Medical Assistant Practicum
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Assistant Practicum is a hands-on training course designed to provide students with real-world experience in a healthcare setting. Under the supervision of skilled professionals, students apply classroom knowledge to clinical and administrative tasks such as taking patient histories, measuring vital signs, assisting with examinations and procedures, performing basic laboratory tests, and managing medical records. The practicum emphasizes the development of professional communication, workplace ethics, and patient care skills, preparing students for entry-level positions as competent and compassionate medical assistants.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 8th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1262 Verified Questions
1262 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3984
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A report of the analysis of body specimens is known as a
A) Therapeutic report
B) Diagnostic report
C) Laboratory report
D) Progress report
Answer: C
Q2) A consent to treatment form is required for
A) Tuberculin skin testing
B) Sebaceous cyst removal
C) Ear irrigation
D) Blood pressure measurement
Answer: B
Q3) With reverse chronological order, the most recent document is
A) Filed alphabetically
B) Filed by subject title
C) Placed in front of the other documents
D) Placed in back of the other documents
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are examples of work practice controls except
A) Sanitizing the hands after removing gloves
B) Placing a lancet in a biohazard sharps container
C) Picking up broken glassware with gloved hands
D) Bandaging a cut on the hands before gloving
Answer: C
Q2) Microorganisms can be transmitted through
A) Droplet infection
B) Insects
C) Contaminated food
D) Contaminated equipment
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) Treatment for acute hepatitis B includes
A) Antibiotics
B) Physical therapy
C) Liver transplantation
D) Restricted activity and rest
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical?
A) Name of the chemical
B) Physical hazards of the chemical
C) Health hazards of the chemical
D) Storing and handling of the chemical
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Something that is sterile is free of
A) Pathogens
B) All living microorganisms
C) All living microorganisms and spores
D) Nonpathogens
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following items requires high-level disinfection?
A) Stethoscope
B) Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope
C) Surgical instruments
D) Examining table
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following could result in an inaccurate temporal artery temperature reading?
A) Having the patient remove his SpongeBob hat
B) Using a probe with a shiny lens
C) Quickly scanning the forehead
D) Keeping the button continually depressed while scanning
Q2) When the patient's forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate temporal artery temperature reading?
A) Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe
B) Brushing the patient's hair to the side
C) Applying a probe cover
D) Taking the temperature behind the earlobe
Q3) What term is used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?
A) Hypoxia
B) Hypopnea
C) Apnea
D) Anoxia
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eye
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q2) All of the following should be removed before weighing a patient except
A) Shoes
B) Jewelry
C) Heavy sweater
D) Jacket
Q3) All of the following are included in a complete patient examination except
A) The health history
B) Therapeutic procedures
C) The physical examination
D) Laboratory tests
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Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ear instillation may be performed to
A) Apply heat to the ear
B) Remove discharge from the ear
C) Remove cerumen
D) Treat an ear infection
Q2) The function of the ear auricle is to
A) Transmit sound waves to the brain
B) Maintain balance and equilibrium
C) Receive and collect sound waves
D) Prevent the entrance of microorganisms into the ear
Q3) The range of frequencies for normal speech is
A) 80 to 120 db
B) 512 to 1024 Hz
C) 300 to 4000 Hz
D) 6000 to 8000 Hz
Q4) Impacted cerumen can be softened by
A) Irrigating the ear with an antiseptic solution
B) Inserting a moistened cotton-tipped applicator into the ear
C) Instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear
D) Placing a heating pad next to the ear
8
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Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause
A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Sciatic nerve damage
C) Crutch palsy
D) Tendinitis
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of forearm crutches?
A) The patient can use his or her hands.
B) They make it easier to move around in a crowd.
C) They are inexpensive.
D) They fold up when not in use.
Q3) Forearm crutches are often used by patients with
A) Cerebral palsy
B) A fracture of a lower extremity
C) An amputated leg
D) Paralysis on one side of the body
Q4) The three-point gait is used for which of the following conditions?
