Maternity Nursing Study Guide Questions - 1615 Verified Questions

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Maternity Nursing Study Guide

Questions

Course Introduction

Maternity Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the care of newborns. This course covers the physiological and psychological changes during pregnancy, labor and delivery processes, postnatal care for both mother and infant, and common complications that may arise. Students will learn to assess maternal and fetal health, provide supportive interventions, educate families, and promote safe and holistic maternity care in various healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, cultural competence, and advocacy for the health and well-being of mothers and their babies.

Recommended Textbook

Maternal Child Nursing 5th Edition by McKinney

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55 Chapters

1615 Verified Questions

1615 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Foundations of Maternity, Womens Health, and Child Health Nursing

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26 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In most states,adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before

A) treatment for drug abuse.

B) treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

C) accessing birth control.

D) surgery.

Answer: D

Q2) The intrapartum woman sees no need for a routine admission fetal monitoring strip.If she continues to refuse,what is the first action the nurse should take?

A) Consult the family of the woman.

B) Notify the provider of the situation.

C) Document the woman's refusal in the nurse's notes.

D) Make a referral to the hospital ethics committee.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: The Nurses Role in Maternity, Womens Health, and Pediatric Nursing

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17 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse wishes to incorporate the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics for Nurses in daily practice.Which of the following actions best demonstrates successful integration of the code into daily routines?

A) Strives to treat all patients equally and with caring kindness

B) Calls the provider when the patient's pain is not controlled with prescribed medications

C) Reads current literature related to practice area and brings ideas to unit management

D) Routinely stays overtime in order to visit and bond with new families

E) Decides to "play nicely" and not get involved in disputes about patient care

Answer: A,B,C

Q2) Which response by the nurse to the woman's statement,"I'm afraid to have a cesarean birth," would be the most therapeutic?

A) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"

B) "Everything will be OK."

C) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."

D) "The doctor will be in later, and you can talk to him."

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: The Childbearing and Child-Rearing Family

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true about the characteristics of a healthy family?

A) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.

B) Young families assume the total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.

C) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.

D) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.

Answer: D

Q2) A nurse observes that parents discuss rules with their children when the children do not agree with the rules.Which style of parenting is being displayed?

A) Autocratic

B) Authoritative

C) Permissive

D) Disciplinarian

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Communicating with Children and Families

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Sample Questions

Q1) An 8-year-old girl asks the nurse how the blood pressure apparatus works.The most appropriate nursing action is to

A) ask why the child wants to know.

B) determine why the child is so anxious.

C) explain in simple terms how it works.

D) tell the child he or she will see how it works as it is used.

Q2) Which information should the nurse include when preparing a 5-year-old child for a cardiac catheterization?

A) A detailed explanation of the procedure

B) A description of what the child will feel and see during procedure

C) An explanation about the dye that will go directly into his vein

D) An assurance to the child that he and the nurse can talk about the procedure when it is over

Q3) A nurse is caring for a child who does not speak English.The parents are able to understand and speak only limited English.What action by the nurse is best?

A) Allow the patient's 12-year-old sister to interpret.

B) See if there is another family member who can interpret.

C) Use a professionally trained interpreter for this family.

D) Use the Internet to translate written information in the native language.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Health Promotion for the Developing Child

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is planning to teach about injury prevention to a group of parents.What action by the nurse would best ensure a successful event?

A) Have handouts listing community resources.

B) Provide free safety gear like bike helmets.

C) Group parents by child's developmental stage.

D) Present the material in an interactive way.

Q2) A nurse is teaching parents to avoid environmental injury to their 2-year-old child.What information does the nurse include in teaching?

A) Avoiding sun exposure, secondhand smoke, and lead

B) Living in a middle-class neighborhood

C) Avoiding smoking and alcohol intake during pregnancy

D) Limiting breastfeeding to avoid toxins being passed through breast milk

Q3) Which child is most likely to be frightened by hospitalization?

A) A 4-month-old infant admitted with a diagnosis of bronchiolitis

B) A 2-year-old toddler admitted for cystic fibrosis

C) A 9-year-old child hospitalized with a fractured femur

D) A 15-year-old adolescent admitted for abdominal pain

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Chapter 6: Health Promotion for the Infant

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is modeling play time with a 6-month-old infant.Which activity is appropriate?

