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This course provides students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills required to perform common laboratory procedures in the medical office setting. Emphasizing safety, quality control, and infection control protocols, students learn to collect, process, and analyze samples such as blood, urine, and other bodily fluids. The course covers specimen handling, point-of-care testing, laboratory equipment operation, and the interpretation and documentation of test results. Students also explore regulatory standards, including OSHA and CLIA guidelines, and the ethical considerations of handling patient specimens, preparing them for both clinical practice and certification examinations.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laboratory tests ordered on a patient at an outside laboratory should be charted to provide documentation in case which of the following occurs?
A)The patient does not undergo the test.
B)The test results are abnormal.
C)The patient's condition gets worse.
D)The test results are negative.
Answer: B
Q2) The purpose of the tab on a file folder is to
A)hold documents in place in the folder.
B)identify the contents of the folder.
C)prevent the folder from being misfiled.
D)keep the folder closed when not in use.
Answer: B
Q3) What is an objective symptom?
A)A symptom that can be observed by another person
B)A symptom that precedes a disease
C)A symptom that is felt by the patient and cannot be observed by another
D)The symptom causing the patient the most trouble
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following used items is not an example of regulated medical waste?
A)Suture needle
B)Microbiologic collection device
C)Gauze saturated with blood
D)Urine testing strip
Answer: D
Q2) What is the purpose of the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act?
A)To ensure that an injection is administered correctly
B)To ensure the proper disposal of sharps
C)To reduce the chance of infection developing at the injection site
D)To reduce needlestick injuries among health care workers
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following are picked up in the course of daily activities,are attached loosely to the skin,and are often pathogenic?
A)Transient flora
B)Normal flora
C)Opportunistic infections
D)Resident flora
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sterilization strips should be positioned
A)on the bottom tray of the autoclave.
B)on the top tray of the autoclave.
C)in the center of the wrapped pack.
D)on the outside of the pack.
Answer: C
Q2) Why should all organic matter be removed from an article before it is disinfected?
A)To prevent the article from rusting
B)To prevent stains on the article
C)To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the article
D)To ensure the proper working condition of the article
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?
A)They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule.
B)They represent a resting and protective stage.
C)They are more resistant to heat.
D)They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants.
E)All of the above are characteristics of bacterial spores.
Answer: E
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occurs,all of which are above normal?
A)Crisis
B)Remittent
C)Intermittent
D)Continuous
Q2) If an axillary temperature of 100° F was taken orally,it would register as
A)98° F.
B)99° F.
C)100° F.
D)101° F.
Q3) Which of the following are symptoms that may occur during the course of a fever?
A)Headache
B)Increased pulse and respirations
C)Increased thirst
D)Loss of appetite
E)All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk factor means that
A)a patient will develop a certain disease.
B)a patient must avoid foods that trigger an allergic reaction.
C)a patient has a genetic disorder.
D)the chances are increased of a patient developing a certain disease.
Q2) Weight
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q3) The reason for weighing a prenatal patient is to
A)detect the presence of twins.
B)determine if the fetus is growing.
C)determine the due date.
D)ensure the placenta is developing normally.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Visual acuity refers to
A)sharpness of vision.
B)the ability to distinguish colors.
C)an error of refraction.
D)a weakness in muscle tone of the eye.
Q2) Which of the following can result in sensorineural hearing loss?
A)Impacted cerumen
B)Intense noise
C)Otitis media
D)Otosclerosis
E)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following structures functions in maintaining equilibrium?
A)Cochlea
B)Auditory nerve
C)Ear ossicles
D)Semicircular canals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of forearm crutches?
A)The patient can use his or her hands.
B)They make it easier to move around in a crowd.
C)They are inexpensive.
D)They fold up when not in use.
Q2) The purpose of a stockinette is to
A)prevent pressure areas.
B)provide patient comfort.
C)reduce edema.
D)facilitate healing.
E)achieve all of the above.
Q3) When explaining the use of a heating pad,the medical assistant should instruct a patient to
A)lie on the pad.
B)use pins to secure the pad in place.
C)adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm.
D)place a protective covering over the pad.
E)do all of the above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the LMP?
A)The date of the last day of the last menstrual period
B)The duration of the last menstrual period
C)The date of the first day of the last menstrual period
D)The length of the interval between menstrual periods
Q2) Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination?
A)For easier insertion of the vaginal speculum
B)To make the examination easier for the patient
C)To make it easier for the physician to perform the bimanual pelvic examination
D)To reduce patient discomfort
E)All of the above
Q3) If left untreated,a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in
A)pelvic inflammatory disease.
B)cervical cancer.
C)dysmenorrhea.
D)cervical erosion.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an important reason for weighing a child?
A)To determine the proper dosage of medication for the child
B)To compare the child's weight with weights of other children of the same age
C)To determine if the child is deficient in vitamins and minerals
D)To assess the rate of brain growth
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following indicates the proper cuff size has been selected for a pediatric patient?
A)The cuff fits snugly on the child's arm.
B)The cuff is positioned at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow.
C)The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% to 100% of the child's arm.
D)The bladder is centered over the antecubital space.
Q3) Which of the following immunizations can be administered to a newborn?
A)Hepatitis B
B)DTaP
C)Polio
D)MMR
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter?
A)Surgical silk, 2-0
B)Surgical silk, 4-0
C)Surgical silk, 1
D)Surgical silk, 4
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of adhesive skin closures except
A)they are easy to apply.
B)a local anesthetic is not required for their application.
C)they result in less scarring than sutures.
D)they are stronger than skin sutures.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma?
A)Asymmetric
B)Irregular border
C)Color varies from one area to another
D)Diameter larger than a pencil eraser
E)All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following categories includes drugs that have a high potential for abuse and accepted medical use?
