Medical Assistant Certification Preparation
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course is designed to thoroughly prepare students for the national Medical Assistant Certification examination. Covering core topics such as medical terminology, anatomy and physiology, medical office administration, clinical procedures, pharmacology, and patient care, the course integrates both theoretical knowledge and practical skills. Students will engage in hands-on practice with procedures like taking vital signs, administering injections, performing EKGs, and maintaining medical records. Emphasis is placed on workplace professionalism, communication, and ethical standards in healthcare. By the end of the course, participants will be equipped with the knowledge and competencies essential for success as certified medical assistants in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by
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50 Chapters
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3010 Flashcards
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Page 2
Kathy Bonewit
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dermatology
A)Branch of medical practice that seeks to balance the structure and function of the body through manipulation of muscles and joints; given all privileges of those with MD degrees
B)Specializes in conditions of the skin
C)Provides anesthesia during surgery and other procedures
D)Utilizes manipulations to treat spinal subluxations, affecting the spine and related neural structures
E)Provides general medical care of children and adolescents
F)Treats those with allergies and problems of the immune system
G)Treat disorders of the feet and ankles
H)Specializes in the care of the ear, nose, and throat
I)Treats adults and children for routine care and complaints
J)Treatment of the internal organs of adults by other than surgical means
K)Performs surgical treatment of the large intestine and rectum
L)Specializes in surgical care of bone and joint injuries and disorders
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maintaining confidentiality is part of a medical assistant's ethical responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is a means for medical assisting programs to demonstrate high quality?
A) Advertising in professional journals
B) Gaining and maintaining accreditation
C) Establishing programs that last at least 2 years
D) Including a practical experience in the program
Answer: B
Q3) It is often the medical assistant's responsibility to educate patients about office procedures and policies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Identify resources and adaptations that are required based on individual needs-i.e. culture and environment, developmental life stage, language, and physical threats to communication
Answer: not answered
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name for the party against whom the lawsuit is brought, whether this is a doctor, medical facility, or hospital?
A) Accused
B) Defendant
C) Contractor
D) Plaintiff
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is the best description of informed consent?
A) The patient signs a "Permission to Operate" form.
B) The patient is told in great technical detail about the treatment or operation.
C) The patient is told by the physician about any risks, hazards, or possible complications associated with the treatment in terms that the patient fully understands before submitting to treatment.
D) The patient dictates his or her consent to the medical assistant, who copies the agreement onto the medical chart, and then the patient signs it.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify techniques for overcoming communication barriers
Q2) Recognize communication barriers
Q3) To demonstrate caring to a patient that is sitting in an examining room chair, the medical assistant should remain standing while talking to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a closed question?
A) "What is the reason for your visit today?"
B) "Are you an only child?"
C) "Can you describe your pain for me?"
D) "What are your plans for the future?"
Q5) If a patient facing a serious illness appears to be using denial, how should the medical assistant respond?
A) Agree with the patient that the illness is minor.
B) Tell the patient that he or she does not appear to be facing reality.
C) Accept the denial without reinforcing it.
D) Reassure that patient that everything will probably turn out well.
Q6) Differentiate between adaptive and non-adaptive coping mechanisms
Q7) Identify nonverbal communication
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many pairs of chromosomes are present in a human cell?
A) 2
B) 8
C) 23
D) 46
Q2) What makes up the fetal skeleton until bone is laid down?
A) Elastic cartilage
B) Hyaline cartilage
C) Fibrocartilage
D) Epithelial tissue
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of adipose tissue?
A) Forms a protective cushion around the kidneys
B) Protects the body from invasion by pathogens
C) Insulates the body
D) Provides a storage material for energy
Q4) The microscopic study of tissues is known as
A) Microbiology
B) Cytology
C) Embryology
D) Histology
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify body systems
Q2) What are the two layers making up the skin?
A) Epidermis and cuticle
B) Dermis and subcutaneous layer
C) Stratum basale and reticular layer
D) Epidermis and dermis
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Which of the following body areas does NOT contain hair?
