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Medical Assisting is an essential healthcare course designed to provide students with the foundational skills and knowledge required to support physicians and other healthcare professionals in clinical and administrative settings. The curriculum covers topics such as patient care, medical terminology, anatomy and physiology, medical office procedures, basic laboratory techniques, and healthcare laws and ethics. Students will gain hands-on experience in vital sign assessment, phlebotomy, medication administration, and the use of electronic health records. Upon completion, graduates are prepared to work effectively in various healthcare environments, offering both direct patient care and administrative support.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4196
Sample Questions
Q1) The constant practice of considering all aspects of a situation in deciding what to believe or what to do
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: G
Q2) Learning __________ are the ways that you like to learn and that have proven successful in the past.
Answer: preferences
Learning preferences determine individual learning methods.
Q3) Which type of coping strategies may actually increase stress levels?
A) Adaptive coping mechanism
B) Nonadaptive coping mechanism
C) Constructive coping mechanism
D) All of the above
Answer: B

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Sample Questions
Q1) The first national organization formed for medical assistants was the A) CAAHEP.
B) ABHES.
C) AMT.
D) AAMA.
Answer: D
Q2) Which healthcare professional is trained to practice medicine under the supervision of a physician?
A) Medical technologist
B) Paramedic
C) Medical assistant
D) Physician assistant
Answer: D
Q3) Salk and Pasteur developed the polio vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q4) Podiatrists care for the patient's __________.
Answer: feet
Podiatrists are educated in caring for the feet, including surgical treatment.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Meredith makes a list of the tasks that need to be done today, she is practicing
A) insubordination.
B) professionalism.
C) prioritization.
D) time management.
Answer: C
Q2) Self-boundaries are developed to protect us from being manipulated or used by others. Personal boundaries help identify each of us as a unique individual.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) First statement is true, and second is false.
D) First statement is false, and second is true.
Answer: B
Q3) Staying out late and shortchanging sleep during the workweek is _____________ to the medical assistant's professional life.
Answer: detrimental
Something that is obviously harmful or damaging is considered detrimental.
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is always helpful to have a(n) ____________ staff member to communicate with patients who speak another language.
Q2) The principal reason for requesting feedback when communicating with patients is to determine whether they
A) have a vision problem.
B) are cooperative.
C) understand what is being said.
D) are mentally alert.
Q3) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the fourth level relates to which of the following?
A) Social needs for love
B) Self-actualization
C) Safety
D) Self-esteem
E) Physical well-being
Q4) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
Q5) The __________ formed in the early moments of meeting someone remain in our thoughts long after the first words are spoken.
Q6) When a message is ___________, it is converted into intelligible form.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An emancipated minor is over the age of 18.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Negligence must be
A) assumed.
B) proven.
C) noticed.
D) ignored.
Q3) The document that expresses the wishes of patients in case of terminal illness or an accident after which patients cannot express their wishes is called a
A) power of attorney.
B) DNR order.
C) will.
D) living will.
Q4) A minor crime is called a(n)
A) felony.
B) misdemeanor.
C) violation.
D) act of treason.
Q5) Municipal regulations are also called __________.
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Q1) The AMA's code of ethics specifically acknowledged which of the following as its foundation for the document?
A) The code of Hammurabi
B) Hippocrates statement of principles
C) Thomas Percivil's code of medical ethics
D) All of the above
Q2) Providers must obtain patients' written consent before HIV testing is done. If a healthcare worker has an accidental exposure, such as a needle stick, HIV testing cannot be done on the patient without informed consent.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Which word best describes issues that have a moral implication of right and wrong?
A) Ethics
B) Etiquette
C) Precepts
D) Contracts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Commensurate
B) Commensarate
Q2) Good __________ is essential to writing effective, professional business letters.
Q3) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Detrimental
B) Detrimantal
Q4) Common output devices in the healthcare setting include which of the following?
A) Monitors
B) Printers
C) Speakers
D) All of the above
Q5) Nouns represent a person, place, thing, idea, or concept.
A)True
B)False
Q6) DSL operates over a telephone line.
A)True
B)False
Q7) DVD stands for ________________________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If English is not the caller's primary language, the medical assistant must use listening skills to ensure understanding.
A)True B)False
Q2) A provider can only be a company that provides medical equipment or services to patients.
A)True B)False
Q3) The medical assistant who answers the telephone in the physician's office performs _____________ to determine whether a call needs to be put through to the physician immediately or a message should be taken.