A)Schedule I
B)Schedule II
C)Schedule III
D)Schedule IV
Q2) Which of the following is an example of administering medication?
A)The physician writes a prescription for a medication.
B)A medical assistant gives an IM injection to a patient.
C)A physician gives a patient drug samples to take at home.
D)A medical assistant performs a venipuncture.
Q3) The term parenteral refers to
A)sites located outside the gastrointestinal tract.
B)intramuscular injection sites.
C)administration of medication PO.
D)topical administration of medication.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are patient preparation requirements for spirometry except
A)do not eat a heavy meal for 8 hours before the test.
B)wear loose, nonrestrictive clothing.
C)do not take aspirin for 4 hours before the test.
D)stop smoking at least 8 hours before the test.
Q2) How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized?
A)5 mm
B)10 mm
C)15 mm
D)20 mm
Q3) What information is included on a prescription for home oxygen therapy?
A)Amount of oxygen needed by the patient
B)Duration of oxygen needed by the patient
C)Recommended oxygen delivery system
D)Administration device
E)All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal range for a PSA test is _____ ng/mL.
A)0 to 4
B)4 to 10
C)10 to 20
D)greater than 20
Q2) Which of the following increases the PSA level?
A)Fasting
B)Smoking
C)Vigorous exercise
D)Alcohol consumption
Q3) Which of the following may result in a false-positive test result on a guaiac slide test?
A)Taking aspirin
B)Eating red meat
C)Eating foods containing peroxidase
D)Performing the test during a menstrual period
E)All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) An IVP is used to assist in the diagnosis of all of the following except A)kidney stones.
B)blockage of the urinary tract.
C)growths of the urinary system.
D)urinary tract infections.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging?
A)It is safe and painless.
B)The patient must remove all metal before the procedure.
C)The patient must remain still during the procedure.
D)The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.
E)All of the above are correct characteristics.
Q3) All of the following are methods used to administer a contrast medium except A)oral administration.
B)subcutaneous injection.
C)IV.
D)enema.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not found in a laboratory directory?
A)Names and CPT codes of the tests performed by the laboratory
B)Patient preparation required for laboratory tests
C)Amount and type of specimen required by the laboratory
D)Instructions for testing specimens
E)Handling and storage of laboratory specimens
Q2) All of the following are included in a lipid profile except A)glucose.
B)total cholesterol.
C)HDL cholesterol.
D)triglycerides.
Q3) What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests?
A)Body temperature
B)Room temperature
C)A very cold temperature
D)A temperature between 100° F and 104° F
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen,a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet before obtaining the specimen to
A)remove pathogens from the bladder.
B)ensure the collection of an adequate amount of urine.
C)prevent irritation of the urethra.
D)flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra.
Q2) Which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip?
A)Using a freshly voided urine specimen
B)Touching the reagent areas with the fingers
C)Completely immersing the reagent areas in the urine specimen
D)Holding the reagent strip in a horizontal position when reading results
E)None of the above
Q3) When a patient has a urinary tract infection,all of the following tests may be positive except
A)nitrite.
B)protein.
C)ketone bodies.
D)leukocytes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following results in patient discomfort during the venipuncture procedure?
A)Allowing the alcohol to dry before making the puncture
B)Moving the needle after it has been inserted into the vein
C)Using the flange to change from one tube to another
D)Removing the needle at the same angle as insertion
Q2) On palpation,a scarred vein feels
A)elastic and pliable.
B)stiff and hard.
C)soft and pliable.
D)swollen.
Q3) Which of the following is the proper method for identifying a patient before performing a venipuncture?
A)State the patient's full name and DOB and ask the patient to verify this information.
B)Ask the patient to state his or her full name and date of last visit.
C)Ask the patient to state his or her full name and DOB.
D)Ask the patient for two forms of written identification.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an adult,red blood cells are formed in the red bone marrow of the A)ribs.
B)sternum.
C)skull.
D)ends of the long bones of the limbs.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) What is the normal range for a platelet count for an adult (in platelets per cubic millimeter of blood)?
A)5000 to 10,000
B)12 to 16
C)180,000 to 300,000
D)150,000 to 400,000
Q3) Which of the following red blood cell indices measures the average size of a single red blood cell?
A)MCV
B)MCH
C)MCHC
D)RDW
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the cholesterol found in the blood comes from
A)dietary cholesterol intake.
B)being manufactured by the liver.
C)saturated fat.
D)cellulite.
Q2) What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?
A)Standard
B)Analyte
C)Calibration
D)Control
Q3) All of the following are handling and storage requirements for blood glucose reagent test strips except
A)remove the desiccant after opening a new test strip container.
B)store in a cool, dry area.
C)store at room temperature.
D)store with the cap tightly closed.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The invasion of the body by a pathogenic microorganism is known as A)inflammation.
B)infection.
C)disease.
D)susceptibility.
Q2) When viewed under a microscope,gram-positive bacteria
A)appear pink or red.
B)exhibit motility.
C)appear purple.
D)sing America the Beautiful.
Q3) Syphilis is caused by a A)spirochete.
B)bacillus.
C)Streptococcus.
D)Diplococcus.
Q4) A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as A)an infectious disease.
B)a contagious disease.
C)an acute disease.
D)droplet infection.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following spiders can cause a serious or life-threatening reaction?
A)Wolfe spider
B)Daddy long legs
C)Brown recluse spider
D)The itsy-bitsy spider that went up the water spout
Q2) What is another name for a stroke?
A)Paraplegia
B)Transient ischemia
C)Coronary artery disease
D)Cerebrovascular accident
Q3) What type of shock is caused by a reaction of the body to a substance to which an individual is highly allergic?
A)Psychogenic
B)Status asthmaticus
C)Anaphylactic
D)Allergenic
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