A) Face
B) Arms
C) Palms of the hands
D) Back
Q7) Which of the following occurs during keratinization of the epidermis?
A) Cells become filled with keratin
B) Cells move toward the surface
C) Cells become flat and die
D) Cells are sloughed off
E) All of the above
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the thoracic cage?
A) Protects the heart
B) Supports the bones of the shoulder girdle
C) Provides support for the weight of the body
D) Protects the lungs
Q2) Which of the following is made up of flat bones?
A) Wrist bones
B) Sternum
C) Vertebrae
D) Bones of the cranium
Q3) Which of the following is located in the medullary cavity of a long bone?
A) Yellow bone marrow
B) Synovial fluid
C) Osteoblasts
D) Blood vessels
Q4) List major organs in each body system
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q8) Describe the normal function of each body system
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stimulates skeletal muscle to contract?
A) Motor neurons
B) Dendrites
C) Sensory neurons
D) Mitochondria
Q2) What is another name for the calcaneal tendon?
A) Achilles tendon
B) Ankle
C) Insole
D) Plantar tendon
Q3) Which of the following muscles does NOT move the shoulder and upper arm?
A) Trapezius
B) Pectoralis major
C) Biceps brachii
D) Deltoid
Q4) Most of the heat produced by the body is through
A) Visceral muscle contractions
B) Digestion
C) Skeletal muscle contractions
D) Shivering
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Terminology
Q2) The peripheral nervous system is made up of
A) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves
B) Effectors and ganglia
C) Cranial nerves and the brain
D) Reflex arcs
Q3) The function of a neuron is to
A) Transmit nerve impulses
B) Synthesize myelin
C) Regenerate nerve fibers
D) Protect nerves from damage
E) All of the above
Q4) What is the name of the region of communication between two neurons?
A) Action potential
B) Threshold stimulus
C) Synapse
D) Internet
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) List major organs in each body system
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nerves carries taste impulses from the posterior one third of the tongue to the brain?
A) Olfactory nerve
B) Facial nerve
C) Vestibular nerve
D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
Q2) Which of the following part of the brain interprets visual impulses?
A) Temporal lobe
B) Parietal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Frontal lobe
Q3) What area of the brain interprets smell sensations?
A) Olfactory cortex
B) Gustatory cortex
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Auditory cortex
Q4) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q7) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q2) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A) On the posterior surface of the thyroid glands
B) Above the kidneys
C) At the base of the brain
D) Just below the pancreas
Q3) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
A)Stimulates growth of bones, muscles, and other organs
B)Causes thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone
C)Promotes reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules
D)Reacts with receptor sites in the adrenal gland to stimulate secretion of cortical hormone
E)Promotes development of glandular tissue in female breast during pregnancy
F)Stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes
G)Causes ovulation to occur
H)Causes contraction of smooth muscle in wall of uterus
Q4) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) List major organs in each body system
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the names of the two arteries that branch off the aorta to supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients?
A) Pulmonary veins
B) Carotid arteries
C) Coronary arteries
D) Inferior vena cava
Q2) Which of the following carries blood toward the heart?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Arterioles
D) Capillaries
Q3) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q4) Normal range is 50-70%
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q5) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q6) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What makes up the vocal cords?
A) Tendons
B) Muscle
C) Ligaments
D) Simple squamous epithelium
Q2) The respiratory center is located in the
A) Pons and medulla of the brain stem
B) Cerebellum
C) Hypothalamus
D) Occipital lobe
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Which of the following receives air, food, and water from the oral cavity?
A) Nasopharynx
B) Oropharynx
C) Laryngopharynx
D) Trachea
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) List major organs in each body system
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q8) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes the release of gastric juice during the gastric phase of digestion?
A) Thinking about food
B) Smelling food
C) Presence of food in the stomach
D) Passage of chyme through the pyloric sphincter
Q2) Which of the following acts as a valve between the stomach and small intestine?