Q4) An insurance claim may be __________ if the physician is not a provider for that particular insurance company.
Q5) Call __________ allows the user to send calls to another designated number, such as a cell phone.
Q6) If a question arises as to how a task should be handled in the office, the medical assistant should consult the ___________________________.
Q7) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Something conducive to comfort, convenience, or enjoyment is called a(n)
Q2) What is the best way to decide whether patients need special assistance in disrobing?
A) Ask all patients if you can be of assistance.
B) Wait for patients to request help.
C) Use special consideration with patients who have a disability.
D) Offer help to patients who appear ill or upset.
Q3) Something in which a thing originates, develops, takes shape, or is contained is called a(n) __________.
Q4) When patients need a series of appointments, it is best to A) schedule them individually.
B) let the patient call when he or she is ready to come in.
C) try to set the appointments for the same day of the week at the same time.
D) use any method of scheduling; they will all be effective.
Q5) The patient should be given a(n) ___________ of times and dates when making a return appointment.
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Q6) Sign-in sheets should not list the __________ for the patient's office visit.
Q7) An unexpected event that throws a plan into disorder is called a
Q8) The term that means "relating to or arranged in a sequence" is ______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Q2) Inventory management involves tracking inventory and identifying the quantity of product to purchase. The goal of inventory management is to have adequate supplies on hand to use in the healthcare facility, yet not have too much stock that will expire or take a long time to use.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Leasing equipment, such as copiers, often proves to be more expensive than purchasing the equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many state laws mandate that termination letters be sent by which of the following services?
A) First-Class Mail
B) Priority Mail
C) Certified Mail
D) Certified Mail with Return Receipt
Q5) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
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Q1) A filing system in which an intermediary source of reference, such as a card file, must be consulted to locate specific files, is called a(n) __________ system.
Q2) __________ information is provided by the patient.
Q3) Entities considered essential or necessary are called __________.
Q4) The type of record that is created from more than one healthcare organization and can be managed and consulted by licensed clinicians and staff from those organizations who are involved in the patient's care is an electronic __________ record.
Q5) The physical medical record belongs to the A) patient.
B) physician or provider.
C) insurance company.
D) All of the above
Q6) Which of the following indirect filing systems is used by a majority of large clinics and hospitals?
A) Alphabetic filing
B) Numeric filing
C) Subject filing
D) Color-coded filing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Babies are considered newborn or perinatal for the first ______ days.
A) 30
B) 29
C) 28
D) 27
Q2) Which of the following is the second most common medical document from which diagnostic statements can be extracted?
A) Encounter form
B) Treatment notes
C) Discharge summary
D) Radiology, laboratory, or pathology report
Q3) Which of the following instructions in the Alphabetic Index indicates that another main term may reference additional useful index entries?
A) See
B) See also
C) See category
D) And
E) Due to
Q4) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal
A) 71000
B) 71100
C) 71010
D) 71011
Q2) When searching the alphabetic index, "humerus" is an example of which of the following?
A) Procedure or service
B) Organ or anatomic site
C) Condition, illness, or injury
D) Eponym, synonym, abbreviation, or acronym
Q3) Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization
A) 74710
B) 74740
C) 74742
D) 74775
Q4) A(n) __________ patient is one who is having his or her first encounter with the physician.
Q5) __________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
Q6) A new or experimental procedure or service code is a category __________ code.
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43 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should always verify which of the following prior to the patient's appointment?
A) Eligibility
B) Benefits and exclusions
C) Effective date of insurance
D) All of the above
Q2) If Mr. Jones's insurance has a $500 deductible and a $50 surgery co-pay, how much will his insurance pay on his bill of $4,359?
A) $3,809
B) $2,809
C) $3,980
D) $3,900
Q3) Medigap polices cover which of the following?
A) Difference between major medical reimbursement and patient financial responsibilities
B) Difference between Medicare reimbursement and patient financial responsibilities
C) Any services not covered under Medicare
D) Any services not covered under Major medical
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electronic data interchange is
A) transferring data back and forth between two or more entities.
B) sending information to one insurance carrier.
C) sending information to one clearinghouse for processing.
D) None of the above
Q2) Claims that are done by direct billing first go to a clearinghouse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Claims submitted to a(n) __________ are forwarded to individual insurance carriers.
Q4) Dirty claims cannot be resubmitted.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A secondary health plan is noted in which block?
