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Media Planning and Buying Final Exam Questions - 2562 Verified Questions

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Media Planning and Buying Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Media Planning and Buying introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices of strategizing, selecting, and purchasing media to effectively reach target audiences within the modern advertising landscape. The course covers the critical stages of media planning, including audience analysis, media selection, budget allocation, scheduling, and performance measurement. Students will explore both traditional and digital media channels, learning how to evaluate and integrate diverse platforms to achieve marketing objectives. Through real-world case studies and hands-on projects, the course emphasizes negotiation strategies, campaign optimization, and the use of industry tools for media buying, equipping students with practical skills to thrive in the competitive media industry.

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Advertising Promotion and Other Aspects of Integrated Marketing Communications 9th Edition

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23 Chapters

2562 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: An Overview of Integrated Marketing Communications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the basic philosophy underlying integrated marketing communications (IMC),and discuss reasons why firms have not practiced IMC all along and why there is a reluctance to change.

Answer: The philosophy underlying IMC is the careful coordination of a brand's sundry marketing communications elements.The reasons firms have not practiced IMC all along include: (1)organizations have handled advertising,sales promotions,point-of-purchase displays,and other communication tools as virtually separate practices because different units within organizations have specialized in separate aspects of marketing communications and (2)outside suppliers (i.e.,advertising agencies,PR agencies,and sales promotion agencies)also have tended to specialize in single facets of marketing communications rather than possess expertise across the board.

There has been a reluctance to change from this single-function,specialist model due to managerial parochialism (e.g.,advertising people sometimes view the world exclusively from an advertising perspective and are blind to other communication traditions)and for fear that change might lead to budget cutbacks in their areas of control and reductions in their authority and power.Agencies also have resisted change due to reluctance to broaden their function beyond the one aspect of marketing communications in which they have developed expertise and built their reputations.

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Chapter 2: Enhancing Brand Equity and Accountability

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Sample Questions

Q1) The EquiTrend survey asks respondents to rate a number of brands in terms of two dimensions: quality and salience.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Which marcom tool is an especially important instrument of meaning transfer?

A) sales promotion

B) personal selling

C) advertising

D) public relations

E) frequency programs

Answer: C

Q3) Co-branding occurs when two or more brands enter into a partnership that potentially serves to enhance both brands' equity and profitability.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Brand Adoption, Brand Naming, and Intellectual

Property Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) A variable that influences the awareness class would include _____.

A) free samples

B) price discounts

C) demographics

D) product satisfaction

E) All of these are correct.

Answer: A

Q2) The degree to which an innovation is perceived to fit into a person's way of doing things is termed _____.

A) observability

B) complexity

C) trialability

D) compatibility

E) relative advantage

Answer: D

Q3) Brand names are sometimes selected based on the empty-vessel philosophy.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Environmental, Regulatory, and Ethical Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jake and thousands of others like him purchased a product advertised on TV that claimed instant hair growth with one application.Jake is representative of the many purchasers of this product in that he is highly sensitive about his recent balding.Because the advertised product is ineffective,the FTC would likely consider this a case of _____ advertising.

A) unfair

B) deceptive

C) unreasonable

D) unrepresentative

E) unethical.

Q2) For marketing communicators,ethics involves matters of right and wrong,or moral,conduct pertaining to any aspect of marketing communications.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Slotting allowances require manufacturers to pay retailers a per-store fee for their willingness to handle a new stock unit from the manufacturer.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Segmentation, Targeting, and Positioning

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which VALS group has the lowest income?

A) Thinkers

B) Strivers

C) Experiencers

D) Makers

E) Survivors

Q2) Product design,color,and size are all examples of _____.

A) non-product-related attributes

B) product benefits

C) basic consumer needs

D) product-related attributes

E) product imagery

Q3) Martin is a politically conservative person who respects authority and the status quo.He drives a high-end automobile and shops at expensive specialty shops.In terms of the VALS framework,Martin is a(n)_____.