A) Cardiac sphincter
B) Pyloric sphincter
C) Esophageal sphincter
D) Fauces
Q3) How long does it take the stomach to empty after eating a meal?
A) 1 hour
B) 4 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 12 hours
Q4) Which of the following begins the chemical digestion of protein?
A) Pepsinogen
B) Amylase
C) Gastrin
D) Pepsin
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following controls the passage of urine through the urethra?
A) Collecting duct
B) Trigone
C) Urethral orifice
D) Internal and external sphincters
Q2) What makes up the glomerulus?
A) Hyaline cartilage
B) Cluster of capillaries
C) Neurons
D) Loose connective tissue
Q3) What is the function of the ureters?
A) Transport urine from the urinary bladder to the outside
B) Filters the urine
C) Transport urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
D) Assist in expelling urine from the urinary bladder
Q4) Which of the following is the longest part of the male urethra?
A) Membranous urethra
B) Prostatic urethra
C) Spongy urethra
D) Urethral orifice
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sperm are propelled through the ductus deferens by A) Gravity
B) A series of valves
C) Peristalsis
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) Where does fertilization usually take place?
A) In the uterus
B) In the fallopian tube
C) In the vagina
D) In the peritoneal cavity
Q3) Which of the following hormones causes the ejection of milk from the mammary glands?
A) Prolactin
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) Oxytocin
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Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common side effect of the hepatitis B vaccine is A) Nausea
B) Hives
C) Irritability
D) Soreness at the injection site
Q2) Patients with chronic hepatitis B face an increased risk of developing A) Liver cancer
B) Pancreatitis
C) Rheumatic heart disease
D) Gallstones
Q3) Microorganisms can be transmitted through A) Droplet infection
B) Insects
C) Contaminated food
D) Contaminated equipment
E) All of the above
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Q2) The inside of the autoclave should be wiped every day with
A) A damp cloth
B) A disinfectant
C) A low-sudsing detergent
D) A scouring pad
Q3) Identify safety signs, symbols, and labels
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Compare different methods of controlling the growth of microorganisms
Q6) The most reliable sterilization indicators check for
A) Attainment of the proper temperature and the duration of the temperature
B) Whether the article has been in the autoclave
C) Attainment of the proper temperature and pressure
D) Presence of trapped air in the autoclave
Q7) The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is
A) 320 °F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
B) 145 °F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
C) 212 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
D) 250 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is
A) 95-99%
B) 90-95%
C) 85-90%
D) 75-85%
Q2) Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure?
A) Radial
B) Brachial
C) Apical
D) Carotid
Q3) If a rectal temperature of 99 °F was taken orally, it would register as
A) 97 °F
B) 98 °F
C) 99 °F
D) 100 °F
Q4) A temperature of 97.6 °F is classified as
A) Normal
B) Hypothermia
C) Subnormal
D) Low-grade fever
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of a speculum is to
A) Measure intraocular pressure
B) Grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping
C) Clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis
D) Open a body orifice or cavity for viewing
Q2) The purpose of draping a patient is to
A) Make it easier for the physician to examine the patient
B) Assist the physician in making a diagnosis
C) Protect the patient from pathogens
D) Provide patient with warmth and modesty
E) All of the above
Q3) The patient's height should be measured to the nearest
A) (<sup>1</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch)
B) ¼ inch
C) ½ inch
D) 1 inch
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q7) Psychology of Human Relations
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Snellen Big E chart is used for assessing
A) Elderly individuals
B) Individuals with cataracts
C) Preschoolers
D) School-age children
Q2) Eardrum
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
K)stigma/a
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q2) Canes are used most frequently for individuals with
A) An amputated lower extremity
B) Weakness on one side of the body
C) Poor muscular coordination
D) Paralysis of the lower extremities
Q3) If axillary crutches have been properly fitted,
A) The shoulders are bent over the crutches
B) Two fingers can be inserted between the top of the crutch and the axilla
C) The elbow is flexed at an angle of 45 degrees
D) The shoulder rest presses lightly against the axilla
Q4) Chemical cold packs should be stored
A) At body temperature
B) At room temperature
C) In the refrigerator
D) In an airtight container
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q8) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a woman who has been pregnant more than once?
