Medical Assistant Anatomy and Physiology Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive introduction to human anatomy and physiology with a focus on concepts essential for medical assistants. Students will explore the structure and function of the major body systems, including integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these systems work together to maintain health, as well as the terminology relevant to clinical practice. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical examples, learners gain the foundational knowledge necessary to assist healthcare professionals and support patient care in a medical setting.
Recommended Textbook
Structure and Function of the Body 15th Edition by Kevin T. Patton PhD
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58 Chapters
7639 Verified Questions
7639 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A: Organization of the Body
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34127
Sample Questions
Q1) A fever indicates that the body has lost control of the body temperature set point.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A theory that is supported by repeated observation and experimentation is called a hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The structure of the mitochondria would be studied by someone interested in the gross anatomy of the body.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) Pathophysiology is the study of the body in the healthy condition.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 1: B: Organization of the Body
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158 Verified Questions
158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) movement of body fluids and other substances from one part of the body to another
A)Conductivity
B)Excretion
C)Growth
D)Circulation
E)Respiration
F)Responsiveness
G)Digestion
H)Absorption
I)Secretion
J)Reproduction
Answer: D
Q2) Another term for posterior is:
A) ventral.
B) dorsal.
C) inferior.
D) proximal.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 2: A: The Chemical Basis of Life
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joining of amino acids in a peptide bond is an example of the process of hydrolysis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Steroids are the only lipid that contains a ring structure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Steroids are often called tissue hormones.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) ATP is broken down in an anabolic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: B: The Chemical Basis of Life
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) subatomic particle with no charge
A)Proton
B)Neutron
C)Electron
D)Isotopes
E)Ionic bonds
F)Covalent bonds
G)Octet rule
H)Atomic number
I)Atomic mass
J)Hydrogen bonds
Q2) The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water.This is called:
A) hydrolysis.
B) oxidation.
C) decomposition.
D) dehydration synthesis.
Q3) Name and describe the types of radiation discussed in the chapter.
Q4) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Q5) Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.
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Chapter 3: A: Anatomy of Cells
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small proteins called ubiquitins assist the proteasomes in accomplishing their function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The inner folds of the mitochondria are called cisterna.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One function of the microvilli is to increase the surface area of a membrane to provide for more efficient absorption.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An organelle called a vault,composed of RNA and protein,functions to shuttle molecules to and from the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is likely that a muscle cell would have more mitochondria than a fat cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: B: Anatomy of Cells
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92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) It makes lipids and carbohydrates.
B) It is made of broad flattened sacs.
C) It has many ribosomes attached to it.
D) All of the above are true of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Provides a site for ribosome attachment
B) Supplies membrane for use throughout the cell
C) Makes steroid hormones
D) Makes glycoproteins
Q3) Projections from the cell that move materials and mucus are called:
A) cilia.
B) flagella.
C) microvilli.
D) microtubules.
Q4) Skin cells (epithelial)are held tightly together by:
A) gap junctions.
B) desmosomes.
C) tight junctions.
D) adhesions.
Page 8
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Chapter 4: Physiology of Cells
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136 Verified Questions
136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digestive enzymes belong to which group?
A) Hydrases
B) Phosphorylating enzymes
C) Hydrolases
D) Isomerases
Q2) Endocytosis and pinocytosis are both active transport processes because they require a carrier system such as a pump.
A)True
B)False
Q3) carries the end product of glycolysis to the citric acid cycle
A)Cytosol
B)Citric acid cycle
C)Pyruvic acid
D)Acetyl coenzyme A
E)NAD
F)Mitochondria
G)Lactic acid
H)Electron tr
I)Anaerobic
J)Glycolysis
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Chapter 5: Cell Growth and Reproduction
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This nitrogen base is found only in RNA.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Interon
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Tr
H)tRNA
I)thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)haploid
O)Diploid
P)Transcription
Q2) A human gene is a segment of the DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 6: Tissues
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205 Verified Questions
205 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important functions of connective tissue include protection,secretion,and absorption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Elastic cartilage is the most prevalent type of cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An axon is an important part of which kind of tissue?
A) Nervous
B) Smooth muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Glandular epithelium
Q4) single layer of flat,scalelike cells
A)Simple squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Pseudostratified columnar
E)Stratified squamous
F)Tr
Q5) Differentiate among the three types of cartilage: hyaline,fibrous,and elastic.