A) Maker

B) Believer

C) Achiever

D) Experiencer

E) Striver

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Chapter 6: The Communication Process and Consumer Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The word communication is derived from the Latin word communis,which means "communion."

A)True

B)False

Q2) Information in short-term memory that is not thought about or rehearsed will be lost from STM in about _____.

A) 30 seconds or less

B) 3 minutes or less

C) 6 minutes or less

D) 9 minutes or less

E) 12 minutes or less

Q3) Exposing consumers to the marketing communicator's message does not ensure that the message will have an impact.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The HEM perspective views consumers as pursuing objectives which allow them to get the most for their money.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: The Role of Persuasion in Integrated Marketing Communications

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the ELM theory,people experience _____ attitude changes when persuaded via the peripheral route.

A) temporary

B) permanent

C) semi-permanent

D) exceptional

E) None of these are correct.

Q2) Evelyn Rivers is the advertising director of a chain of health clubs.She is putting together an advertisement.She wants to enhance the consumers' opportunity to encode information.The best way to accomplish this objective would be to _____.

A) repeat the ad on multiple occasions

B) use loud music

C) use celebrities

D) use colorful ads

E) employ verbal framing

Q3) Explain why physical attractiveness and similarity are important.

Q4) The cognitive component of an attitude represents one's behavioral tendency.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Objective Setting and Budgeting

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Sample Questions

Q1) The _____ function refers to the relationship between money invested in advertising and the response,or output,of that investment in terms of revenue generated.

A) sales response

B) advertising response

C) sales-to-advertising response

D) advertising-to-sales response

E) marcom response

Q2) Which marcom tool is best at encouraging trial purchases?

A) advertising

B) personal selling

C) public relations

D) sales promotion

E) point-of-purchase displays

Q3) The world's leading advertiser is _____.

A) Coca Cola

B) Procter & Gamble

C) General Motors

D) Philip Morris

E) McDonald's

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Overview of Advertising Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____ procure specific vehicles within particular media that have been selected for an agency's clients.

A) Account executives

B) Account planners

C) Media planners

D) Media buyers

E) Media directors

Q2) Identify situations where an advertiser would use in-house advertising operations,full-service advertising agencies,and a la carte arrangements.Your answer should include a discussion of the advantages and disadvantages of each of the three alternatives.

Q3) Smaller competitors in an industry typically have to invest relatively larger percentages of their sales revenues in advertising than do larger competitors.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the advertising management process from the advertiser's perspective.

Q5) In general,we can consider four combinations of advertising and price elasticities.Discuss the implications of each of these situations.

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Chapter 10: Effective and Creative Ad Messages

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ addresses the matter of whether an advertisement reflects empathy with the target audience's basic needs and wants as they relate to making a brand-choice decision in a particular product category.

A) Appropriateness

B) Novelty

C) Stickiness

D) Concreteness

E) Connectedness

Q2) A value proposition is the essence of a message and the reward to the consumer for investing his or her time attending an advertisement.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The resonance creative style structures an advertising campaign to pattern the prevailing lifestyle orientation of the intended market segment.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Compare and contrast corporate image advertising and corporate issue advertising,and provide an example of each.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Endorsers and Message Appeals in Advertising

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Sample Questions

Q1) Airbrushing a word on a picture in a magazine advertisement is an example of using embedding.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Ad advertisement for Imodium A-D anti-diarrheal medicine compares having to take two pills to several spoonfuls of the "pink stuff." Which type of comparative advertisement is this?

A) direct

B) indirect

C) subtle

D) inoffensive

E) stealth

Q3) In considering celebrity endorsers,brand managers must perform _____ to determine whether a more expensive celebrity can be justified in terms of a proportionately greater return on investment.

A) qualitative research

B) Q-rating tests

C) a cost-benefit analysis

D) a credibility analysis.