A) Primigravida
B) Gestation
C) Multigravida
D) Multipara
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector?
A) The FHT can first be detected between 2 and 4 weeks of gestation.
B) The fetal heart rate is digitally displayed on a screen.
C) Sound waves are used to detect the fetal pulse.
D) A coupling gel must be used to increase conductivity.
Q3) Medical Terminology
Q4) Organize technical information and summaries
Q5) The purpose of the maturation index is to
A) Provide the physician with an endocrine evaluation
B) Diagnose pregnancy
C) Determine the presence of a vaginal infection
D) Detect a precancerous condition of the cervix
E) All of the above
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Q6) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss all levels of governmental legislation and regulations as they apply to medical assisting practice, including FDA and DEA regulations
Q2) Head circumference is measured in
A) Millimeters
B) Grams
C) Centimeters or inches
D) Microns
Q3) What immunizations are included in an MMR injection?
A) Meningitis, mumps, rubella
B) Measles, mumps, rubella
C) Measles, mumps, chickenpox
D) Measles, hepatitis, rubella
Q4) Which of the following injection sites should be used to administer IM injections to infants and young children?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Vastus lateralis
C) Deltoid
D) Ventrogluteal
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to immobilize a sprained ankle?
A) An elastic bandage using a figure-eight turn
B) Roller gauze using a spiral turn
C) A long leg cast
D) A tubular gauze bandage
Q2) After a sterile dressing change, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to
A) Keep the dressing dry
B) Keep the dressing clean
C) Contact the office if signs of inflammation occur
D) Return for further care as directed by the physician
E) All of the above
Q3) What patient position is used to perform a colposcopy?
A) Lithotomy
B) Supine
C) Sims
D) Knee-chest
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Discuss infection control procedures
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac glycoside
A)Used to manage high blood pressure
B)Increases strength and force of myocardial contractions and slows heart rate
C)Suppresses inflammation and modifies normal immune response
D)Neutralizes gastric acid to relieve gastric pain and irritation
E)Removes excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output
F)Relieves symptoms of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
G)Used to prevent or relieve coughs
H)Promotes clearance of mucus from respiratory tract
I)Kills or inhibits growth of bacteria
J)Used to relieve constipation
K)Used to lower cholesterol
L)Used to treat and prevent osteoporosis
M)Promotes sleep by CNS depression
N)Used to manage moderate-to-severe pain
O)Inhibits ovulation
P)Relieves symptoms associated with allergies
Q2) Identify the classifications of medications, including desired effects, side effects, and adverse reactions
Q3) Pharmacology
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical voltage received by the electrocardiograph is changed to mechanical motion in the
A) Stylus
B) Galvanometer
C) Amplifier
D) Patient cable
Q2) T wave
A)Represents the time interval from the beginning of ventricular depolarization to the end of repolarization of the ventricles
B)Represents the electrical recovery of the ventricles
C)Represents the contraction of the ventricles
D)Represents the time from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of repolarization of the ventricles
E)Represents the contraction of the atria
F)Represents the time from the end of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization
G)Represents the time from the beginning of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization
H)Represents the period of time when the heart restsECG Components
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instrument for visual examination
A)-ase
B)bi/o
C)colon/o
D)endo-
E)-opsy
F)ox/i
G)-scope
H)-scopy
I)sigmoid/o
Q2) The function of the prostate gland is to
A) Store sperm
B) Secrete fluid that transports sperm
C) Secrete testosterone
D) Produce sperm
Q3) Which of the following increases the PSA level?
A) Fasting
B) Smoking
C) Vigorous exercise
D) Alcohol consumption Page 30
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Law and Ethics
Q2) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q3) Which of the following is NOT included in a lipid profile?