A) 11a
B) 11b
C) 11c
D) 11d
Q6) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
18
Q7) The medical assistant should do everything possible to prevent claim

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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Payments to the healthcare facility come as reimbursement from the insurance company only. Adjustments are made to a patient's account when it is necessary to add or subtract a patient payment from the balance.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) In the physician's office, the accounts payable is the amount of money that all patients owe the physician.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
Q4) Accounts receivable are moneys that are expected but not yet received. All invoices, statements, and operational expenses are included in accounts receivable.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q5) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient writes a check for $560 that is returned by the bank. The physician redeposits the check, which clears, and the physician does not want to charge this patient an NSF fee. How much should be added to the patient's account in this transaction?
Q2) A person who writes a check is sometimes called the __________.
Q3) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called
A) disbursement.
B) reconciliation.
C) principal.
D) holder.
Q4) A check drawn on the bank's own account and signed by an authorized bank official is called a
A) bank draft.
B) voucher check.
C) cashier's check.
D) certified check.
Q5) A signature on the back of a check whereby the rights of the check are transferred to another party is called a(n) __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which subjects cannot be discussed in a job interview?
A) Religion
B) Work history
C) Previous terminations of employment
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following prohibits inquiries into an applicant's race, color, gender, religion, and national origin?
A) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
B) Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972
C) 1975 Amendment to the Equal Employment Opportunity Act
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) A person who is pleasant and at ease in talking to others is said to be ____________.
Q4) Interviews should be conducted when no one else is in the office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The office manager should evaluate the applicant's __________ when setting the interview time on the phone, because this is an important attribute for medical assistants.
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Q1) Creating or changing attitudes, beliefs, and perceptions by influencing people with purchased broadcast time, print space, or other forms of written and visual media is called _____________.
Q2) The medical assistant who can use social media in a professional way will be a valuable asset to the medical practice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Without __________, many businesses fail.
A) insurance benefits
B) growth
C) marketing efforts
D) None of the above
Q4) Patients usually tell the provider if they are not receiving good customer service from the medical assistants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One of the most popular and beneficial resources available to patients is the provider's ________________.
Q6) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any disease caused by the growth of pathogenic microorganisms in the body falls into the category of
A) hereditary.
B) autoimmune.
C) communicable.
D) infectious.
Q2) The process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments is called
A) asepsis.
B) disinfection.
C) sanitization.
D) sterilization.
Q3) Inflammation mediators that are released at the site of cellular damage perform which of the following functions?
A) Increase blood flow to the site.
B) Increase the permeability of blood vessel walls.
C) Cause more RBCs to be attracted to the site of injury.
D) Both A and B.
E) All are correct.
Q4) Describe the difference between cell-mediated and humoral immunity.
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Q1) Which of the following includes insurance information?
A) Family history
B) Past history
C) Social history
D) Database
E) ROS
Q2) Which of the following sections of the medical record includes the physical examination findings?
A) Family history
B) Past history
C) Social history
D) Database
E) ROS
Q3) The medical assistant is responsible for performing the systems review.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Progress notes in the POMR include the use of SOAPE documentation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Detail how to make a correction in a patient's paper record.
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Q1) Essential factors in __________ management for the ambulatory care setting include conducting adequate patient education and follow-up.
Q2) Which of the following locations is an appropriate place for learning?
A) Waiting room
B) Exam rooms
C) Front desk
D) All of the above
Q3) You are responsible for developing a patient education pamphlet on diabetes mellitus. Which factor is most important to remember?
A) Using correct medical terminology about the disease process
B) Creating a comprehensive, complex description of the complications of the disease
C) Using language that a sixth- to eighth-grader can understand
D) Creating different pamphlets for male and female patients
Q4) Demonstration/return demonstration is an excellent method of teaching a patient how to perform a breathing treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diagram and explain how to develop and implement a patient teaching plan.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would provide the best dietary source of vitamin E?
A) Multigrain cereal
B) Dairy products
C) Citrus fruits
D) Lean meats
Q2) Death rates are significantly higher for patients with a BMI of 19 to 22.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Canola and olive oils contain polyunsaturated fats.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One tablespoon of peanut butter is equivalent to a 1-ounce serving of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define essential and nonessential nutrients.
Q6) Describe the major factors that influence individual food choices.
Q7) In patients diagnosed with diabetes mellitus __________, the beta cells of the pancreas do not produce any insulin.
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Q8) __________ can be neutralized by antioxidant-rich foods.