A) Pat-a-cake, peek-a-boo

B) Ball rolling, hide-and-seek game

C) Bright rattles and tactile toys

D) Push-and-pull toys

Q2) The nurse advises the mother of a 3-month-old exclusively breastfed infant to

A) start giving the infant a vitamin D supplement.

B) start using an infant feeder and add rice cereal to the formula.

C) start feeding the infant rice cereal with a spoon at the evening feeding.

D) continue breastfeeding without any supplements.

Q3) A nurse is making a home visit on a new mother with an infant.What action by the mother requires the nurse to intervene?

A) Cooks while holding and cuddling infant to provide comfort

B) Keeps hand on infant while reaching for supplies on changing table

C) Shows the nurse the water heater setting that is on 110° F (43.3° C)

D) Places baby to sleep in crib with no blankets, toys, or other objects

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Chapter 7: Health Promotion During Early Childhood

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nursing student has planned teaching for a toddler parent group on poison prevention in the home.In reviewing the presentation with the nurse,what information requires the nurse to provide more instruction to the student?

A) Lock all medications away securely.

B) Place cleaning supplies in a top cabinet.

C) Try not to let your child watch you take pills.

D) Call Poison Control right away for an exposure.

Q2) A parent is very frustrated by the amount of time a toddle says "no" and asks the nurse about effective strategies to manage this negativism.The most appropriate recommendation is to

A) punish the child for the behavior.

B) provide more attention to the child.

C) ask the child to not always say "no."

D) reduce the opportunities for a "no" answer.

Q3) Which statement is correct about toilet training?

A) Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.

B) Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.

C) Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.

D) Children should be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Health Promotion for the School-Age Child

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Sample Questions

Q1) The school nurse has been asked to begin teaching sex education in the 5th grade.The nurse should recognize that

A) children in 5th grade are too young for sex education.

B) children should be discouraged from asking too many questions.

C) correct terminology should be reserved for children who are older.

D) sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development.

Q2) Which demonstrates the school-age child's developing logic in the stage of concrete operations? (Select all that apply.)

A) Recognizes that 1 lb of feathers is equal to 1 lb of metal

B) Recognizes that he can be a son, brother, or nephew at the same time

C) Understands the principles of adding, subtracting, and reversibility

D) Has thinking that is characterized by egocentrism, animism, and centration

E) Often solves problems with random guessing instead of logic

Q3) In providing anticipatory guidance to parents,which parental behavior does the nurse teach as most important in fostering moral development?

A) Telling the child what is right and wrong

B) Vigilantly monitoring the child and her peers

C) Weekly family meetings to discuss behavior

D) Living as the parents say they believe

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Health Promotion for the Adolescent

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the best response a nurse can make to a 15-year-old girl who has verbalized a desire to have a baby?

A) "Have you talked with your parents about this?"

B) "Do you have plans to continue school?"

C) "Will you be able to support the baby?"

D) "Can you tell me how your life will be if you have an infant?"

Q2) A 17-year-old tells the nurse that he is not having sex because it would make his parents very angry.This response indicates that the adolescent has a developmental lag in which area?

A) Cognitive development

B) Moral development

C) Psychosocial development

D) Psychosexual development

Q3) Which is assessed with Tanner staging?

A) Hormone levels

B) Secondary sex characteristics

C) Growth hormone secretion

D) Hyperthyroidism

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Chapter 10: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The generalist nurse working with child-bearing families understands that his or her practice related to genetics includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Identifying families at risk and providing referrals

B) Interpreting genetic test results for the family

C) Assessing the couple's concern about genetic alterations

D) Helping create a family tree or pedigree

E) Providing support in all phases of genetic counseling

Q2) A woman tells the nurse at a prenatal interview that she has quit smoking,only has a glass of wine with dinner,and has cut down on coffee to four cups a day.What response by the nurse will be most helpful in promoting lifestyle changes?

A) "You have made some great progress toward having a healthy baby. Let's talk about the changes you have made."

B) "You need to do a lot better than that. You may still be hurting your baby right now."

C) "Here are some pamphlets for you to study. They will help you find more ways to improve."

D) "Those few things won't cause any trouble. Good for you."