A) Glucose
B) Total cholesterol
C) HDL cholesterol
D) Triglycerides
Q4) What is the term for a test result that indicates whether a substance is present in the specimen being tested and provides an approximate indication of the amount of the substance present?
A) Quantitative test result
B) Positive test result
C) Negative test result
D) Qualitative test result
Q5) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
Q6) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q7) Discuss all levels of governmental legislation and regulation as they apply to medical assisting practice, including FDA and DEA regulations
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bilirubin
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q2) Which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has hepatitis?
A) Glucose
B) Protein
C) Bilirubin
D) Ketone bodies
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Medical Terminology
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Q1) What may occur if a finger puncture is made that is deeper than 3.1 mm?
A) Damage to nerves in the finger
B) Penetration of the bone
C) Inaccurate test results
D) Excessive bleeding
Q2) On standing, a blood specimen to which an anticoagulant has been added separates into
A) Plasma and blood cells
B) Serum and blood cells
C) Plasma, buffy coat, and blood cells
D) Serum, buffy coat, and blood cells
Q3) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
Q4) Phlebotomy includes which of the following?
A) Skin punctures
B) Arterial punctures
C) Venipunctures
D) All of the above
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood condition
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q2) Mr. Johnson has a hematocrit reading of 60. This is considered to be
A) Increased
B) Decreased
C) Normal
D) Invalid
Q3) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results?
A) Outdated testing reagents
B) Error in technique
C) Improper storage of testing components
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following CANNOT result in elevated blood triglyceride levels?
A) Obesity
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Type 2 diabetes
D) Smoking
Q3) Which of the following is a screening test for syphilis?
A) STD
B) VDRL
C) RRP
D) ASO
Q4) Which of the following does NOT contain cholesterol?
A) Fruit juice
B) Whole milk
C) Liver
D) Egg yolk
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?
A) Chickenpox
B) Tetanus
C) Mumps
D) Rubella
Q2) Which of the following could result in the medical assistant becoming infected with a pathogen?
A) Eating while testing a microbiologic specimen
B) Licking a label for a specimen container
C) Having an open sore on the hand
D) Drinking coffee in the office laboratory
E) All of the above
Q3) The high-power objective has a magnification of
A) 10×
B) 40×
C) 60×
D) 100×
Q4) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q5) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q6) Medical Laboratory Procedures
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) With what type of bleeding is there is a slow and steady flow of dark red blood?
A) Capillary
B) Venous
C) Arterial
D) Profuse
Q2) What is the name of the individual who is qualified to perform advanced life support measures?
A) EMT-Basic
B) EMT-Paramedic
C) MLT
D) EMD
Q3) What is another name for a stroke?
A) Paraplegia
B) Transient ischemia
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Cerebrovascular accident
Q4) Discuss potential role(s) of the medical assistant in emergency preparednes
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Medical Terminology
Q7) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Q1) Which of the following is included on a medication record for medication administered at the office?
A) Name of the medication
B) Route of administration
C) Dosage administered
D) Number of refills
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included in the database section of a POR?
A) Health history report
B) Physical examination report
C) Baseline laboratory test results
D) Plan of treatment
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the medical record?
A) To provide information for making decisions regarding the patient's care
B) To document the patient's progress
C) To serve as a legal document
D) To share information between members of the patient's family
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/ Management:
Q5) Pharmacology:
Q6) Identify types of records common to the health care setting
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why may some physicians in a practice not be accepting patients?
A) They are planning to retire or move
B) They have joined the practice very recently
C) They want to pick and choose patients with interesting conditions
D) They have not yet chosen a medical specialty
E) All of the above
Q2) How many folders are necessary to set up a manual tickler file?
A) 12
B) 31
C) 43
D) 365
Q3) Describe banking procedures
Q4) What is the purpose of a sliding window between the waiting room and reception desk?