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Chapter 7: A: Skin and Its Appendages
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hair follicles and skin glands,made up of epithelial tissue,extend from the epidermis into the reticular layer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both the root and the lunula of the nail are covered by the cuticle and therefore cannot be seen externally.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because sebaceous glands produce a substance rich in triglycerides and fatty acids,it provides a good growth medium for fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shivering is a good example of the body's attempt to produce more heat. A)True
B)False
Q5) The gland that produces the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is a sebaceous gland.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: B: Skin and Its Appendages
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough,fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin?
A) Dermatocytes
B) Langerhans cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Melanocytes
Q2) make colored pigment for the skin
A)Keratinocytes
B)Hypodermis
C)Papillary layer
D)Pheomelanin
E)Melanocytes
F)Arrector pili muscles
G)Eumelanin
H)Dendritic cells
I)Albinism
J)Reticular layer
Q3) Differentiate among first-,second-,and third-degree burns.
Q4) Describe the formation of hair and describe the parts of a hair follicle.
Q5) Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter.
Page 13
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Chapter 8: A: Skeletal Tissues
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98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because bone is connective tissue,a fractured bone will never heal and be as strong as before the fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The endosteum is necessary for bone healing and bone remodeling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of osteoclasts in the bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One function of bone is to store calcium and phosphorous for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Sesamoid bones develop in tendons near a joint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: B: Skeletal Tissues
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82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant type of cartilage is:
A) hyaline.
B) elastic.
C) fibrocartilage.
D) All of the above are present in approximately equal amounts.
Q2) Which of the following substances is not part of the inorganic matrix of bone?
A) Magnesium
B) Collagen
C) Sodium
D) Fluoride
Q3) The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are:
A) mitochondria and Golgi apparatus.
B) ribosomes and Golgi apparatus.
C) endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes.
D) endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.
Q4) Where is the epiphyseal plate located? What is the function of the epiphyseal plate?
Describe the layers that make up the epiphyseal plate.
Q5) Explain the steps in the healing of a bone fracture.
Q6) List the six structures of long bones that are visible to the naked eye.
Page 15
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System
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190 Verified Questions
190 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between the manubrium and the xiphoid process is the:
A) body of a true rib.
B) radius in the arm.
C) body of the sternum.
D) fibula of the leg.
Q2) cheek bone
A)Frontal
B)Hyoid
C)Mandible
D)Maxillae
E)Occipital
F)Palatine
G)Sphenoid
H)Temporal
I)Zygomatic
Q3) List all the major divisions of the vertebral column,including the number of individual vertebrae found in each division.
Q4) The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: A: Articulations
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial and lateral menisci form cushions for the head of the femur as it articulates with the acetabulum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of arthritis associated with intemperate use of alcohol is rheumatoid arthritis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The joints between carpal bones are synarthrotic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because hinge joints can be involved in both flexion and extension,they are considered biaxial joints.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An example of a structural classification of a joint would be an amphiarthrotic joint.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 10: B: Articulations
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) increase the angle of a joint
A)Abduction
B)Adduction
C)Extension
D)Flexion
E)Pronation
F)Supination
Q2) Describe the stability of the hip joint.
Q3) The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of a _____ joint.
A) saddle
B) gliding
C) condyloid (ellipsoidal)
D) pivot
Q4) The glenoid labrum is a:
A) ligament that connects the humerus to the scapula.
B) fibrocartilage that increases the depth of the glenoid cavity.
C) hyaline cartilage cushion in the shoulder joint.
D) bursa.
Q5) Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary?
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Chapter 11: A: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are more than 600 muscles in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The two muscle layers of the anterior and lateral abdominal wall have fibers running in different directions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both the pectoralis minor and the serratus anterior help hold or "fix" the scapula in place.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The insertion is that point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Muscles make up about 30% to 40% of our body weight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: B: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prime mover can also be called the:
A) antagonist.
B) agonist.
C) fixator.
D) synergist.
Q2) rectus
A)Location
B)Function
C)Shape
D)Direction of fibers
E)Number of heads or divisions
F)Points of attachment
Q3) The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the:
A) biceps brachii.
B) triceps brachii.
C) supinator.
D) brachialis.
Q4) Name and explain the three types of levers.Which type is the most common in the body?
Q5) Differentiate among the endomysium,perimysium,and epimysium.