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young female patient comes to the school nurse to discuss her irregular periods.In providing education regarding the female reproductive cycle,which phases of the ovarian cycle does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

A) Follicular

B) Ovulatory

C) Luteal

D) Proliferative

E) Secretory

Q2) The average man is taller than the average woman at maturity because of A) a longer period of skeletal growth.

B) earlier development of secondary sexual characteristics.

C) earlier onset of growth spurt.

D) starting puberty at an earlier age.

Q3) The function of the cremaster muscle in men is to A) aid in voluntary control of excretion of urine.

B) entrap blood in the penis to produce an erection.

C) assist with transporting sperm.

D) aid in temperature control of the testicles.

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Chapter 12: Conception and Prenatal Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) When explaining twin conception,the nurse points out that dizygotic twins develop from

A) a single fertilized ovum and are always of the same sex.

B) a single fertilized ovum and may be the same sex or different sexes.

C) two fertilized ova and are the same sex.

D) two fertilized ova and may be the same sex or different sexes.

Q2) The nursing faculty explains to students that the upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant because it is here that the

A) placenta attaches most firmly.

B) developing baby is best nourished.

C) uterine endometrium is softer.

D) maternal blood flow is lower.

Q3) A new mother is distresses over the "white substance" covering her infant because it "looks ugly." What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Scrub the substance off of the baby.

B) Reassure the mom that it will go away.

C) Report the findings to the provider.

D) Explain that the vernix caseosa protects fetal skin from amniotic fluid.

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Chapter 13: Adaptations to Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for patients in the prenatal clinical who are all 35 weeks along.Which patient should the nurse see first?

A) Shortness of breath when climbing stairs

B) Abdominal pain

C) Ankle edema in the afternoon

D) Backache with prolonged standing

Q2) A woman's last menstrual period was June 10.The nurse estimates the date of delivery (EDD)to be

A) April 7.

B) March 17.

C) March 27.

D) April 17.

Q3) Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of A) inadequate intake of iron.

B) dilution of hemoglobin concentration.

C) the fetus establishing iron stores.

D) decreased production of erythrocytes.

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Chapter 14: Nutrition for Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) A lactating woman tells the nurse she is glad to no longer have to follow specific dietary recommendations,now that her baby has been born.The nurse responds by teaching her that lactating women have an even greater need for which nutrients? (Select all that apply.)

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin D

C) Folic acid

D) Iron

E) Iodine

Q2) The nurse explains to the expectant mother that which vitamin or mineral can lead to congenital malformations of the fetus if taken in excess by the mother?

A) Zinc

B) Vitamin D

C) Folic acid

D) Vitamin A

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Chapter 15: Prenatal Diagnostic Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is at 6 weeks' gestation and is having a transvaginal ultrasound.While preparing the patient for this procedure,she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test.The nurse explains that this diagnostic test may be necessary to determine which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Multifetal gestation

B) Bicornuate uterus

C) Presence and location of pregnancy (intrauterine or elsewhere)

D) Amniotic fluid volume

E) Presence of ovarian cysts

Q2) The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide

A) advice to the couple.

B) assistance with decision making.

C) information about the tests.

D) reassurance about fetal safety.

Q3) A pregnant woman has the following assessments determined from a biophysical profile: reactive nonstress test,3 fetal breathing movements within 30 minutes,1 trunk movement in 30 minutes,opened and closed hand twice in 30 minutes,largest amniotic pocket of 1 cm.Calculate this woman's score. This woman's score is _____.

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Chapter 16: Giving Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) At hand-off report the off-going nurse states that the patient demonstrated clonus on her last assessment.What action by the on-coming nurse takes priority?

A) Repeat the woman's vital signs.

B) Institute seizure precautions.

C) Prepare for cesarean delivery.

D) Assess for pain.

Q2) The nurse notes that a woman who has given birth 1 hour ago is touching her infant with the fingertips and talking to him softly in high-pitched tones.On the basis of this observation,the nurse should

A) document this evidence of normal early maternal-infant attachment behavior.

B) observe for other signs that the mother may not be accepting of the infant.

C) request a social service consult for psychosocial support.

D) determine whether the mother is too fatigued to interact normally with her infant.

Q3) To assess the duration of labor contractions,the nurse determines the time

A) from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.

B) from the beginning to the end of each contraction.

C) of the strongest intensity of each contraction.

D) of uterine relaxation between two contractions.

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Chapter 17: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the mother's membranes rupture during active labor,the fetal heart rate should be observed for the occurrence of which periodic pattern?

