments of PHI and act on them within _____ days.
A)30
B)60
C)90
D)120
Q4) Information about patients' rights regarding PHI does not have to be included in a notice of privacy practices.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is possible to encounter conflicting __________ when disclosing PHI.
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Chapter 18: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic oophoritis
A)614.0
B)614.1
C)614.2
D)614.3
Q2) Carcinoma __________ is defined as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissues.
Q3) V and E codes are found in the CPT-4 manual.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At times, the medical assistant must code a(n) __________ if the physician is not yet sure of the diagnosis.
Q5) Open fracture of scapula, unspecified part
A)811.00
B)811.01
C)811.10
D)811.02
Q6) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
Q7) The code for hypertension, which often is memorized, usually is __________.
Q8) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
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Chapter 19: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Q1) The dollar value of each basic unit value used in anesthesia coding is called the
Q2) Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images
A)78201
B)78205
C)78220
D)78223
Q3) Established patient, home patient, problem-focused interval history and examination, straightforward medical decision making
A)99347
B)99348
C)99349
D)99350
Q4) New patient office visit, comprehensive history and examination, high-complexity decision making
A)99202
B)99203
C)99204
D)99205
Q5) A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
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Chapter 20: Basics of Health Insurance
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Q1) A review of individual cases by a committee to make sure that services are medically necessary and to study how providers use medical care resources is called a(n):
A)credentialing committee review
B)peer review committee evaluation
C)utilization review
D)audit committee review
Q2) The individual entitled to receive benefits from an insurance policy or program is called the:
A)beneficiary
B)insured
C)payer
D)carrier
Q3) If Mr.Jones's insurance has a $500 deductible and a $50 surgery co-pay, how much will his insurance pay on his bill of $4,359?
A)$3,809
B)$2,809
C)$3,980
D)$3,900
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Chapter 21: The Health Insurance Claim Form
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Q1) The provider can list up to __________ diagnoses on the CMS-1500 claim form.
Q2) The information in which block influences which insurance carrier should be billed for the procedures?
A)3
B)8
C)10
D)13
Q3) The medical assistant should do the following when a new patient comes to the office?
A)Collect the completed patient information sheet
B)Make a copy of the patient's insurance card, front and back
C)Make a copy of the patient's driver's license
D)All of the above should be done.
Q4) Verification of insurance benefits is usually done by:
A)requesting a letter of eligibility from the carrier
B)calling the insurance carrier
C)calling the patient's employer
D)asking the patient the effective date
Q5) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Q6) Secondary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Professional Fees, Billing, and Collecting
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Q1) Patients appreciate discussion of fees before a procedure is performed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are considered special bookkeeping entries except:
A)refunds
B)credit balances
C)payments
D)adjustments
Q3) Which statement about medical office credit policies is not a recommended practice?
A)Include billing, insurance, and collection procedures.
B)Write fairly detailed guidelines to follow when making credit decisions.
C)Develop very general policies so that each account can be considered individually.
D)Fully disclose these policies to patients.
Q4) All payments that come to the office after an account has been placed with a collection agency must be accepted and added to the patient's account.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Judy Rogers paid $45 on her balance of $191.What is her new balance?
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Chapter 23: Banking Services and Procedures
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Q1) Stop-payment orders are frequently used in day-to-day transactions at the physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which situation should the bank be asked to issue a stop-payment order on a check written in payment for a medical supply order?
A)The check was accidentally written for more than was owed.
B)The payee has not received payment after a reasonable period has elapsed.
C)The vendor to whom the check was written refuses to deliver the order.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The __________ status is what distinguishes an IRA from an ordinary savings account.
Q4) Which type of bank account would be best for maintaining funds that are used for paying seasonal expenses, such as insurance premiums?
A)Regular savings account
B)Money market savings account
C)Interest-bearing checking account that requires a high minimum balance
D)Regular checking account
Q5) The name of the last endorser of the check shows who last __________ the money.
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Chapter 24: Financial and Practice Management
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Q1) An employee's marital status can affect the amount of income tax withholding taken from his or her paycheck.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A peg-board system, either manual or computerized, is common in the medical office.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a drawback to the single-entry accounting system?
A)Errors are not easily detected.
B)The system has no built-in controls.
C)It satisfies governmental reporting regulations.