Page 20
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Chapter 12: A: Physiology of the Muscular System
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121 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myofibrils make up myofilaments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three phases of muscle contraction are contraction,relaxation,and recovery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tonic contractions give the muscle its muscle tone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During an isotonic contraction,the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are called spastic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A muscle using anaerobic respiration would lower the pH of the blood passing through the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 12: B: Physiology of the Muscular System
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105 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the:
A) sarcolemma.
B) myofibril.
C) sarcoplasm.
D) sarcomere.
Q2) The characteristic of the muscle cell that directly causes movement is:
A) excitability.
B) irritability.
C) contractility.
D) extensibility.
Q3) Muscle contractions will continue as long as:
A) the calcium ions are attached to the troponin.
B) there is dopamine in the neuromuscular junction.
C) there is ADP in the muscle cell.
D) T-tubules are transmitting impulses.
Q4) Glucose can be stored in the muscle as:
A) creatine phosphate.
B) ATP.
C) myoglobin.
D) glycogen.
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Chapter 13: A: Nervous System Cells
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145 Verified Questions
145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gray fibers have no association with Schwann cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cell will send an impulse during the relative refractory period as long as the stimulus is below threshold.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a synapse,both the presynaptic cell and postsynaptic cell must be neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the mature nervous system,electrical synapses can occur only where there are gap junctions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a neuron is resting,its membrane potential is zero.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In neurons,microtubules are called neurofibrils.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: B: Nervous System Cells
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true of an action potential?
A) The plasma membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+ ions.
B) Na+ ions move extracellularly.
C) The charges become equal on the outside and inside of the plasma membrane.
D) The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
Q2) Compared with the outside of the neuron,the inside has a(n)____ charge.
A) positive
B) negative
C) equal
D) None of the above are correct.
Q3) Sue was in a severe car accident.She had injuries to her arm and lower spinal column.Her physician told her that she most likely would regain the use of her arm but her legs would be paralyzed.Why did he say that? Explain the differences in the neuron structures.
Q4) Which is the only glia cell that is found outside of the central nervous system?
A) Schwann cell
B) Oligodendrocyte
C) Astrocyte
D) Ependymal cell
Page 24
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Chapter 14: A: Central Nervous System
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deeper,wider groove on the spinal cord can be used to identify the ventral side of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parieto-occipital fissure divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the lobes of the cerebrum are named after the bones that cover them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The part of the dura that extends into the longitudinal fissure is the falx cerebri.
A)True B)False
Q5) The hypothalamus is the only part of the brain able to release a hormone. A)True B)False
Q6) Both the inferior colliculi and superior colliculi are found in the midbrain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: B: Central Nervous System
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116 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The set of coordinated commands that controls programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the:
A) extrapyramidal tract.
B) motor program.
C) motor tract.
D) pyramidal tract.
Q2) Give the location of the pineal gland and its most likely function.
Q3) If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed,a person would lose _____ related to that pathway.
A) sensory perception
B) willed movement
C) only reflex activity
D) both reflex activity and sensation
Q4) Explain the functions of the hypothalamus.
Q5) The corpus callosum connects the:
A) cerebral hemispheres.
B) hippocampus.
C) mammillary body.
D) central sulcus.
Q6) What is a lumbar puncture? Why is it done?
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Chapter 15: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lower end of the spinal cord bears the name lumbosacral plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Babinski reflex is evoked via stimulation of the outer sole of the foot and will cause a normal infant to extend the great toe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The olfactory nerve,the optic nerve,and the oculomotor nerve are the only cranial nerves that do not come from the brainstem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cervical plexus:
A) is found deep in the neck.
B) is formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves and part of C5.
C) includes the phrenic nerve.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q5) Briefly describe the structure of the spinal nerves.
Q6) Why do the right and left phrenic nerves have considerable clinical interest?
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Chapter 16: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effect of sympathetic stimulation on the eye is constriction of the pupil.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood vessels in both digestive organs and skeletal muscles are dilated by sympathetic stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hormones released from the adrenal medulla produce effects similar to those of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic divisions continually conduct impulses to visceral effectors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Norepinephrine can stimulate nicotinic or muscarinic receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity.