A) Increase in baseline variability

B) Nonperiodic accelerations

C) Early decelerations

D) Variable decelerations

Q2) The precepting nurse explains to the newly hired nurse that when using IA for FHR which situation is unit protocol?

A) The nurses can be expected to cover only two or three patients when IA is the primary method of fetal assessment.

B) The best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with EFM when documenting results.

C) If the heartbeat cannot be found immediately, a shift must be made to electronic monitoring.

D) Ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor.

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Chapter 18: Pain Management for Childbirth

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman is experiencing most of her labor pain in her back.What action by the nurse is best?

A) Positioning the woman lying supine with head slightly elevated

B) Showing the support person how to apply firm pressure to the sacrum

C) Assisting the woman to sit upright with the legs straight

D) Massaging her upper back during a contraction

Q2) Childbirth preparation can be considered successful if the outcome is described as follows:

A) Labor and delivery were pain-free.

B) The woman's partner participated eagerly.

C) The woman rehearsed labor and practiced skills to master pain.

D) Only nonpharmacologic methods for pain control were used.

Q3) The best time to teach nonpharmacologic pain control methods to an unprepared laboring woman is during which phase?

A) Latent phase

B) Active phase

C) Transition phase

D) Second stage

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Chapter 19: Nursing Care during Obstetric Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) The labor and delivery nurse learns that recommendations from ACOG related to VBAC risks include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Immediate availability of the obstetric provider

B) Delivery at a tertiary care center

C) Availability of anesthesia personnel

D) Personnel who can assist with the cesarean birth

E) Use of misoprostol for cervical ripening

Q2) After an amniotomy,which action by the nurse takes priority?

A) Assess the color of the amniotic fluid.

B) Change the patient's gown.

C) Estimate the amount of amniotic fluid.

D) Assess the fetal heart rate.

Q3) Before the physician performs an external version,the nurse should expect an order for a

A) tocolytic drug.

B) contraction stress test (CST).

C) local anesthetic.

D) indwelling catheter.

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Chapter 20: Postpartum Adaptations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse observes a mother on her first postpartum day sitting in bed while her newborn lies awake in the bassinet.What action by the nurse is best?

A) Realize that this situation is perfectly acceptable.

B) Offer to hand the baby to the woman.

C) Hand the baby to the woman.

D) Explain "taking in" to the woman.

Q2) Which woman is most likely to have severe afterbirth pains and request a narcotic analgesic?

A) Gravida 5, para 5

B) Woman who is bottle-feeding her first child

C) Primipara who delivered a 7-lb boy

D) Woman who has started to breastfeed

Q3) The nurse assesses a woman's episiotomy or perineal laceration using the acronym REEDA.What factors does this include? (Select all that apply.)

A) Redness

B) Edema

C) Approximation

D) Depth

E) Discharge

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Page 22

Chapter 21: The Normal Newborn: Adaptation and Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the quickest and most common method to obtain neonatal blood for glucose screening 1 hour after birth?

A) Puncture the lateral pad of the heel.

B) Obtain a sample from the umbilical cord.

C) Puncture a fingertip.

D) Obtain a laboratory chemical determination.

Q2) The nurse understands that respirations are initiated at birth as a result of A) an increase in the PO<sub>2</sub> and a decrease in PCO<sub>2</sub>.

B) the continued functioning of the foramen ovale.

C) chemical, thermal, sensory, and mechanical factors.

D) drying off the infant.

Q3) An infant has an elevated immunoglobulin M (IgM)level.What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Encourage the mother to breastfeed the baby.

B) Document the findings in the infant's chart.

C) Assess the infant for other signs of allergy.

D) Take a set of vital signs on the infant, and then notify the provider.

Q4) An infant was born weighing 7.2 pounds.Calculate this infant's oral intake needs._______

Page 23

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Chapter 22: The Normal Newborn: Nursing Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant's eyes and why it is needed.The nurse explains to the father that the purpose of the ophthalmic ointment is to

A) destroy an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind.

B) prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant's eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal.

C) prevent potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant's eyes, leading to dry eyes.

D) prevent the infant's eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see.

Q2) The nurse should model and teach practices used to prevent sudden infant death syndrome.Which of the following do these include? (Select all that apply.)