E) a focus group.

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Chapter 12: Traditional Advertising Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) A strength of radio advertising is _____.

A) the ability to reach segmented audiences

B) the ability to reach prospective customers on a personal and intimate level

C) low cost per thousand

D) short lead-times

E) All of these are correct.

Q2) In terms of target audience cost per thousand,radio advertising is considerably more expensive than other mass media.

A)True

B)False

Q3) An advantage of radio advertising is its ability to reach prospective customers on a personal and intimate level.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A provider of national radio network ratings is _____.

A) Arbitron's RADAR

B) Bruzzone Research Company

C) Nielsen Media Research

D) Experian Simmons

E) GfK Mediamark Research

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Online and Mobile Advertising

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Sample Questions

Q1) Podcasting is a visual version of blogging.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Individualization refers to the fact that advertisers can control the flow of information to individual consumers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which is the leading search engine?

A) Google

B) Yahoo!

C) Bing

D) MSN

E) YouTube

Q4) Banner ads are the least common form of Internet advertising.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The idea of reciprocity generally defines the nature of interactive media.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Compare and contrast the concepts of individualization and interactivity.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Social Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) Facebook earns its revenue primarily from _____.

A) advertising

B) membership fees

C) corporate profile fees

D) selling member data

E) It doesn't earn revenue yet.

Q2) Under "fair use," copyrighted work can be used without permission if someone is commenting on it,criticizing it,reporting on it,teaching about it,or conducting research.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Gross rating points (GRPs)are a function of the percentage paying attention to an ad (whether on social media or traditional media)and the frequency of times the audience pays attention.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Once created,social media cannot be altered.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Identify three advantages and three disadvantages of social media.

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Chapter 15: Direct Marketing and Other Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) The substantial increase in brand placements on TV has been concurrent with the growth of _____ television programming.

A) infomercial

B) cable

C) reality

D) crime-drama

E) sitcom

Q2) Companies' databases of customers often contain R-F-M data.The R stands for _____.

A) retention rate

B) referral rate

C) registration

D) responsiveness

E) recency

Q3) Catalog marketing has reached the _____ life-cycle stage.

A) innovation

B) introduction

C) growth

D) maturity

E) decline

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Chapter 16: Advertising Media: Planning and Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the concept of effective reach,there is a theoretical optimum range of exposures to an advertisement with minimum and maximum limits.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The objective of frequency value planning is to select the media schedule that generates the most exposure value per gross rating point.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Compare and contrast the terms media and vehicles,and give three examples of each.

Q4) In a _____ advertising schedule,the advertiser varies expenditures throughout the campaign and allocates zero expenditures in some months.

A) continuous

B) pulsing

C) plotted

D) flighting

E) dated

Q5) Explain why (or why not)the three-exposure hypothesis is a valid theory.

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Chapter 17: Measuring Ad Message Effectiveness

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Sample Questions

Q1) IRI's BehaviorScan procedure enables which types of testing of television commercial effectiveness?

A) pretests and posttests

B) weight tests and copy tests

C) recall tests and recognition tests

D) awareness tests and persuasion tests

E) persuasion tests and purchase tests

Q2) Measures of _____ are used when an advertiser's objective is to influence consumers' attitudes toward and preference for the advertised brand.

A) awareness

B) knowledge

C) persuasion

D) loyalty

E) involvement

Q3) Measuring message effectiveness is not a difficult or expensive task.

A)True

B)False

Q4) List the nine PACT principles.

Q5) Compare and contrast qualitative and quantitative message research.

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Chapter 18: Sales Promotion Overview and the Role of Trade Promotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sales promotion can enable a manufacturer to obtain extra shelf space for a temporary period.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following statements regarding slotting allowances is FALSE?

A) Such allowances are charged by manufacturers to retailers as a requirement for permitting the retailer to stock the manufacturer's new product.

B) They have been criticized as representing a form of bribery.

