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Medical Assistant Clinical Training is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the practical skills and knowledge necessary for supporting physicians and healthcare teams in a clinical setting. The curriculum covers fundamental topics such as patient vital signs assessment, phlebotomy, EKG administration, specimen collection, infection control procedures, assisting with medical examinations, and basic laboratory techniques. Emphasis is placed on building professional communication, patient care, and ethical practices. Through hands-on training and supervised clinical experiences, students will gain the confidence and competence required to perform essential medical assistant duties, ensuring safe and effective patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 8th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1262 Verified Questions
1262 Flashcards
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Q1) Which of the following questions should be used to elicit the chief complaint from a patient?
A) Where does it hurt?
B) Are you sick?
C) How long have you been ill?
D) What seems to be the problem?
E) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not included on a medication record for medication administered at the office?
A) Name of the medication
B) Route of administration
C) Dosage administered
D) Number of refills
Answer: D
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Q1) What term is used to describe a physical or mechanical device used to remove health hazards from the workplace?
A) Engineering control
B) Work practice control
C) Personal protective equipment
D) Universal precaution
Answer: A
Q2) What term is used to describe a microorganism that does not produce disease?
A) Sterile
B) Aseptic
C) Nonpathogen
D) Pathogen
Answer: C
Q3) All of the following make a person less resistant to a pathogen except
A) Poor nutrition
B) Immunizations
C) Poor hygiene
D) Stress
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period of time that a disinfecting solution is effective after it has been activated is known as its
A) Reuse life
B) Shelf life
C) Use life
D) Expiration date
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following represents an error in technique during the chemical disinfection procedure?
A) Sanitizing articles before disinfecting them
B) Opening hinged instruments before placing them in the disinfectant
C) Completely immersing articles in the chemical disinfectant
D) Making sure articles are wet before immersing them in the disinfectant
Answer: D
Q3) High-level disinfection is a process that
A) Destroys all pathogenic microorganisms
B) Destroys all microorganisms and spores
C) Destroys all microorganisms except tubercle bacilli
D) Destroys all microorganisms but not spores
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pulse sites is often used to monitor pulse during exercise?
A) Temporal
B) Carotid
C) Ulnar
D) Dorsalis pedis
Q2) All of the following can be used as a probe placement site except the
A) Toe
B) Earlobe
C) Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied
D) Index finger
Q3) The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is
A) SaO<sub>2</sub>
B) PCO<sub>2</sub>
C) PO<sub>2</sub>
D) SpO<sub>2</sub>
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Q1) Eye
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q2) Which of the following is an example of percussion?
A) Measuring pulse
B) Testing reflexes with a rubber hammer
C) Testing hearing with a tuning fork
D) Listening to breath sounds
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic procedure?
A) Electrocardiography
B) Antibiotic injection
C) CT scan
D) Sigmoidoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/40 in the left eye. At what distance would a person with normal acuity be able to read this line?
A) 20 feet
B) 30 feet
C) 40 feet
D) 60 feet
Q2) The function of cerumen is to
A) Inhibit the growth of pathogens
B) Lubricate and protect the ear canal
C) Facilitate the transmission of sound waves
D) Stabilize air pressure in the middle ear
Q3) Tympanometry is most useful in diagnosing patients with A) Serous otitis media
B) Conductive hearing loss
C) Sensorineural hearing loss
D) Auditory nerve damage
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Q1) The purpose of a stockinette is to
A) Prevent pressure areas
B) Provide patient comfort
C) Reduce edema
D) Facilitate healing
E) All of the above
Q2) What is the name of the crutch stance that is used before crutch walking?
A) Two-point position
B) Quad position
C) Four-point position
D) Tripod position
Q3) If axillary crutches have been properly fitted
A) The shoulders are bent over the crutches
B) Two fingers can be inserted between the top of the crutch and the axilla
C) The elbow is flexed at an angle of 45 degrees
D) The shoulder rest presses lightly against the axilla
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Sample Questions
Q1) Woman
A)colp/o
B)dys-
C)ecto-
D)endo-
E)gravid/o
F)gynec/o
G)men/o
H)nat/o
I)-ology
J)-orrhea
K)-scopy
Q2) What is the EDD of a patient whose LMP was September 5, 2011?
A) 12/12/12
B) 6/2/12
C) 6/12/12
D) 12/2/12
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resistance of the body to pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins is known as A) Immunization
B) Inflammation
C) Immunity
D) Contagious
Q2) How is length measured?
A) The child lies in a supine position.
B) The child stands with his or her back to the measuring device.
C) The child sits in a chair with both feet flat on the floor.
D) The child lies in a prone position.
Q3) The first pediatric well-child visit is usually scheduled at A) 1 week
B) 1 month
C) 2 months
D) 4 months
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Q1) The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Healing
D) Immunity
Q2) What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges?
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
Q3) What is the term for a mole that is present at birth?
A) Congenital nevi
B) Acquired nevi
C) Raised mole
D) Flat mole
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Q1) What is the term for administration of fluids, medications, or nutrients through the IV route?