D)Periodic analyses are inadequate for financial planning.
Q4) The method of accounting in which income is recorded when earned and expenses are recorded when incurred is called the __________ basis of accounting.
Q5) The IRS form __________ is the Wage and Tax Statement.
Q6) FICA stands for the Federal Insurance __________ Act.
Q7) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
Q8) The FUTA return is IRS form __________.
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Chapter 25: Medical Practice Management and Human Resources
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Q1) Which of the following management theories suggests that people enjoy working?
A)Theory U
B)Theory X
C)Theory Y
D)Theory Z
Q2) Which of the following is a combination of American and Japanese management theories?
A)Theory U
B)Theory X
C)Theory Y
D)Theory Z
Q3) The office manager can easily determine all but which of the following by looking at an applicant's application or résumé?
A)Work experience
B)Personality
C)Educational background
D)Skills
Q4) Mentors, such as parents and teachers, are often the objects of referent power.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Q1) Which action shows the best customer service?
A)Offering coffee to all patients
B)Greeting all patients by name
C)Waving as patients enter the office
D)Using a sign-in sheet
Q2) If the speaker does a good job, the audience will feel __________ after hearing a persuasive speech.
Q3) Medical assistants should not be expected to provide good customer service along with their other duties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under normal circumstances, businesses exist to make a profit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Brochures in the physician's office can substitute for medical advice.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Most public relations strategies are expensive.
A)True
B)False Page 28
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Chapter 27: Infection Control
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Q1) Employees must provide their own alternative to latex gloves if they show signs of latex anaphylaxis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Relapse is the disappearance of the clinical symptoms of disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A susceptible host in the chain of infection is an individual that:
A)has been exposed to an infectious disease
B)has been immunized against the infectious microorganism
C)has an immune system that is overwhelmed by the pathogenic exposure
D)is healthy and able to create an adequate immune response to the pathogen
Q4) A 6-year-old patient with pink eye (conjunctivitis) is examined in the office.What is the best method of preventing the spread of the infection?
A)Keep the patient in the sick child exam room.
B)Avoid touching the child.
C)Perform careful and repeated hand washing or sanitization.
D)Ask the mother to assist with the physician's examination.
Q5) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
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Chapter 28: Patient Assessment
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Q1) The SOMR begins with a list of the patient's health problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Asian patients may have difficulty maintaining eye contact during an interview.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify the legal and ethical issues associated with the medical record.
Q4) Restatement is a valuable active listening technique, because it acknowledges the emotions displayed by the patient during the interview.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following includes insurance information?
A)Family history
B)Past history
C)Social history
D)Database
E)ROS
Q6) Progress notes in the POMR include the use of SOAPE documentation.
A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 29: Patient Education
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Q1) When suggesting possible education tools, the medical assistant should encourage the patient to conduct his or her own research for informative Web sites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the guidelines for patient education.
Q3) The health belief model focuses on what patients believe about themselves and how a health problem affects them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lecture is an effective method of teaching a patient with diabetes how to give insulin injections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following factors affects a patient's learning?
A)Perception of the disease
B)Age
C)Emotional state
D)Learning style
E)All of the above
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Chapter 30: Nutrition and Health Promotion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39489
Sample Questions
Q1) A BMI of 25 to 29 indicates:
A)obesity
B)normal weight
C)overweight
D)morbid obesity
Q2) One tablespoon of peanut butter is equivalent to a 1-ounce serving of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ are the building blocks of protein molecules and are considered either essential or nonessential.
Q4) Mercury is a very serious environmental contaminant that is most dangerous for aging adults.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diverticulosis can be treated with a diet high in soluble fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Hydrogenation of margarine results in the formation of trans fats.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Vital Signs
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39490
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the role of the medical assistant in obtaining vital signs.
Q2) The viscosity level of the blood describes the ability of the blood to clot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following pulses is palpated in the antecubital space?
A)Apical
B)Brachial
C)Carotid
D)Radial
E)Temporal
Q4) Which of the following pulses is palpated on either side of the eyes?
A)Apical
B)Brachial
C)Carotid
D)Radial
E)Temporal
Q5) Secondary hypertension may be caused by renal disease.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The medical term for fainting is __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting With the Primary Physical Examination
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39491
Sample Questions
Q1) If patients need help transferring from a chair to an examination table, you should suggest that they wrap their arms around your neck for support.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following positions is achieved by lying prone with the head down, the knees bent, and the buttocks elevated?