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Chapter 17: A: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Germinative epithelial basal cells constantly replace olfactory receptor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The retina is the incomplete innermost coat of the eyeball,in that it has no anterior portion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The section below the cochlear duct is called the scala vestibuli.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Touch and pressure are examples of stimuli that activate mechanoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The correct order of the flow of tears is lacrimal gland,lacrimal duct,punctum,lacrimal sac,lacrimal canal,and nasolacrimal duct.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: B: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) humor found in the anterior chamber
A)Aqueous humor
B)Choroid
C)Cones
D)Cornea
E)Fovea centralis
F)Iris
G)Optic disc
H)Retina
I)Rods
J)Vitreous humor
Q2) The sense organs responsible for static equilibrium are located in the:
A) utricle.
B) saccule.
C) semicircular canals.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q3) Differentiate between exteroceptors,visceroceptors,and proprioceptors.
Q4) What is the function of the eustachian tube?
Q5) Describe the neuronal pathway for taste.
Q6) How does the ear differentiate between high- and low-frequency sound waves?
Page 30
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Chapter 18: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells either have receptors for neurotransmitters and respond to the nervous system or have hormone receptors and respond to the endocrine system,but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both steroid and nonsteroid hormones produce their effects by increasing the number of enzymes that catalyze cellular reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the:
A) formation of cAMP.
B) increase of enzyme-controlled intracellular reactions.
C) transcription of RNA.
D) activation of adenyl cyclase.
Q4) Which of the following is not true of prostaglandins?
A) Contain a 20-carbon unsaturated fatty acid chain
B) Contain a 5-carbon ring
C) Made from membrane phospholipid molecules
D) All of the above are true of prostaglandins.
Q5) How do the actions of prostaglandins differ from the actions of hormones?
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Chapter 19: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major function of the pineal gland is the development of the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gonadotrophs secrete:
A) TSH.
B) LH and FSH.
C) prolactin.
Q3) Aldosterone secretion is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin mechanism and by the blood potassium concentration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Growth hormone and insulin are antagonistic hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Glucagon,produced by alpha cells,tends to promote the movement of glucose,amino acids,and fatty acids out of the blood and into tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the effect of glucagon on blood sugar level?
Page 32
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Chapter 20: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagram the three stages of blood coagulation.
Q2) A person without A or B antibodies in the blood must have blood type O.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A drop in blood oxygen levels stimulates an increase in red blood cell formation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another term for plasma is interstitial fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) monocyte
A)105-120 days
B)10-12 days
C)Months
D)Days to years
E)Hours to 3 days
Q6) About 45% of whole blood is plasma.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 21: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System
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211 Verified Questions
211 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34167
Sample Questions
Q1) A portal system sends blood through two sets of capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) blood flow from the heart to the body (not the lungs)and back to the heart
A)Arteries
B)Capillaries
C)Pulmonary circulation
D)Systemic circulation
E)Tunica adventitia
F)Tunica intima
G)Tunica media
H)Veins
Q3) Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate?
A) Arterioles
B) Arteries
C) Capillaries
D) Veins
Q4) The tunica media is also called the tunica adventitia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: A: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under abnormal conditions,the AV node or the Purkinje fibers may act as ectopic pacemakers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The AV node of the heart is known as the pacemaker.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The capillaries perform the transport function of the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under resting conditions,the SA node fires at an intrinsic rhythmical rate of 80 to 85 beats per minute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The stress-relaxation effect occurs in all blood vessels but is most important in the arteries.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: B: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34148
Sample Questions
Q1) The QRS complex represents:
A) depolarization of the atria.
B) repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles.
C) depolarization of both the atria and ventricles.
D) repolarization of the ventricles.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the baroreceptors?
A) They are stretch receptors.
B) They are sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the blood.
C) They send afferent nerve impulses to the cardiac control centers.
D) They are located in the carotid sinus and the aorta.
Q3) Which of the following factors increases heart rate?
A) Sudden, intense pain of visceral organs such as the intestines and the gallbladder
B) Stimulation of skin receptors by cold
C) Anxiety and fear
D) Grief
Q4) List two factors that affect peripheral resistance.Explain how these factors influence arterial blood pressure.In normal blood flow,where is the major peripheral resistance encountered?
Q5) What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker?
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Chapter 23: Lymphatic System
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196 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lymphatic system contributes to the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) part of the structure of the thymus gland
A)Tonsils
B)Spleen
C)Lymph node
D)Cisterna chyli
E)Lymph
F)Thoracic duct
G)Thymus
H)Right lymphatic duct
I)Peyer patches
J)Hassall corpuscles
K)Interstitial fluid
Q3) The high degree of permeability of lymphatic capillaries allows particulate matter to enter the capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the important functions performed by the thymus.