Q9) Whole-wheat pasta with spinach is an example of a meal that combines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persistent readings of 90/60 mm Hg or lower usually are considered A) hypotension.
B) orthostatic hypotension.
C) stage 1 hypertension.
D) stage 2 hypertension.
Q2) Your patient has been diagnosed with uncontrolled hypertension. How would you expect his pulse to feel?
A) Strong
B) Weak
C) Bounding
D) Normal
Q3) The range of body temperature experienced by healthy adults throughout the day is a reflection of normal diurnal rhythms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An elderly patient who has a pulse that is scarcely perceptible is said to have a(n) __________ pulse.
Q5) A(n) __________ is an instrument that measures the volume of inhaled and exhaled air.
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Q1) Aphonia typically is seen in patients who have overused their voice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A percussion hammer is used for which part of the physical examination?
A) Neurologic
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Urinary
D) Respiratory
Q3) Which examination position is used in emergencies for patients with severe hypotension or who are in shock?
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Knee-chest
C) Lithotomy
D) Trendelenburg's
Q4) What is the normal color of the tympanic membrane?
A) Pink
B) Slightly yellow
C) Off-white
D) Pearly gray
Q5) A body __________ is composed of several organs and their associated structures.
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Q1) Physical dependence results in alteration of cellular function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Demerol is a Schedule I analgesic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following medications is prescribed for short-term relief of insomnia?
A) Barbiturate
B) Benadryl
C) Lunesta
D) Xanax
Q4) A physician no longer needs to have a separate DEA registration number for each site at which he or she practices.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An anesthetic is used primarily to produce the sensation of numbness.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) __________ is used for the treatment of allergic reactions.
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Q1) Federal law requires that all drug labels have a _________ that identifies that particular drug.
A) generic and trade name
B) expiration date
C) lot number
D) National Drug Code number
Q2) How many fluid ounces equal 90 mL?
A) 20 fl oz
B) 3.5 fl oz
C) 3 fl oz
D) 4 fl oz
Q3) A drug label that states the percentage of the drug in the container (e.g., 4%) is identifying the dose of the medication to be administered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the answer for the proportion 6:4 = 3:x?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 3
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Q1) To correctly read the amount of a liquid medication poured into a measuring device, read at the _________ of the meniscus.
A) top
B) level
C) lowest level
D) middle
Q2) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, the injection is administered into the __________ muscle.
Q3) With a(n) ___________ system, a small adhesive patch or disk is applied to the body near the treatment site.
A) intradermal
B) subcutaneous
C) dermal
D) transdermal
Q4) Always check for ________ before administering any medication.
A) antibodies
B) allergies
C) antigens
D) anergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An AED is used for
A) CVA.
B) shock.
C) seizures.
D) an abnormal heart rhythm.
Q2) Supplies for the management of emergencies should include several different drugs. List and explain the functions of at least four of these.
Q3) __________ is caused by severe hypoglycemia, which occurs when a patient with diabetes takes too much insulin, does not eat enough, or exercises more strenuously than usual.
Q4) If you suspect a head or neck injury, what maneuver should you use to open the patient's airway?
A) Use the jaw thrust.
B) Use the head tilt-chin lift.
C) Apply a ventilator mask.
D) Insert an airway.
Q5) A patient with diabetes may go into shock with an overdose of insulin. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Nearsightedness, or __________, occurs when light rays entering the eye focus in front of the retina.
Q2) When cleansing the patient's eyelashes before performing an irrigation, you should clean from the outer canthus to the inner canthus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Match the astigmatism eye disorder with the appropriate description, when it occurs, and the correction. (Select all that apply.)
A) Cornea or lens is shaped like a football
B) Can be corrected with refractive surgery or a convex corrective lens
C) Occurs when light rays entering the eye focus in front of the retina
D) Occurs when the eyeball is too short from the anterior to the posterior wall
E) Can be corrected with glasses, contacts, or surgery
F) Occurs when light enters the eye and focuses behind the retina
G) Eyeball is elongated from the anterior to the posterior wall
H) Occurs when the light rays entering the eye are focused irregularly
Q4) __________ causes the auditory ossicles to become fixed, resulting in a vibration hearing deficit.
Q5) __________ eye drops are used to treat open-angle glaucoma.
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Q1) Antipruritics would be useful in treating which of the following conditions?