A)Dorsal recumbent
B)Lithotomy
C)Knee-chest
D)Sims'
E)Trendelenburg's
Q3) The physician might use a __________ to assess a patient's ability to detect sound vibrations.
A)Snellen chart
B)tongue blade
C)tuning fork
D)reflex hammer
Q4) A(n) __________ is a medical instrument that is used to inspect the inner structures of the eye.
35
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Chapter 33: Principles of Pharmacology
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39492
Sample Questions
Q1) If a medication is classified as "pregnancy risk category A," this means that the risks to the fetus associated with this drug far outweigh any potential benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prescription medications that are listed in the Federal Controlled Substance Act are identified by the symbols and/or abbreviations:
A)FCSA
B)NDG
C)II, III, IV, and V
D)all of the above
Q3) Both garlic and flaxseed may be helpful in lowering blood cholesterol levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Drug tolerance occurs when the patient finally starts to like to take the medication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Drugs used to increase urinary output and to reduce blood pressure are
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Chapter 34: Pharmacology Math
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82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39493
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician prescribes 0.25 g of penicillin.The available drug is 250 mg/tablet.What would you administer to the patient?
A)2 tabs
B)1 tab
C)2.5 tabs
D)1.5 tabs
Q2) Medications delivered from the pharmacy in individual doses are called __________ packs.
Q3) One fluid ounce is equal to ____ mL.
A)20
B)15
C)25
D)30
Q4) The physician orders 75 mg of Demerol IM.The drug label states,"Demerol 50 mg/mL." How many milliliters should be administered?
A)1 mL
B)1.2 mL
C)1.5 mL
D)2.1 mL
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Chapter 35: Administering Medications
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39494
Sample Questions
Q1) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, the injection is administered into the __________ muscle.
Q2) When administering insulin, you should:
A)not massage the injection site
B)use any subcutaneous area for the injection
C)not rotate the site of injection
D)use a 30-degree angle
Q3) __________ are administered to patients with peripheral edema to help absorb extra fluid from cells.
Q4) An IM injection given at the dorsogluteal site is administered into the gluteus maximus muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When giving an adult subcutaneous injection, you should not inject more than _____ cc into subcutaneous tissue. A)3 B)2 C)1 D)1.5
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Chapter 36: Emergency Preparedness and Assisting With Medical Emergencies
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39495
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are tears of the ligaments that support a joint.
Q2) A patient diagnosed with photophobia will complain of extreme pain and vertigo. A)True B)False
Q3) The symptoms of myocardial infarction in women may be very different from those traditionally seen in men.Summarize the typical signs and symptoms of an MI in female patients.
Q4) The percentage of the body surface area burned can be estimated using the __________.
Q5) Describe what should be included in the evacuation plan for a healthcare facility.
Q6) A person suffers from __________ if he or she excretes more water than is taken in.
Q7) A patient with a CVA caused by a blood clot may be given thrombolytic drugs to treat the condition.
A)True B)False
Q9) The medical term for nose bleed is __________. Page 39
Q8) An AED may save the life a victim in cardiac arrest.Describe how to apply the AED equipment and perform this skill.
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Page 40
Chapter 37: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39496
Sample Questions
Q1) When instilling ear drops in an adult, pull the pinna:
A)up and back
B)down and front
Q2) __________ causes the auditory ossicles to become fixed, resulting in a vibration hearing deficit.
Q3) A tympanogram can help detect the presence of fluid in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) While playing tennis, Ms.Salinas is hit in the eye with a ball and experiences pain and swelling.Whom should she call for an appointment?
A)Ophthalmologist
B)Optician
C)Optometrist
D)Any of the above
Q5) The patient may stand 10 feet from the Snellen chart during the examination.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The medical term for swimmer's ear is otitis externa.
A)True
B)False Page 41
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Dermatology
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92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39497
Sample Questions
Q1) Lamisil is an effective topical treatment for onychomycosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The physician orders a series of diagnostic tests to determine the stage of the tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients should remain in the office for at least 15 minutes after the completion of skin testing for observation for adverse reactions to the procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients with metastases have distant spread of a cancerous tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A wound that heals well with little evidence of scar formation is called a keloid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
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Page 43
Chapter 39: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39498
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has anorexia has lost the appetite for food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a GI system medication prescribed to block histamine production?