A) To prevent staff from being distracted by noise in the waiting room
B) To prevent patients in the waiting room from hearing confidential patient information
C) To facilitate temperature control of the waiting room
D) To make staff aware of patients entering the waiting room
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term given to all of the components making up the computer?
A) Software
B) Peripherals
C) Computer system
D) Hardware
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of an input device?
A) Keyboard
B) Mouse
C) Printer
D) Scanner
Q3) What is the term for a written set of instructions designed to assist the user in understanding how to operate an application program?
A) Soft copy
B) Documentation
C) Warranty
D) Hard copy
Q4) Explore the issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q5) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q6) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recognize communication barriers
Q2) Recognize office policies and protocols for handling appointments
Q3) Identify time management principles
Q4) How should the medical assistant handle a call if the caller refuses to give any information and insists on speaking to the physician?
A) Put the call through to the physician.
B) Instruct the caller to write a letter to the physician and mark it "personal."
C) Describe the call on a message form and state that the caller refused to identify himself.
D) Keep the caller on the line while a coworker calls the police to have the telephone call traced.
Q5) Which type of electronic device may add computer capabilities to a telephone with software such as a drug reference?
A) Pager
B) Smartphone
C) Radio phone
D) Ordinary cell phone
Q6) Discuss legal scope of practice for medical assistants
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name for scheduling patients with similar problems or conditions on certain days?
A) Wave
B) Clustering
C) Modified wave
D) Stream
Q2) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q3) Clustering
A) Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
B) An appointment scheduling method in which each patient is given a specific appointment time
C) Scheduling similar types of patients for examinations on the same day or part of the day
D) An appointment system in which some patients have individual appointment times and some have the same appointment time as other patients
E) A method of scheduling appointments in which several patients are given the same appointment time and seen in the order they arrive
F) Patients may come to the office at any time during a range of hours
Q4) Medical Law and Ethics
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss pros and cons of various filing methods
Q2) What must occur before a piece of correspondence can be filed in a patient's paper medical record?
A) It must be indexed.
B) It must be coded.
C) It must be annotated.
D) It must be initialed by the physician.
Q3) Discuss filing procedures
Q4) A large practice is more likely to use a terminal digit numeric filing system than a chronologic numeric filing system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is an advantage of an electronic medical record system?
A) Inactive records are automatically removed from the system.
B) It is easier to preserve patient confidentiality.
C) It is less expensive to initiate than a paper record system.
D) Less space is required for record storage.
Q6) Describe indexing rules
Q7) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q8) Identify types of records common to the healthcare setting
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the process used by a fax (facsimile) machine to send documents from one location to another ?
A) The fax machine takes a photograph of the document which is transmitted electronically.
B) The fax machine scans the document like a computer scanner so that it can be transmitted.
C) The fax machine encodes the images on the document into signals to be sent over the telephone.
D) The fax machine encodes the images on the document into electronic signals to be sent over the Internet.
Q2) Why should the medical assistant proofread all letters, memos, or other documents that will be distributed?
A) The computer cannot add proofreader's marks.
B) It isn't necessary; the computer spell check function will correct all misspelled words.
C) The physician or other individual who composed the letter may want to make changes.
D) The computer spell check function cannot verify that a word is used in its correct context.
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the office uses stamps for mailings, what is the most efficient way to calculate postage?
A) Weigh items on a postal scale and then look up postage at the USPS Web site.
B) Use an online mailing service, because it is not necessary to weigh items for mailing.
C) Place one first-class stamp on letters of two pages or less and bring other items to the post office.
D) Place two first-class stamps on all letters, and set packages aside for a weekly trip to the post office.
Q2) Medical offices usually add barcodes to letters and presort mail in order to receive lower postage rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of envelope does the medical office often use for patient statements?
A) A number 6¾ envelope
B) A large manila envelope
C) A business window envelope
D) None of the above
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss types of adjustments that may be made to a patient's account
Q2) How often does the medical office usually make a bank deposit?