C) In certain respects, slotting allowances are a legitimate cost of doing business inasmuch as a retailer incurs extra expenses when stocking a new product.

D) Large, powerful manufacturers are less likely to pay slotting allowances than are small, regional manufacturers.

E) Actual charges are highly variable.

Q3) The objectives of trade allowances for retailers often conflict with the objectives of manufacturers.

A)True B)False

Q4) Explain forward buying and diverting.Who benefits or loses from these practices?

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Chapter 19: Consumer Sales Promotion: Sampling and Couponing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The percentage of all distributed coupons that are taken to stores for price discounts is known as the _____.

A) redemption rate

B) conversion rate

C) turnover rate

D) discount rate

E) return on investment

Q2) Explain the circumstances when sampling is appropriate.

Q3) A hair product company wishing to reach teenage males made a deal with tuxedo rental shops to distribute gift packages of product samples to each male who picked up a rental for the prom.The hair product company was using _____.

A) targeted sampling

B) exclusive sampling

C) creative distribution methods

D) mass distribution

E) demand sampling

Q4) Promotion alone can create a successful product.

A)True

B)False

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Consumer Sales Promotion: Premiums and Other Promotions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following questions should a manager ask when evaluating a new promotion idea?

A) Is the promotion presented clearly so that the intended market will notice, comprehend, and respond positively to it?

B) Is the idea a good one?

C) Is the idea unique, or is the competition doing something similar?

D) Will the promotion idea appeal to the target market?

E) All of these are correct.

Q2) _____ are articles of merchandise or services offered by manufacturers to induce action on the part of the sales force,trade representatives,or consumers.

A) Coupons

B) Rebates

C) Price-offs

D) Premiums

E) Add-ons

Q3) Contests and sweepstakes are used primarily to enhance a brand's image.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Compare and contrast price-off promotions and bonus packs.

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Chapter 21: Public Relations,Word-of-Mouth Influence,and Sponsorships

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a metric used to measure sponsorship effectiveness?

A) Tracking sales volume following an event.

B) Counting the number of samples or coupons that were distributed.

C) Measuring changes in brand awareness and brand image.

D) Determining how many hits to the brand's website occurred post-event.

E) All of these are correct.

Q2) Relationships forged between a brand and a sponsored event can serve to enhance a brand's equity,both by enhancing its image and by _____.

A) reaching the current target market

B) taking the place of advertising in building buzz

C) increasing consumers' awareness of the brand

D) convincing consumers' of the uniqueness of the brand

E) serving as a sales promotion device

Q3) Companies are able to avoid the clutter inherent in advertising media by attaching their names to special events and causes.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Name and describe the tools that are available to a public relations director when using proactive marketing public relations.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Packaging, Point-of-Purchase Communications, and Signage

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Grocery Manufacturer's Association has recently undertaken a major initiative to develop a means of measuring in-store advertising media.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The brand lift index _____.

A) gauges the average increase of in-store purchase decisions when point-of-purchase is present

B) gauges the average increase of in-store decision purchases when the package is changed

C) measures a brand's sales against that of the major competitor

D) measures a brand's sales by the type of store that sells the product

E) All of these are correct.

Q3) "Noticeability" refers to the ability of a sign to capture attention.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Green signifies purity,cleanliness,and mildness.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Name and describe the four categories of POP materials.

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Chapter 23: Personal Selling

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a salesperson disputes an objection and offers solid reasons for the dispute,the salesperson is in the _____ phase of personal selling.

A) close

B) approach

C) handling objections

D) prospecting

E) preapproach

Q2) Which of the following characteristics are associated with the modern selling practice?

A) trust and mutual agreement

B) long-term relationships

C) customer-centric

D) after-sales service

E) All of these are correct.

Q3) Which single factor below can explain salesperson performance?

A) tenacity

B) optimism

C) extraversion

D) reliability

E) None of these are correct.

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