A)Prilosec
B)Cytotec
C)Pepcid
D)Pepto Bismol
Q3) Cytoprotective medications help protect the tissues lining the stomach and small intestine and are used in the treatment of H.pylori infections of the GI system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a lithotripsy procedure, high-intensity lasers are used to break apart gallstones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Any disorder or enlargement of the lymph nodes is called __________.
Q6) A hard, impacted mass of feces in the colon is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39499
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a nonsterile procedure usually performed before a urine culture and antibiotic susceptibility test?
A)Catheterization of the bladder
B)Collection of a midstream, clean-catch specimen
C)Collection of a random specimen
D)Suprapubic aspiration
E)Collection of a 24-hour specimen
Q2) Testicular self-examination should be started at puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hemodialysis is done once a week to maintain health.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A positive DRE result indicates that the prostate gland is smooth and regular.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Renal calculi may result in hydronephrosis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Male sex hormones are grouped as __________.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39500
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of examination usually involves taking pelvic measurements?
A)New patient visit
B)Diagnosis of PID
C)Initial prenatal visit
D)Consultation regarding contraception
Q2) The corpus luteum is the area on the ovary where an ovum was expelled during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ tissues are adjacent to or part of organs or tissues, such as the fallopian tubes and the uterus.
Q4) A mammogram is recommended for all women starting at age 50 and then each year after that.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A patient with fibrocystic breast disease has an increased risk of developing cancer of the breast.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Assisting in Pediatrics
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39501
Sample Questions
Q1) Appropriately screening telephone calls can be a major challenge in a pediatric practice.Provide three questions for each of the following complaints that could provide important information about the condition of the child: Pain
GI upset
Respiratory problems
Q2) During which period in a child's life is weight gain the fastest in proportion to the child's total weight?
A)First 6 months
B)Age 6 months to 1 year
C)Preschool
D)Adolescence
Q3) A congenital defect that interferes with the flow of CSP around the brain and spinal column results in __________.
Q4) Children who are allergic to eggs cannot be vaccinated against chickenpox.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An infant with a small head circumference for size and age may be diagnosed with
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Chapter 43: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39502
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients suffering from rheumatoid arthritis cycle through periods of remission and relapse.
A)True B)False
Q2) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder caused by a problem with acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
A)True B)False
Q3) __________ are connective tissue bands that attach skeletal muscle to bone to allow for movement.
Q4) A pathologic fracture is caused by extreme trauma, such as a car accident or spousal abuse.
A)True B)False
Q5) A common treatment for SLE is antimalarial drugs. A)True B)False
Q6) Lack of exposure to the sun may result in the development of osteomalacia. A)True B)False
Page 48
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Chapter 44: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39503
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is not true about suicide statistics in the United States?
A)Women are more successful than men at committing suicide.
B)Adolescents are more likely to attempt suicide if a close friend succeeded in committing suicide.
C)Family violence increases suicide attempts.
D)Often, those who attempt suicide engage in substance abuse.
Q2) A patient diagnosed with encephalitis will be admitted to the hospital and immediately placed on IV antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To prevent neurologic damage, thrombolytic drugs should be administered as quickly as possible to a patient who has been diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person experiencing a petit mal seizure has extended episodes (10 to 15 minutes) of staring into space without awareness of the surroundings.
A)True
B)False
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49
Chapter 45: Assisting in Endocrinology
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97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39504
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an intermediate-acting insulin that is taken at bedtime to prevent nighttime drops in blood glucose levels?
A)NPH
B)Novolin R
C)NovaLog
D)Aspart
Q2) Symlin is an injectable drug that may be prescribed to patients with diabetes type 2 to prevent a rapid increase in blood glucose levels after eating.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The liver can anabolize multiple glucose molecules into __________, which is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles.
Q4) Two of your patients are being seen in the office today.One is suspected of having hypothyroidism and the other hyperthyroidism.Summarize three signs and symptoms you would expect to see in each patient.
Q5) __________ goiters occur because of lack of iodine in the diet in specific geographic locations.