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Chapter 24: A: Immune System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34170
Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the pus surrounding an inflammation site consists of dead or damaged tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Phagocytosis is a nonspecific defense mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once released from the bone marrow,the B cells migrate to the bursa of Fabricius to complete their development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An antibody molecule must have at least two antigen-binding sites.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pyrogens are produced only by body cells that have been infected by a virus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) B cells are named after a structure in birds. A)True
B)False
Page 38
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Chapter 24: B: Immune System
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34150
Sample Questions
Q1) Complement can best be described as a(n):
A) enzyme in blood.
B) lymphokine.
C) antibody.
D) hormone.
Q2) antibody that is found in tears and saliva
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q3) When a patient starts to have rejection problems with a transplanted organ,the problems are usually caused by:
A) a B cell-mediated condition.
B) human leukocyte antigens (HALs).
C) self-antigens.
D) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).
Q4) Why is it difficult to predict the total number of AIDS cases?
Q5) Describe the structure of an antibody molecule.
Q6) Name the classes of antibodies,and give the function of each.
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Chapter 25: Stress
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138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Selye,anything that causes stress,either good or bad,is a stressor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the alarm reaction responses resulting from hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex is an increase in allergic responses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prolonged stress causes the secretion of a hormone called neuropeptide Y from the sympathetic neurons and the adrenal glands.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Joanne was admitted to the hospital for gallbladder surgery.A nurse came to examine her and began with Joanne's vital signs.The nurse noted a rapid pulse rate and elevated blood pressure.Joanne's blood glucose level was slightly elevated also.What mechanisms could be causing these conditions? What is the stress in this situation,and how can she best deal with it?
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Chapter 26: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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213 Verified Questions
213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What aspects of the structure of lung tissue make efficient gas exchange possible?
A) The enormous surface area of the bronchus and trachea, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood
B) A small surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible lower diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood and help retain oxygen in the body
C) The enormous surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood
D) A small surface area such as the pleura, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood
Q2) Name the structures through which air passes from the beginning of the trachea to the alveoli.
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Chapter 27: A: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A poorly profused but well ventilated part of the lung wastes blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The enzyme in blood plasma that helps form carbaminohemoglobin is carbonic anhydrase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With emphysema,the amount of dead space air increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the diaphragm contracts,it pulls the base of the ribs together,forcing air out of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Increased cellular activity would decrease the carbon dioxide gradient between the cells and the arterial blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: B: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34152
Sample Questions
Q1) largest additional volume of air that can be expired after tidal volume
A)Tidal volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Inspiratory reserve volume
D)Expiratory reserve volume
E)Residual volume
F)Minimal air
Q2) repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea; indicates increased intracranial pressure
A)Dyspnea
B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C)Eupnea
D)Hypoventilation
E)Biot breathing
F)Hyperventilation
G)Hyperpnea
H)Orthopnea
I)Apneusis
J)Apnea
Q3) Define pneumothorax,and discuss its potential effect on respiration.
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Chapter 28: A: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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137 Verified Questions
137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food enters the oropharynx by passing through the fauces.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parotid salivary gland drains into the mouth through the Stensen ducts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pancreas is an essential organ of the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The large intestine has a diameter of about 2.5 inches and a length of about 5 to 6 feet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Another name for the lower esophageal sphincter is the pyloric sphincter.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The submucosal plexus is a group of parasympathetic nerves found in the submucosa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: B: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34154
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the gallbladder?
Q2) The type of cell designed for absorption and secretion found throughout much of the GI tract is _____ epithelium.
A) simple columnar
B) stratified squamous
C) simple squamous
D) pseudostratified
Q3) Liver cells detoxify substances.Explain what happens to the substances in the process of detoxification.
Q4) Which of the following is not made up of nerves running through the walls of the digestive system?
A) Meissner plexus
B) Auerbach plexus
C) Intramural plexus
D) All of the above are nerves running through the walls of the digestive system.
Q5) Name the secretory cells of the stomach wall and describe the secretions from each.
Q6) Name and describe the reflections of the peritoneum.
Q7) List the functions of the stomach.