A) Acne
B) Herpes zoster
C) Macules
D) Nail fungus
Q2) Repeated episodes of herpes simplex occur because the bacteria is able to lie dormant in a nearby nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pediculosis can be caused by which of the following?
A) Pediculus humanus capitis
B) Pediculus humanus corporis
C) Pthirus pubis
D) All of the above
Q4) Furuncles and carbuncles may be treated with which of the following?
A) Frequent cleansing of the area
B) Application of an antibiotic ointment
C) Surgical incision and drainage
D) All of the above
Q5) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
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Q1) The four abdominal quadrants and nine regions are used routinely to describe and document GI complaints, signs, and symptoms. List the four abdominal quadrants and name at least one organ located in each. Also name the nine regions.
Q2) Helicobacter pylori infection has been discovered to be a possible cause of A) cold sores.
B) food poisoning.
C) colitis.
D) stomach ulcers.
Q3) The condition of having gallstones is called A) cholelithiasis.
B) cholecystitis.
C) cholecystogram.
D) cholecystectomy.
Q4) A patient whose stool tests positive for occult blood will also complain of hematemesis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Regional ileitis is also known as __________.
Q6) A hard, impacted mass of feces in the colon is called a(n) __________.
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Q1) Which of the following is more common in men and is typically caused by chlamydia or gonorrhea bacteria?
A) Urethritis
B) Cystitis
C) Pyelonephritis
D) Glomerulonephritis
Q2) Any healthcare worker who has an accidental needle stick from an individual who may be HIV positive should receive which of the following?
A) Truvia
B) PEP medication
C) Three or more antiretroviral drugs
D) Both B and C
E) All of the above
Q3) Surgical removal of the prostate gland is called
A) prostatitis.
B) prostatocystitis.
C) prostatolith.
D) prostatectomy.
Q4) Explain the difference between renal hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
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Q1) The treatment for candidiasis is either OTC antifungal medications or Diflucan.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fertilized egg is called a zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The physician asks you to reinforce teaching for a breast self-examination. What should you include in this teaching intervention?
Q4) Which of the following prenatal blood or laboratory tests helps determine immunity to German measles?
A) Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
B) Blood type and Rh
C) Rubella titer
D) Syphilis, Hepatitis B, and HIV screening
E) Pap test
Q5) Pregnancy is confirmed when the hormone __________ is found in the urine.
Q6) During the ______________, progesterone secreted from the corpus luteum causes extensive growth of the endometrium.
Q7) The medical term for the act or process of giving birth is _____________.
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Q1) Children are considered overweight if the BMI for age is between the 85th and 94th percentiles; they are considered obese if the BMI is at or greater than the 95th percentile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Children with asthma typically have a productive cough with rales.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A child with a serious respiratory reaction to disease may make a shrill, harsh sound during inhalation with difficulty breathing; this is called ____________.
Q4) Colic can be a long-term GI disorder that persists through the toddler years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Denver II developmental screening tests should be given when?
A) Age 3 to 4 months
B) Age 10 months
C) Age 3 years
D) All of the above
Q6) ________________ is an inherited disorder, and both parents must be carriers.
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Q1) Tanya Payne has three young children who like to play in the wooded lot next to their house. She is very concerned about the possibility of Lyme disease. What information can you share with her to reduce her children's risk of being exposed to Lyme disease? Include details on the proper removal of a tick.
Q2) Lyrica, an antiseizure medication, is the first drug that has been approved by the FDA to treat fibromyalgia.
A)True B)False
Q3) A TENS unit uses ultrasonography to the muscle to relieve pain and promote healing. A)True B)False
Q4) Patients suffering from rheumatoid arthritis cycle through periods of remission and relapse. A)True B)False
Q5) Diathermy is a deep heat therapy that can be used to treat muscle spasms.
A)True B)False
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Q1) The point on a nerve cell where stimuli are passed to the adjacent nerve cell is called the
A) axon.
B) dendrite.
C) nucleus.
D) synapse.
Q2) The body's systems attempt to maintain a constant internal environment in which all body functions are in balance; this is called ______________.
Q3) A patient diagnosed with encephalitis will be admitted to the hospital and immediately placed on IV antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An elderly patient with signs and symptoms of dementia is going through the normal phases of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A patient with MS who shows worsening of symptoms is experiencing a(n) ________________ of the disease.
Q6) The _____________ is the largest and uppermost section of the brain.
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Q1) Where is epinephrine produced?