Q6) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39505
Sample Questions
Q1) Carl Rowe is to have a sleep study at the local hospital.The study is performed with what technology?
A)Electroencephalogram
B)ECG
C)Polysomnography
D)A and C
Q2) Discuss the recommended treatment for individuals exposed to TB who have a negative sputum culture compared with the recommended treatment for individuals diagnosed with active TB.
Q3) The symptoms of an asthma attack include:
A)nonproductive cough
B)hemoptysis
C)inspiratory wheezing
D)rhinorrhea
Q4) When taking a nebulizer treatment, the patient should breathe in faster than normal to absorb as much medication as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Inflammation of the membranes surrounding the lungs is called __________.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in Cardiology
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39506
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about CK levels in a patient with an MI?
A)The more severe the cardiac damage, the longer it takes for CK levels to peak.
B)Levels begin to increase almost immediately after myocardial damage.
C)CK levels return to normal within 18 hours.
D)CK levels are not predictive of the extent of cardiac damage.
Q2) You may be in a position one day to recognize the signs and symptoms of shock in a patient.Summarize the indicators of this life-threatening condition and the emergency procedures you should perform.
Q3) __________that develop along the edges of the cardiac valves cause stenosis of the affected valves.
Q4) Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
A)Left atrium
B)Right atrium
C)Left ventricle
D)Right ventricle
Q5) The circumflex branch is part of the right coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A symptom of chronic peripheral vascular disease is __________.
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Q7) __________ causes pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and tachycardia.
Chapter 48: Assisting in Geriatrics
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76 Verified Questions
76 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39507
Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesis of vitamin D is not affected by aging changes in the integumentary system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Skin wrinkles are caused by a lack of the collagen cells that form the supportive structures of the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A medication that can be prescribed to treat osteoporosis is __________.
Q4) Medications that may contribute to constipation include:
A)calcium
B)antihypertensives
C)antidepressants
D)A and C
E)all of the above
Q5) Older patients show the same classic symptoms of diabetes as their younger counterparts.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
Page 53
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Chapter 49: Principles of Electrocardiography
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82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) PACs may be recorded in patients who smoke or consume large quantities of caffeine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients with a history of V-fib may be treated with an ICD.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The electrocardiograph records both the intensity of and the actual time required for each part of the cardiac cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) PVCs are recorded when the ventricles depolarize before a P wave.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sinus arrhythmia is a result of the abnormal flow of the electrical system of the heart.
A)True B)False
Q6) A(n) __________ is an ectopic ventricular beat that occurs without a preceding P wave.
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Chapter 50: Assisting With Diagnostic Imaging
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39509
Sample Questions
Q1) In a frontal projection, the coronal plane of the body or body part is parallel to the film plane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Controlling exposure time is an important factor in protecting patients from radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood cells and blood-producing cells are very sensitive to radiation exposure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ substance is not easily penetrated by x-rays and appears light on radiographs.
Q5) To indicate that something lies nearer the surface, the term ________ is used.
A)proximal
B)distal
C)superficial
D)deep
Q6) A(n) __________ involves a lumbar puncture and injection of an iodine contrast medium.
Page 55
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Chapter 51: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39510
Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant is trained to perform CLIA-waived tests in the ambulatory laboratory setting.Based on your understanding of these tests, summarize at least five of them, along with their functions.
Q2) Balancing a centrifuge requires that all tumbles in the load:
A)have an equal amount of liquid of the same viscosity
B)are of equal size and shape
C)have a partner directly across in the rotor holder
D)all of the above
Q3) Decreased hemoglobin levels are seen in which of the following illnesses?
A)Iron-deficiency anemia
B)Hyperthyroidism
C)Cirrhosis of the liver
D)A and C
E)All of the above
Q4) Describe the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).
Q5) A screening test is performed to help diagnose a specific health problem in the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
Page 56
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Chapter 52: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39511
Sample Questions
Q1) The pigment __________ is responsible for the color of urine.
Q2) The average person produces approximately 2 L of urine each day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true about the pH of urine?
A)The average pH of freshly voided urine is 9.
B)The urinary pH varies with the diet.
C)The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria.
D)A urine pH below 7 indicates alkalinity.
Q4) Which of the following is mismatched concerning urine color and the likely pathologic cause?