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Chapter 29: A: Physiology of the Digestive System
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34175
Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreatic duct,which connects the pancreas to the small intestines,does not carry the enzyme trypsin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Large amounts of cool,dilute,or isotonic fluids are best for replacing fluids quickly during exercise.
A)True B)False
Q3) The lipase found in saliva is unable to digest much fat because the fat has not been emulsified.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amount of fat being absorbed by the body can be determined by taking a blood sample from the hepatic portal system.
A)True B)False
Q5) All digestive enzymes are classified as extracellular hydrolases. A)True B)False
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Chapter 29: B: Physiology of the Digestive System
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) movement of digested nutrients through the GI mucosa and into the internal environment
A)Motility
B)Ingestion
C)Elimination
D)Secretion
E)Digestion
F)Absorption
Q2) List the kinds of chemical substances that we eat.Which of these need to be digested?
Q3) phase that responds to taste,smell,thoughts of food,and sensations of chewing and swallowing
A)Cephalic phase
B)Gastric phase
C)Intestinal phase
Q4) inhibits gastric secretion and motility
A)Secretin
B)Cholecystokinin (CCK)
C)Gastrin
D)Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
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Chapter 30: A: Nutrition and Metabolism
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ammonia is a byproduct of the catabolism of fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Men and women who are the same age and the same body size usually oxidize food at the same rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both NAD and FAD can be used by the cell to transfer energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carbohydrates and fats have a lower thermic effect than do proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the electron transport system,electrons moving down the carrier chain release bursts of energy used to pump neutrons into the compartment between the inner and outer membranes of the mitochondrion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: B: Nutrition and Metabolism
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34158
Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that raises blood sugar level by causing a shift to fat catabolism is:
A) ACTH.
B) growth hormone.
C) thyroid hormone.
D) both A and B.
Q2) Which of the following names is not a term used for the aerobic breakdown of food substances?
A) Citric acid cycle
B) Pyruvic acid cycle
C) Krebs cycle
D) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
Q3) If a person's total metabolic rate (TMR)were 2400 calories,would his or her basal metabolic rate (BMR)be more or less than 2400 calories?
A) Less because BMR is about 55% to 60% of the TMR.
B) More because BMR is about 55% to 60% more than the TMR.
C) Neither because BMR is equal to the TMR.
D) Not enough information is given to determine the answer.
Q4) Explain how the lack of oxygen would inhibit the Krebs cycle.
Q5) Basal metabolic rate assumes three "basal" conditions; name and explain them.
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Chapter 31: A: Urinary System
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34177
Sample Questions
Q1) Most reabsorption occurs in the loop of Henle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus release renin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary cilium of the epithelial cells lining the renal tubules act as mechanoreceptors to regulate the flow of filtrate through the tube.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The loop of Henle and the vasa recta have a countercurrent structure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When urine "backs up," causing swelling in the renal pelvis and calyces,the condition is called hydronephrosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: B: Urinary System
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34161
Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of molecules out of the tubules and into the peritubular blood defines:
A) glomerular filtration.
B) secretion.
C) micturition.
D) reabsorption.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true of the ureter?
A) The ureter is approximately 28 cm long.
B) The ureter conducts urine inferiorly from the kidney to the bladder.
C) The ureter is composed of two layers of tissue-an inner mucous layer and an outer fibrous layer.
D) All of the above are true of the ureter.
Q3) Which of the following is not a normal constituent of urine?
A) Nitrogenous wastes
B) Hormones
C) Pigments
D) Plasma proteins
Q4) What structures make up the renal corpuscle?
Q5) List functions of the urinary bladder.
Q6) Describe the internal structure of the kidney.
Page 51
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Chapter 32: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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201 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34178
Sample Questions
Q1) Extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid can each be reduced to 30% before death from dehydration occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how various hormones impact the amount of urine produced.What are the sources of these hormones? Why is water reabsorption more important than GFR in regulating urine volume?
Q3) The total body potassium content may be 1000 times greater than the serum potassium level.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism works to help maintain fluid balance.
Q5) Because fat tissue contains the least amount of water of any tissue in the body,obese people tend to have a lower percent of body water.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each.
Q7) What are two means of obligatory water loss?
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Chapter 33: Acid-Base Balance
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190 Verified Questions
190 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34179
Sample Questions
Q1) Why does arterial blood have a lower hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood?