A) Fully supine position for all sleep

B) Side-sleeping position as an acceptable alternative

C) "Tummy time" for play

D) Placing the infant's crib in the parents' room

E) A soft mattress

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Newborn Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) The mother who is pumping for an occasional bottle would be most suited for which type of breast pump?

A) Manual or hand pump

B) Hospital-grade pump

C) Electric self-cycling double pumps

D) Smaller electric or battery-operated pump

Q2) Which are examples of appropriate techniques to wake a sleepy infant for breastfeeding? (Select all that apply.)

A) Unwrap the infant.

B) Change the diaper.

C) Talk to the infant.

D) Slap the infant's hands and feet.

E) Apply a cold towel to the infant's abdomen.

Q3) The difference between the aseptic and terminal methods of sterilization is that the

A) aseptic method does not require boiling of the bottles.

B) terminal method requires boiling water to be added to the formula.

C) aseptic method requires a longer preparation time.

D) terminal method sterilizes the prepared formula at the same time it sterilizes the equipment.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful?

A) Battering phase

B) Honeymoon phase

C) Tension-building phase

D) Increased drug-taking phase

Q2) A woman has delivered twins.The first twin was stillborn,and the second is in the intensive care nursery and is recovering quickly from respiratory distress.The woman is crying softly and says,"I wish my baby could have lived." What is the most therapeutic response?

A) "Don't be sad. At least you have one healthy baby."

B) "How soon do you plan to have another baby?"

C) "I have a friend who lost a twin and she's doing just fine now "

D) "I am so sorry about your loss. Would you like to talk about it?"

Q3) In counseling a patient who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption,the nurse should do which of the following?

A) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.

B) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.

C) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.

D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.

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Chapter 25: Pregnancy-Related Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) The primary symptom present in abruptio placentae that distinguishes it from placenta previa is

A) vaginal bleeding.

B) rupture of membranes.

C) presence of abdominal pain.

D) changes in maternal vital signs.

Q2) A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate.The drug classification of this medication is

A) tocolytic.

B) anticonvulsant.

C) antihypertensive.

D) diuretic.

Q3) The nurse is explaining how to assess edema to the nursing students working on the antepartum unit.Which score indicates edema of lower extremities,face,hands,and sacral area?

A) +1 edema

B) +2 edema

C) +3 edema

D) +4 edema

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders during Pregnancy

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Q1) To manage her diabetes appropriately and ensure a good fetal outcome,the pregnant woman with diabetes will need to alter her diet by doing which of the following?

A) Eating six small equal meals per day

B) Reducing carbohydrates in her diet

C) Eating her meals and snacks on a fixed schedule

D) Increasing her consumption of protein

Q2) Nursing intervention for the pregnant diabetic is based on the knowledge that the need for insulin

A) increases throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.

B) decreases throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.

C) varies depending on the stage of gestation.

D) should not change because the fetus produces its own insulin.

Q3) A pregnant diabetic woman is in the hospital and her blood glucose reading is 42 mg/dL.What action by the nurse is best?

A) Provide her with 15 grams of oral carbohydrate if she can swallow.

B) Administer a bolus of rapid-acting insulin.

C) Order the woman a meal tray from the cafeteria.

D) Notify the provider immediately.

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Page 28

Chapter 27: The Woman with an Intrapartum Complication

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8530

Sample Questions

Q1) The nursing faculty explains to students on the labor and delivery unit that late preterm and term births are very different.What distinguishes the late preterm birth from a term birth? (Select all that apply.)

A) Late preterm births are between 34 and 36 completed weeks of pregnancy.

B) There is no real difference in mortality between the two types of births.

C) Late preterm infants may appear to be full term at delivery.

D) A late preterm infant who appears full term is classified full term.

E) Late preterm infants need careful assessments of gestational age.

Q2) A woman in labor at 34 weeks of gestation is hospitalized and treated with intravenous magnesium sulfate for 18 to 20 hours.When the magnesium sulfate is discontinued,which oral drug will probably be prescribed for continuation of the tocolytic effect?

A) Ritodrine

B) Terbutaline

C) Calcium gluconate

D) Pitocin

Q3) The provider orders an infusion of magnesium sulfate to run at 4 g/hour.The pharmacy delivers a bag of 4 g magnesium sulfate in 250 mL.At what rate does the nurse set the pump? ___________________

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Page 29

Chapter 28: The Woman with a Postpartum Complication

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8531

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement by a postpartum woman indicates that teaching about thrombus formation has been effective?

A) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."

B) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."

C) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."

D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."

Q2) What instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan to assist the patient in recognizing early signs of complications?

A) Palpate the fundus daily to ensure that it is soft.

B) Notify the physician of a return to bright red bleeding.

C) Report any decrease in the amount of brownish red lochia.

D) The passage of clots as large as an orange can be expected.

Q3) Which measure may prevent mastitis in the breastfeeding mother?

A) Initiating early and frequent feedings

B) Nursing the infant for 5 minutes on each breast

C) Wearing a tight-fitting bra

D) Applying ice packs before feeding

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Page 30

Chapter 29: The High-Risk Newborn: Problems Related to

Gestational Age and Development

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8532

Sample Questions

Q1) Which combination of expressing pain could be demonstrated in a neonate?

A) Low-pitched crying, tachycardia, eyelids open wide

B) Cry face, flaccid limbs, closed mouth

C) High-pitched, shrill cry, withdrawal, change in heart rate

D) Cry face, eye squeeze, increase in blood pressure

Q2) With regard to eventual discharge of the high-risk newborn or transfer to a different facility,nurses and families should be aware that

A) infants will stay in the NICU until they are ready to go home.

B) once discharged to home, the high-risk infant should be treated like any healthy term newborn.

C) parents of high-risk infants need special support and detailed contact information.

D) if a high-risk infant and mother need transfer to a specialized regional center, it is better to wait until after birth and the infant is stabilized.

Q3) Which is true about newborns classified as small for gestational age ( SGA )?

A) They weigh less than 2500g.

B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.

C) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.

D) They are below the 10th percentile on gestational growth charts.

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Chapter 30: The High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)is thought to occur as a result of A) a lack of surfactant.

B) hypoinflation of the lungs.

C) delayed absorption of fetal lung fluid.

D) a slow vaginal delivery associated with meconium-stained fluid.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a neonate undergoing phototherapy.What action does the nurse include on the infant's care plan?

A) Keep the infant's eyes covered under the light.

B) Keep the infant supine at all times.

C) Restrict parenteral and oral fluids.

D) Dress the infant in only a T-shirt and diaper.

Q3) A woman who has had no prenatal care enters the labor and delivery unit in advanced labor.She has chickenpox.What action by the nurse is best?

A) Place the woman in isolation.

B) Give the woman immune globulin before delivery.

C) Treat the woman with acyclovir.

D) Administer antibiotics to the infant after birth.

Q4) The nurse is preparing a dose of naloxone for a newborn who weighs 6.9 pounds.How much naloxone does the nurse administer? ______ mg

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Chapter 31: Management of Fertility and Infertility

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs),nurses should be aware that A) return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed.

B) IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse.

C) IUDs offer the same protection against sexually transmitted diseases as the diaphragm.

D) consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.

Q2) A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice.The nurse's most appropriate response is

A) "This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects."

B) "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill."

C) "The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication."

D) "This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history."

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Chapter 32: Womens HealthCare

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8535

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman is 6 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy.The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the first trimester is

A) administration of prostaglandins.

B) dilation and evacuation.

C) intravenous administration of Pitocin.

D) vacuum aspiration.

Q2) During her annual gynecologic checkup,a woman states that recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual periods.The nurse should document this complaint as

A) amenorrhea.

B) dysmenorrhea.

C) dyspareunia.

D) PMS.

Q3) The drug of choice to treat gonorrhea is

A) penicillin G.

B) tetracycline.

C) ceftriaxone.

D) acyclovir.

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Physical Assessment of Children

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Kimberly is having a checkup before starting kindergarten.The nurse asks her to do the "finger-to-nose" test.The nurse is testing for

A) deep tendon reflexes.

B) cerebellar function.

C) sensory discrimination.

D) ability to follow directions.

Q2) The nurse has a 2-year-old boy sit in a "tailor" position during palpation for the testes.What is the rationale for this position?

A) It prevents cremasteric reflex.

B) Undescended testes can be palpated.

C) This tests the child for an inguinal hernia.

D) The child does not yet have a need for privacy.