A)Red: bleeding in the urinary tract
B)Greenish yellow: liver disorder
C)Blue-green: Pseudomonas infection
D)Reddish brown: diabetes
Q5) In general, artifacts in urine sediment, such as mucous threads and starch granules, are quantified and reported.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ occurs when the blood supply to an area is held back or obstructed.
Page 57
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Chapter 53: Assisting in Phlebotomy
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39512
Sample Questions
Q1) Without a clot activator, whole blood typically clots in _____ minutes.
A)1 to 2
B)60 to 90
C)30 to 60
D)5 to 10
Q2) The Vacutainer tube with a marbled red-gray top contains silica particles to enhance clotting and a thixotropic gel to assist in the separation of serum and blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient must give verbal consent before venipuncture can be performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Before a routine venipuncture or capillary puncture, the site typically is cleaned with:
A)isopropyl alcohol
B)ethyl alcohol
C)povidone-iodine solution
D)soap and water
Q5) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
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Chapter 54: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39513
Sample Questions
Q1) A decreased hematocrit value could be the result of:
A)polycythemia vera
B)hemorrhage
C)anemia
D)A and B
E)B and C
Q2) Specific _____________ are complex proteins produced by the liver when it is damaged.
Q3) Blood is able to form a clot as the result of a coordinated process involving more than 50 blood factors and processes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Increases in the WBC count that are not related to disease are seen in pregnant women and individuals facing extreme stress.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Eosinophils are phagocytic and are closely associated with allergic reactions. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 55: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39514
Sample Questions
Q1) Parasitology includes the study of:
A)worms
B)fungi
C)bacteria
D)rickettsiae
Q2) An anaerobic organism is most likely to be isolated from a(n):
A)abscess
B)sputum
C)skin scraping
D)throat
Q3) The Gram reaction a bacterium exhibits is the result of its:
A)cell membrane phospholipids
B)cell wall peptidoglycan
C)gelatinous capsule
D)waxlike cell wall lipids
Q4) The pathologist tests for Lyme disease by examining a blood sample for the infecting spirochetes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is used medically to combat viral infections and cancer.
Page 60
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Chapter 56: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________ refers to a body cavity or canal that is in its normal open position, such as the trachea remaining open during surgery.
Q2) _________ is a procedure in which a body cavity or internal organ (e.g., the uterus) is scraped with a surgical instrument.
Q3) Proper preparation of a surgical site removes all organisms from the area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One method of controlling epistaxis is to apply silver nitrate sticks to the bleeder site.
A)True B)False
Q5) The medical term for cutting tissue with a surgical instrument is _________.
Q6) A localized collection of pus that causes tissue destruction is called a(n)
Q7) Only biopsy samples suspected of being cancerous need to be sent to the laboratory for pathology studies.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Explain the system for identifying suture gauges.
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Chapter 57: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting With Surgical Procedures
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39516
Sample Questions
Q1) Living organisms that can be seen only with a light microscope.
A)Microorganisms
B)Germicides
C)Macroorganisms
Q2) A(n) __________ wound is infected with pathogens.
Q3) When autoclaving, place a gauze sponge around the tips of sharp instruments to prevent them from piercing the wrapping material.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sterile team members should always face one another.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A wound usually caused by an accident that results in tearing or separation of tissues is called a(n) __________.
Q6) Describe the medical assistant's role during laser surgery.
Q7) Wound __________ occurs when the edges of a repaired wound or surgical site separate or rupture.
Page 62
Q8) In the __________ phase of wound healing, fibrin is deposited at the site and clotting begins.
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Chapter 58: Career Development and Life Skills
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39517
Sample Questions
Q1) Cold calling is never an effective job search method.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A return offer made by a person who has rejected an offer or job is called a(n)
Q3) Goal setting is unimportant once the medical assistant has secured a job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement is true regarding the status of students during the externship compared with that of regular employees?
A)They should not waste their supervisor's time asking a lot of questions.
B)They cannot be sued for medical malpractice.
C)Attendance expectations are generally less strict for them.
D)They are expected to perform according to the same professional standards.
Q5) For which of the following reasons might a person not get hired after an interview?
A)Poor personal appearance
B)Overbearing personality
C)Making excuses for poor performance
D)All of the above
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