A) Transfusion
B) IV drip
C) Infusion
D) Chemotherapy
Q2) The Z-track method is used to administer medications that
A) Are poorly absorbed
B) Are irritating to subcutaneous tissue
C) Are likely to cause a drug interaction
D) Are thick and oily
E) All of the above
Q3) When withdrawing medication from a vial, the needle must be inserted below the fluid level to
A) Prevent altering the effectiveness of the medication
B) Prevent the entrance of air bubbles into the syringe
C) Prevent the entrance of air bubbles into the vial
D) Avoid dulling the point of the needle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What structure in the heart delays the electrical impulse momentarily to allow for complete contraction of the atria and filling of the ventricles with blood from the atria?
A) Bundle of His
B) AV node
C) SA node
D) Cuspid valves
Q2) Leads 1, 2, and 3 are the
A) Bipolar leads
B) Chest leads
C) Augmented leads
D) Precordial leads
Q3) An electrolyte must be used when running an ECG to
A) Facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses of the heart
B) Reduce the amount of dryness of the skin
C) Protect the patient from shocks that are generated by the electrocardiograph
D) Amplify the electrical impulses coming from the heart
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Q1) All of the following medications must be discontinued before and during guaiac slide testing except
A) Aspirin
B) Antihistamines
C) Iron supplements
D) Vitamin C
Q2) Oxygen
A)-ase
B)bi/o
C)colon/o
D)endo-
E)-opsy
F)ox/i
G)-scope
H)-scopy
I)sigmoid/o
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Q1) Which of the following is not a form of patient preparation for a lower GI radiographic examination?
A) Consume only clear liquids the day before the examination.
B) Take a laxative the day before the examination.
C) Do not drink anything (except water) beginning after midnight on the day before the examination.
D) Take tablets containing a contrast medium the evening before the examination.
Q2) Who discovered x-rays?
A) Radcliffe
B) Roentgen
C) Pasteur
D) Fleming
Q3) All of the following are methods used to administer a contrast medium except
A) Oral administration
B) Subcutaneous injection
C) IV
D) Enema
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Q1) Detection of abnormal cells is known as
A) Hematology
B) Immunology and blood banking
C) Clinical chemistry
D) Cytology
E) Histology
Q2) If a laboratory report is returned to the medical office marked QNS, ir means that
A) An insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted
B) The patient did not prepare properly for the test
C) The test results fall outside of the normal range
D) A contaminated specimen was submitted
Q3) All of the following are an example of a CLIA-waived test except
A) Fecal occult blood testing
B) Urine pregnancy testing
C) Blood glucose determination
D) Microscopic analysis of urine sediment
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Q1) The function of the urinary bladder is to
A) Dilute toxic waste products
B) Store and expel urine
C) Reabsorb substances needed by the body
D) Regulate body metabolism
Q2) Blood may normally be present in the urine because of
A) Pregnancy
B) Cystitis
C) Menstruation
D) Vigorous physical exercise
Q3) Polyuria may be caused by
A) Excessive intake of fluids
B) Consumption of caffeine
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Taking a diuretic
E) All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting a venous blood specimen to be transported to an outside laboratory for testing, which of the following should be consulted for information on collecting and handling requirements?
A) Laboratory directory
B) Manufacturer's instructions of the test system
C) Physicians' Desk Reference
D) Medical dictionary
Q2) Which of the following results in patient discomfort during the venipuncture procedure?
A) Allowing the alcohol to dry before making the puncture
B) Moving the needle after it has been inserted into the vein
C) Using the flange to change from one tube to another
D) Removing the needle at the same angle as insertion
Q3) Which of the following indicates the correct order of draw for the vacuum tube method of venipuncture?
A) Red, green, lavender, gray
B) Red, lavender, gray, green
C) Lavender, red, gray, green
D) Red, gray, lavender, green
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Q1) Which of the following results in leukopenia?
A) Appendicitis
B) Chickenpox
C) Chemotherapy
D) Rheumatic fever
Q2) Which of the following is the largest white blood cell?
A) Neutrophil
B) Basophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Monocyte
E) Eosinophil
Q3) Mrs. Nelson has a white blood cell count of 14,500. This is considered to be
A) Within the reference range
B) Above the reference range
C) Below the reference range
D) An inaccurate test result
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Q1) All of the following contain cholesterol except
A) Fruit juice
B) Whole milk
C) Liver
D) Egg yolk
Q2) The purpose of quality control is to
A) Prevent accidents in the laboratory
B) Protect the medical assistant from bloodborne pathogens
C) Ensure accurate and valid test results
D) Ensure the test results fall within the normal range
E) All of the above
Q3) What is the purpose of SMBG testing?
A) To maintain good blood glucose control
B) To delay or prevent long-term complications of diabetes
C) To test blood glucose when a side effect common to diabetes occurs
D) To make decisions regarding insulin dosage, meal planning, and physical activity
E) All of the above
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
A) Chickenpox
B) Tetanus
C) Mumps
D) Rubella
Q2) Which of the following microorganisms is identified by observing its motility under the microscope?
A) Candida albicans
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q3) Streptococci cause all of the following conditions except
A) Scarlet fever
B) Streptococcal sore throat
C) Rheumatic fever
D) Tuberculosis
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Q1) In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain?
A) Tonic-clonic
B) Partial
C) Generalized
D) Status epilepticus
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a partial-thickness burn?
A) It extends into the dermis.
B) The burned area appears red and mottled.
C) There is little pain involved.
D) Blistering occurs.
Q3) What is another name for a stroke?
A) Paraplegia
B) Transient ischemia
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Cerebrovascular accident
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