Q3) The nurse is obtaining vital signs on a 1-year-old child.What is the most appropriate site for assessing the pulse rate?

A) Apical

B) Radial

C) Carotid

D) Femoral

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Chapter 34: Emergency Care of the Child

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The emergency department nurse notices that the mother of a young child is making a lot of phone calls and getting advice from her friends about what she should do.This behavior is an indication of A) stress.

B) healthy coping skills.

C) attention-getting behaviors.

D) low self-esteem.

Q2) A 5-year-old child is in cardiopulmonary arrest,and the nursing staff is performing CPR.One of the nurses is doing compressions at the rate of 90 per minute.What action by the charge nurse is best?

A) Take over compressions.

B) Tell the nurse to speed up.

C) Tell the nurse to slow down.

D) Have the nurse compress more deeply.

Q3) What is the goal of the initial intervention for a child in cardiopulmonary arrest?

A) Establishing a patent airway

B) Determining a pulse rate

C) Removing clothing

D) Reassuring the parents

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Page 36

Chapter 35: The Ill Child in the Hospital and Other Care Settings

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28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 3 1/2-year-old child who is toilet trained has had several "accidents" since hospital admission.What is the nurse's best action in this situation?

A) Find out how long the child has been toilet trained at home.

B) Encourage the parents to scold the child.

C) Explain how to use a bedpan and place it close to the child.

D) Follow home routines of elimination.

Q2) A 3-year-old child cries,kicks,and clings to the father when the parents try to leave the hospital room.What is the nurse's best response to the parents about this behavior?

A) "Your child is showing a normal response to the stress of hospitalization."

B) "Your child is not coping effectively with hospitalization."

C) "Parents should stay with children during hospitalization."

D) "You can avoid this if you leave after your child falls asleep."

Q3) Which intervention helps a hospitalized toddler feel a sense of control?

A) Assign the same nurses to care for the child.

B) Put a cover over the child's crib.

C) Require parents to stay with the child.

D) Follow the child's usual routines for feeding and bedtime.

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Page 37

Chapter 36: The Child with a Chronic Condition or Terminal Illness

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which should a nurse identify as common chronic illnesses of childhood? (Select all that apply.)

A) Reactive airway disease (asthma)

B) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

C) Cerebral palsy

D) Diabetes mellitus

E) Human immunodeficiency virus infection (HIV)

Q2) What corresponds to a 5-year-old child's understanding of death?

A) Loss of a caretaker

B) Reversible and temporary

C) Permanent

D) Inevitable

Q3) In order to minimize the negative effects of illness and hospitalization on an infant,the nurse focuses care on which of the following?

A) Bodily injury and pain

B) Separation from caregivers and fear of strangers

C) Loss of control and altered body image

D) The unknown and being left alone

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Chapter 37: Principles and Procedures for Nursing Care of Children

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A toddler's temperature is 101.5° F (38.6° C)axillary.The physician has ordered acetaminophen 10 mg/kg every 4 to 6 hours.The child weighs 22 lb.The bottle of acetaminophen available is a suspension (160 mg/5 mL).______

How much should the nurse administer? Round to the nearest milliliter.

Q2) What is critical for the nurse to know when using restraints on a child?

A) Use the least restrictive type of restraint.

B) Tie knots securely so they cannot be untied easily.

C) Secure the ties to the mattress or side rails.

D) Remove restraints every 4 hours to assess skin integrity.

Q3) A nurse must do a venipuncture on a 6-year-old child.An important consideration in providing atraumatic care is to

A) use an 18-gauge needle if possible.

B) wait 10 minutes after applying EMLA cream.

C) restrain child only as needed to perform venipuncture safely.

D) have the parents choose the child's favorite bandage afterward.

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Chapter 38: Medication Administration and Safety for

Infants and Children

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8541

Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching a mother how to administer eye drops,where should the nurse tell her to place them?

A) In the conjunctival sac that is formed when the lower lid is pulled down

B) Carefully under the eyelid while it is gently pulled upward

C) On the sclera while the child looks to the side

D) Anywhere as long as drops contact the eye's surface

Q2) What action is appropriate when using an EMLA cream before intravenous catheter insertion?

A) Rub a liberal amount of cream into the skin thoroughly.

B) Cover the skin with a gauze dressing after applying the cream.

C) Leave the cream on the skin for 1 to 2 hours before the procedure.