A) Thymus gland
B) Parathyroid
C) Adrenal medulla
D) Pineal gland
Q2) The pineal gland excretes which of the following hormones?
A) ADH
B) Aldosterone
C) Melatonin
D) Glucagon
Q3) _________ regulates the amount of calcium in the blood and bones.
A) Parathyroid hormone
B) Thyroxine
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) Prostaglandins
Q4) Which disorder is caused by an overactive adrenal gland?
A) Cushing's disease
B) Addison's disease
C) Diabetes
D) Graves' disease
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Q1) Emphysema patients find it very difficult to exhale inspired air, which contributes to alveolar damage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Malnourishment and living in a crowded environment contribute to the spread of TB.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Clubbing of the fingers in a patient with emphysema is caused by A) chronic tissue hypoxia.
B) low blood glucose levels.
C) complications from medications.
D) congestive heart failure.
Q4) The procedure that measures the amount of air moving into and out of the lungs is A) bronchoscopy.
B) intubation.
C) spirometry.
D) thoracentesis.
E) tracheostomy.
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Q1) A bruit noted during auscultation in the area of a blood vessel often is a sign of
A) an aneurysm.
B) an embolus.
C) phlebitis.
D) a thrombus.
Q2) A(n) __________ may be a life-threatening problem because of the potential for embolus creation.
Q3) The most distal part of the electrical system of the heart is the Purkinje fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rheumatic heart disease is associated with valvular stenosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which statement is true about a Doppler study?
A) It requires IV injection of a dye.
B) It picks up the speed of RBCs as they travel through the vessel.
C) It must be performed in a hospital.
D) All of the above are true.
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Q1) List five suggestions the medical assistant can make to help prevent falls at home.
Q2) Musculoskeletal disease is an inevitable part of the aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Grace Glasgow, an 86-year-old patient, has a combination of presbyopia and macular degeneration. How can the medical assistant help Miss Glasgow around the office?
Q4) Over time, vessel walls thicken and become less elastic because of the calcification and buildup of connective tissue in which condition?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Phlebitis
C) Arteriosclerosis
D) All of the above
Q5) Memantine (Namenda) is frequently used to treat __________.
Q6) Patients who have limited mobility and are restricted to bed are at risk of developing a(n) __________ as a result of ischemia over bony prominences.
Q7) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Q8) The medical term for an age spot is __________.
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Q1) Patients should not hold their breath during the brief seconds necessary to record an ECG.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bradycardia is defined as
A) a faster than normal heart rate.
B) a slower than normal heart rate.
C) chest pain.
D) an irregular heartbeat.
Q3) If the ECG recording appears as a series of small, uniform spikes in the baseline, the medical assistant should
A) check for nearby electric appliances.
B) ask the patient to lie still.
C) help the patient relax and stay warm.
D) check the cable connection to the electrodes.
Q4) The patient must be placed in the supine position for an ECG, even if the person has the symptoms of dyspnea and orthopnea.
A)True B)False
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Q1) AP stands for __________.
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding placement of a gonad shield on a female patient?
A) Required on patients over the age of 55
B) Placed with its lower margin at the level of the pubic symphysis
C) Positioned with its upper margin about 1 inch below the pubic symphysis
D) Only used when gonads are within the primary radiation field
E) Both A and B
Q3) The amount of exposure to radiation is directly linked to the length of time spent in the radiation field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ______________ is the direct observation of the x-ray image in motion.
A) CT scan
B) MRI
C) IVU
D) Fluoroscopy
Q5) A(n) __________ should be worn close to the collar and outside a lead apron to pick up radiation exposure.
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Q6) A(n) __________ is also called a barium enema.
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Q1) The stepwise method used to collect, process, and test a specimen that will be used as evidence in a legal case is called the __________.
Q2) Aerosolization in a centrifuge can be prevented by ensuring that
A) the tubes have an equal amount of fluid.
B) the atmosphere has 5% carbon dioxide.
C) the tubes are tightly capped.
D) rubber cups are in the bottom of the carriers.
Q3) An important responsibility of the medical assistant is to make sure collected specimens are labeled properly before they are sent to a reference laboratory. Summarize at least five items that must be included on a specimen label.
Q4) Specimens collected in the ambulatory care setting frequently are sent to a(n) __________ for analysis.
Q5) Medical assistants are trained to perform high-complexity tests in the physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ are fluids that have escaped from blood vessels and have been deposited in surrounding tissues.