Q2) Because intracellular fluid is in equilibrium with interstitial fluid and blood plasma,it also has a pH of 7.41.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion tend to lower the blood pH and raise the pH of the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sulfuric acid results from the metabolism of:
A) glucose.
B) amino acids.
C) fats.
D) ribonucleotides.
Q5) The control of acid and base levels is considered a homeostatic mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the pH scale
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Chapter 34: Male Reproductive System
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213 Verified Questions
213 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34180
Sample Questions
Q1) The tunica vaginalis is a serous membrane that surrounds the testes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A vasectomy is done to inhibit sperm production,which causes sterility.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Millions of sperm are required for a man to be considered fertile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dense,white,fibrous capsule that encases each testis is called the:
A) rete testis.
B) efferent ductule.
C) tunica albuginea.
D) scrotum.
Q5) Name and describe the accessory reproductive glands in the male reproductive system,and explain what each secretes.
Q6) Secretions from the seminal vesicles contribute about 60% of the seminal fluid volume.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: A: Female Reproductive System
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34181
Sample Questions
Q1) A function of the female reproductive system is to ensure the continued existence of the genetic code.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Womb is another name for the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The corpus albicans gradually diminishes until it becomes the corpus luteum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A line drawn between the two ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into a urogenital and anal triangle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Birth control pills prevent pregnancy by preventing implantation of the fertilized ovum.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 35: B: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is:
A) luteinizing hormone (LH).
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
C) estrogen.
D) progesterone.
Q2) Which of the following organs is not considered part of the "duct system" of the female reproductive system?
A) Vagina
B) Uterine tubes
C) Uterus
D) All of the above are considered part of the "duct system."
Q3) The tube connecting the ovaries to the uterus is called the:
A) uterine tubes.
B) oviducts.
C) fallopian tubes.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q4) Describe and give the location of the ovaries.Name and describe the ligaments that hold the ovaries in place.
Q5) Describe the structure of the uterus.
Q6) List and describe the various components of the vulva.
Page 56
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Chapter 36: A: Growth and Development
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133 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34182
Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the size and position of the uterus,the center of gravity of a pregnant woman is shifted backward,making walking difficult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process by which the primary germ layers develop into many different kinds of tissues is called organogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Experiments have shown that the ovum actually attracts and "traps" sperm with special receptor molecules on the surface of the ovum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After ovulation,the ovum first enters the infundibulum and moves toward the middle of the uterine tube where fertilization occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: B: Growth and Development
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109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Birth weight generally doubles during the first _____ months and then _____.
A) 3; triples by 1 year
B) 4; triples by 1 year
C) 6; doubles again by 1 year
D) 6; triples by 18 months
Q2) Which of the following structures is not formed by the ectoderm?
A) Cornea of the eye
B) Dermis of the skin
C) Brain
D) Enamel of the teeth
Q3) The second stage of labor is the:
A) period from the onset of contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete.
B) period from the time of maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina.
C) point at which the amniotic sac ruptures.
D) process of expulsion of the placenta through the vagina.
Q4) Explain the process of fertilization.How does the female reproductive system assist the sperm in reaching the ovum?
Q5) Describe (or diagram)the hormone levels during pregnancy.
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Chapter 37: A: Genetics and Heredity
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130 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34183
Sample Questions
Q1) Tay-Sachs disease is a dominant condition involving failure to make a lipid-producing enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of mitosis in humans produces gametes that contain only 23 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A sperm containing a Y chromosome swims faster than a sperm containing an X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: B: Genetics and Heredity
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the term congenital disorder.Are these disorders always inherited? Explain.
Q2) In human blood type,A and B are codominant,producing type AB.They are both dominant to the recessive O type.If parents had genotypes AO and BO,a child with which blood type could be theirs?
A) A child with type A blood
B) A child with type B blood
C) A child with type O blood
D) All of the above children could be theirs.
Q3) Red-green color blindness shows X-linked recessive inheritance.Assume "X" is normal,"X1" is recessive for the trait,and "Y" is normal.Then,an individual with the genotype "XX1" will be a:
A) normal female and a carrier.
B) color-blind male.
C) normal female and not a carrier.
D) normal male.
Q4) What is meant when a trait is classified as sex-linked? Give an example of such a trait.
Q5) Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.
Q6) What is codominance? Give an example of this phenomenon in your explanation.
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