A) Leg fracture
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Paraplegia
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Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are performed during the 6-week postpartum visit except
A) Breast examination
B) Pelvic examination
C) Rectovaginal examination
D) Pap test
Q2) What must the patient do to prepare for transabdominal obstetric ultrasound?
A) Fast for 12 hours before the scan
B) Eat a light meal 2 hours before the scan
C) Consume 32 oz of fluid 1 hour before the scan
D) Avoid sexual intercourse for 2 days before the scan
Q3) Which of the following procedures monitors changes in the fetal heart rate in response to spontaneous movements of the fetus?
A) Nonstress fetal heart rate monitoring
B) Pelvimetry
C) Uterine contraction monitoring
D) Contraction stress fetal heart rate monitoring
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Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name for the physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disease in children?
A) Pediatrician
B) Podiatrist
C) Obstetrician
D) Neonatologist
Q2) All of the following are reasons for obtaining a urine specimen from a pediatric patient except
A) To diagnose a pathologic condition
B) To screen for the presence of disease
C) To evaluate the effectiveness of therapy
D) To prevent urinary tract infections
Q3) What immunizations are included in an MMR injection?
A) Meningitis, mumps, rubella
B) Measles, mumps, rubella
C) Measles, mumps, chickenpox
D) Measles, hepatitis, rubella
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11
Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a small, painless, benign growth that projects from the skin from a small narrow stalk?
A) Dysplastic nevi
B) Raised mole
C) Flat mole
D) Skin tag
Q2) Which of the following represents an error in bandaging technique?
A) Applying a bandage from the distal to the proximal part of the body
B) Checking to ensure the bandage is not applied too tightly
C) Applying the bandage over an open wound
D) Padding joints and prominent parts of bones
Q3) Cryosurgery operates on the basis of
A) Freezing temperatures
B) Sound waves
C) X-rays
D) Chemicals
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Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After administering a tuberculin skin test, it should be read within
A) 15 to 20 minutes
B) 12 to 24 hours
C) 36 to 48 hours
D) 48 to 72 hours
Q2) A prescription for a schedule III drug expires
A) 7 days from the date of issue
B) 2 months from the date of issue
C) 6 months from the date of issue
D) 1 year from the date of issue
Q3) Which of the following helps to reduce the pain of an IM injection?
A) Telling the patient to breathe deeply
B) Inserting the needle quickly into the patient's skin
C) Holding the needle steady after inserting it
D) Withdrawing the needle at the same angle as that used for insertion
E) All of the above
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Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart
A)ather/o
B)cardio/o
C)electr/o
D)-emia
E)-gram
F)-graph
G)hypo-
H)-ia
I)isch/o
J)-meter
K)-metry
L)ox/i
M)-sclerosis
N)spir/o
Q2) What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves?
A) Segment
B) Baseline
C) Interval
D) Polarization line
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the mucus secreted by the large intestine?
A) To protect the wall of the large intestine from substances moving through it
B) To protect the large intestine from pathogens
C) To break down nutrients
D) To prevent constipation
E) All of the above
Q2) Visual examination
A)-ase
B)bi/o
C)colon/o
D)endo-
E)-opsy
F)ox/i
G)-scope
H)-scopy
I)sigmoid/o
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who discovered x-rays?
A) Radcliffe
B) Roentgen
C) Pasteur
D) Fleming
Q2) What is an anteroposterior (AP) radiographic view?
A) The x-rays are directed from one side of the body to the other side.
B) The x-rays are directed from the front to the back of the body.
C) The patient is positioned at an angle.
D) The x-rays are directed from the back to the front of the body.
Q3) Before performing an IVP, the patient must be asked if he or she is allergic to
A) Penicillin
B) Beets
C) Iodine
D) Barium
Q4) An IVP is used to assist in the diagnosis of all of the following except A) Kidney stones
B) Blockage of the urinary tract
C) Growths of the urinary system
D) Urinary tract infections
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to regulate treatment?