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Q1) The most accurate method for performing alcohol screening is analysis of a urine sample.
A)True B)False
Q2) When urine is fresh and warm, trichomonas organisms may be motile and appear to be darting about rapidly when the specimen is examined under a microscope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the changes that occur in urine when it has been sitting at room temperature.
Clarity
Color
pH
Glucose
Ketones
Bilirubin
Blood
Nitrite
Bacteria
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Q1) If samples for more than one tube must be drawn during a venipuncture, which order is adherent to CLSI standards?
A) Red, lavender, then light blue
B) Yellow, red, then green
C) Gray, red, then lavender
D) Light blue, green, then red
Q2) A(n) ____________ is a special laboratory filter paper that is used to collect a blood sample from newborns.
Q3) Which of the following needle safety devices has a spring-activated shield attached to a disposable syringe needle?
A) One-handed Vacutainer needle
B) Butterfly needle safety lock
C) Syringe needle safety device
D) Push button butterfly safety device
E) Needle blunting butterfly set
Q4) _______________ are used for small veins, such as those in the hand or in a pediatric patient.
Q5) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Q6) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
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Q1) Dr. Lim orders a CPK draw on Mr. Roberts. What do elevated CPK levels indicate?
A) Liver disease
B) Possible MI
C) Dehydration
D) A problem with glucose metabolism
Q2) Blood is able to form a clot as the result of a coordinated process involving more than 50 blood factors and processes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a normal H&H for a female?
A) 30% and 11 g/dL
B) 36% and 14 g/dL
C) 52% and 17 g/dL
D) 35% and 11 g/dL
Q4) Erythrocytes have a typical ________ shape because of
A) concave; the presence of oxygen
B) oval; their short life span
C) convex; adequate hemoglobin concentration
D) concave; their lack of a nucleus
Q5) An RBC that is larger than normal is described as ______________.
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Q1) A cellulose tape test for pinworms requires
A) a thin specimen of stool to be spread on cellulose tape to immobilize the worms.
B) a length of cellulose tape to be touched against the anal folds to collect worms.
C) temporarily taping the anus closed to trap the worms.
D) a microscope to view the eggs that have adhered to a length of cellulose tape.
E) B and D
Q2) Specimens should be collected during the acute phase of an illness and 24 hours after antibiotics are prescribed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bacterial endospores allow a microorganism to survive harsh environments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term __________ refers to conditions outside a living body, such as bacteria grown on a culture plate.
Q5) The goal of maintaining the quality of a specimen is to make sure it remains
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Q1) Which antiseptic is the most effective for a surgical hand scrub or patient skin preparation for surgery?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Hibiclens
C) Isopropyl alcohol
D) Povidone-iodine
E) B and D
Q2) The jaws of this instrument are shorter and look stronger than hemostat jaws.
A) Needle holder
B) Bayonet forceps
C) Splinter forceps
D) Towel forceps (towel clamp)
Q3) ___________ forceps are small (4 inches) and are used to clamp small blood vessels or tissues.
Q4) __________ is a procedure in which a body cavity or internal organ (e.g., the uterus) is scraped with a surgical instrument.
Q5) ____________, which resemble gears, have three or more positions and are located just below the ring handle of an instrument so that the instrument can be locked in a particular position.
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Q1) The LEEP excisional procedure is considered which of the following?
A) Electrosurgery
B) Laser surgery
C) Microsurgery
D) Endoscopy
E) Cryosurgery
Q2) A wound usually caused by an accident that results in tearing or separation of tissues is called a(n) __________.
Q3) Suppuration can cause problems with wound healing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An autoclave pack with a small tear in the wrapper is no longer sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical assistant should wear clean gloves when decontaminating the postsurgical room.
A)True
B)False
Q6) With __________ healing, a wound heals by granulation from the bottom of the wound outward. Page 54
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Q1) __________ comments help the medical assistant perform better and take on more responsibility.
Q2) Which of the following interview questions should not be asked in an interview?
A) Tell me about yourself.
B) Whom do you most admire?
C) Who takes care of your children while you work?
D) Why would you be successful in this position?
Q3) Remember to be completely __________ when completing a job application and résumé.
Q4) The demands of the medical profession make it an often stressful environment. A)True
B)False
Q5) A return offer made by a person who has rejected an offer or job is called a(n) __________.
Q6) Networking is meeting and getting to know individuals in the same or similar career fields and sharing information about available opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q7) __________ is reading and marking corrections.
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