A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) As needed
D) Every other week
Q3) If a manual day sheet is kept, what is the function of the proof of posting area?
A) To verify the totals from the previous day
B) To verify that all columns were added correctly
C) To keep a record of month to date and year to date totals
D) To verify that all charges and payments for the day were entered
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) The cash disbursements journal usually contains columns to track expenses by categories.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Differentiate between bookkeeping and accounting
Q7) Compare manual and computerized bookkeeping systems used in ambulatory healthcare
Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often should the medical office purchase new code books or computer code sets?
A) Annually
B) Every 2 years
C) Every 6 months
D) Every time there is a new edition of the CPT manual
Q2) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q3) If the medical assistant is coding for the removal of a lesion, what might influence selection of the proper code?
A) Type of lesion
B) Size of the lesion
C) Location of the lesion
D) Method of removal of the lesion
E) All of the above
Q4) Category II CPT codes represent services that represent emerging technology. A)True
B)False
Q5) HCPCS Level I codes include the current CPT codes. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tom's insurance plan is a traditional indemnity insurance plan. If Tom wants to make an appointment with a dermatologist to treat his acne, what must he do?
A) Simply make the appointment.
B) Obtain a referral from his primary care physician.
C) Visit the plan website and fill out a request for referral form.
D) Call the insurance company and obtain a preauthorization number.
Q2) What percentage of the allowed charges will Medicare pay a participating physician for office services if the patient has already met the annual deductible?
A) 20%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 100%
Q3) Resource-based relative value scales (RBRVS) are used to set fee schedules for procedures in outpatient settings.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Q1) The medical office may agree to treat a patient who has declared bankruptcy, but it will probably require the patient to pay in full for any new services at the time the services are provided.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When is the first bill usually sent to a patient?
A) The next time bills are prepared
B) Within a week of the office visit
C) When the patient calls to request a bill
D) At the next scheduled billing after insurance has paid
Q3) After what period does an account require additional collection activity?
A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days
Q4) The medical office can file a lawsuit in small claims court for an unpaid patient bill.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regular safety inspections should include a review of storage for compressed gases, medications, and chemicals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What color should be used for caution signs?
A) White with red lettering or red with white lettering
B) Green with white lettering or white with green lettering
C) Red on the upper panel with black lettering and a white background
D) Yellow lettering on a black background or black lettering on a yellow background
Q3) What furniture should be located in the waiting room?
A) Ten to twelve chairs
B) Two couches so that patients can sit together
C) Two to four chairs per doctor in the office at one time
D) One chair per doctor so that the doctor will hurry and not have patients waiting
Q4) Professional liability insurance for a medical office will cover costs of repairing damage caused by a tornado.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a fire hazard in the medical office?
A) Providing a smoking area in the waiting room
B) Storing an oxygen cylinder next to a heating vent
C) Replacing a frayed cord on an ECG machine
D) Overloading an electrical circuit
Q2) The first step in using a fire extinguisher is to
A) Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire.
B) Slowly squeeze the handles.
C) Sweep the nozzle from side to side.
D) Pull out the pin.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a manmade disaster?
A) Radiation incident
B) Hurricane
C) Fire
D) Terrorism
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a natural disaster?
A) Flood
B) Earthquake
C) Bomb threat
D) Tornado
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a very specific objective that might be included on the résumé of a recent medical assisting graduate?
A) To obtain an entry-level position as a medical assistant
B) To obtain a challenging position as a medical assistant
C) To obtain a position as a clinical medical assistant in the office of a dermatologist
D) To obtain a medical assisting position that provides opportunity for growth and professional development
Q2) What should a job applicant do on the day after a job interview?
A) Send another résumé-as a follow-up
B) Call the interviewer and ask for feedback about the job interview
C) Call and ask if there is additional information that the interviewer needs
D) Write the interviewer a thank-you note reaffirming his or her interest in the job
Q3) A targeted résumé usually begins with a specific employment objective that describes the type of position the applicant is seeking.
A)True
B)False
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