A) A diabetic patient tests his or her blood to determine how much insulin to administer.
B) A patient undergoes a blood cholesterol screening test.
C) A CBC is performed to determine if a patient has anemia.
D) A gonorrhea test is performed on a pregnant woman as required by state law.
Q2) The purpose of quality control is to
A) Prevent accidents in the laboratory
B) Protect the medical assistant from bloodborne pathogens
C) Ensure accurate and valid test results
D) Ensure the test results fall within the normal range
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?
A) Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container
B) Talking in the laboratory
C) Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
D) Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
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Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be
A) Light amber
B) Foul-smelling
C) Yellow-brown
D) Red
Q2) A urine culture is used in the diagnosis of
A) An injury to the urinary system
B) Kidney stones
C) A urinary tract infection
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) A 24-hour urine specimen may be collected to
A) Detect the presence of liver disease
B) Diagnose a UTI
C) Determine the cause of kidney stone formation
D) Determine if a patient has diabetes mellitus
Q4) The external opening of the urethra is known as the
A) Urinary meatus
B) Urinary sphincter
C) Renal meatus
D) External os
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Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting a blood specimen using the vacuum tube method of venipuncture, venous reflux is prevented by
A) Keeping the patient's arm in a downward position
B) Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle to the patient's arm
C) Filling the evacuated tube to the exhaustion of the vacuum
D) Removing the tourniquet before withdrawing the needle from the patient's arm
Q2) Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent a vein from rolling?
A) Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein
B) Applying the tourniquet tightly
C) Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle
D) Inserting the needle 1/2 inch below the puncture site
Q3) Which of the following should not be used as a venipuncture site?
A) Scarred skin
B) Bruised skin
C) An area that is painful to the patient
D) Burned skin
E) All of the above
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19
Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following results in leukopenia?
A) Appendicitis
B) Chickenpox
C) Chemotherapy
D) Rheumatic fever
Q2) Mr. Johnson has a hematocrit reading of 60. This is considered to be
A) Increased
B) Decreased
C) Normal
D) Invalid
Q3) How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed?
A) Once each week
B) Every 2 to 4 weeks
C) Every 2 months
D) Every 6 months
Q4) An abnormal increase in the number of leukocytes is known as
A) Lymphocytosis
B) Leukopenia
C) Leukocytosis
D) Hyperleukia
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Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?
A) Standard
B) Analyte
C) Calibration
D) Control
Q2) Why is agglutination of blood a threat to life?
A) It leads to hemorrhaging.
B) It can lead to severe anemia.
C) The clumped red blood cells hemolyze.
D) It causes circulatory collapse to occur.
Q3) All of the following may result in elevated blood triglyceride levels except A) Obesity
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Type 2 diabetes
D) Smoking
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21
Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transfer of pathogens on a fine spray of moisture droplets is known as
A) Droplet infection
B) Susceptibility
C) Indirect transfer
D) Inoculation
Q2) Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing?
A) Iris diaphragm
B) Coarse adjustment
C) Substage condenser
D) Fine adjustment
Q3) A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as
A) An infectious disease
B) A contagious disease
C) An acute disease
D) Droplet infection
Q4) The causative agent of gonorrhea is a
A) Gram-negative diplococcus
B) Gram-positive rod
C) Gram-positive diplococcus
D) Gram-negative coccus
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMD?
A) To answer emergency calls
B) To obtain needed information from a caller
C) To provide consent for treatment of a conscious patient
D) To send appropriate personnel and equipment
Q2) Which of the following should not be performed when providing emergency care?
A) Obtain information about what happened from bystanders.
B) Administer care to a conscious patient who refuses it.
C) Follow the OSHA standard.
D) Do not move the patient unnecessarily.
Q3) Which of the following is not a symptom of a fracture?
A) Cyanosis
B) Pain
C) Deformity and swelling
D) Loss of function
Q4) What is another name for a stroke?
A) Paraplegia
B) Transient ischemia
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Cerebrovascular accident
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