D) Use the smallest amount of cream necessary to numb the skin surface.

Q3) A child is receiving intravenous fluids.How frequently should the nurse assess and document the condition of the child's intravenous site?

A) Every hour

B) Every 2 hours

C) Every 4 hours

D) Every shift

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Chapter 39: Pain Management for Children

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20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering an opioid medication to a child.Which side effects should the nurse watch for with this classification of medication? (Select all that apply.)

A) Respiratory depression

B) Hepatic damage

C) Constipation

D) Pruritus

E) Gastrointestinal bleeding

Q2) A nurse in the pediatric critical care unit assesses a child for pain using the COMFORT behavior scale.The child scores a 25.What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Ask a parent if the child is in pain.

B) Medicate the patient for pain.

C) Document and reassess in 4 hours.

D) Notify the provider.

Q3) When using the poker chip tool,it is important for the nurse to know that

A) any number of chips can be used.

B) only a specified number of chips can be used.

C) the assessment tool is used with adolescents.

D) the assessment tool is most effectively used with 2-year-old children.

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Page 41

Chapter 40: The Child with a Fluid and Electrolyte Alteration

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8543

Sample Questions

Q1) Which action is the primary concern in the treatment plan for a child with persistent vomiting?

A) Detecting the cause of vomiting

B) Preventing metabolic acidosis

C) Positioning the child to prevent further vomiting

D) Recording intake and output

Q2) What is the priority nursing intervention for a 6-month-old infant hospitalized with diarrhea and dehydration?

A) Estimating insensible fluid loss

B) Collecting urine for culture and sensitivity

C) Palpating the posterior fontanel

D) Measuring the infant's weight

Q3) Which assessment findings indicate to the nurse that a child has excess fluid volume? (Select all that apply.)

A) Weight gain

B) Decreased blood pressure

C) Moist breath sounds

D) Poor skin turgor

E) Rapid bounding pulse

Q4) Bodily fluids are composed of two elements: water and _____.

42

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Chapter 41: The Child with an Infectious Disease

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement made by an adolescent girl indicates an understanding about the prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

A) "I know the only way to prevent STDs is to not be sexually active."

B) "I practice safe sex because I wash myself right after sex."

C) "I won't get any kind of STD because I take the pill."

D) "I only have sex if my boyfriend wears a condom."

Q2) The mother of an infant with multiple anomalies tells the nurse that she had a viral infection in the beginning of her pregnancy.Which viral infection is associated with fetal anomalies?

A) Measles

B) Roseola

C) Rubella

D) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Q3) Which statement made by a parent about intervention for a child's fever shows the need for further education?

A) "I should keep her covered lightly when she has a fever."

B) "I'll give her plenty of liquids to keep her hydrated."

C) "I can give her acetaminophen for a fever."

D) "I'll look for over-the-counter aspirin or ibuprofen."

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Page 43

Chapter 42: The Child with an Immunologic Alteration

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which suggestion is appropriate to teach a mother who has a preschool child who refuses to take the medications for HIV infection?

A) Mix medications with chocolate syrup or pudding

B) Mix the medications with milk or an essential food.

C) Skip the dose of medication if the child protests too much.

D) Mix the medication in a syringe, hold the child down firmly, and administer the medication.

Q2) What is the most common mode of transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)in the pediatric population?

A) Perinatal transmission

B) Sexual abuse

C) Blood transfusions

D) Poor handwashing

Q3) Children receiving long-term systemic corticosteroid therapy are most at risk for which condition?

A) Hypotension

B) Dilation of blood vessels in the cheeks

C) Growth delays

D) Decreased appetite and weight loss

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Page 44

Chapter 43: The Child with a Gastrointestinal Alteration

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55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for the toddler with celiac disease?

A) Disturbed Body Image related to chronic constipation

B) Risk for Disproportionate Growth related to obesity

C) Excess Fluid Volume related to celiac crisis

D) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to malabsorption

Q2) The earliest clinical manifestation of biliary atresia is

A) jaundice.

B) vomiting.

C) hepatomegaly.

D) absence of stooling.

Q3) What is an appropriate statement for the nurse to make to parents of a child who has had a barium enema to correct an intussusception?

A) "I will call the physician when the baby passes his first stool."

B) "I am going to dilate the anal sphincter with a gloved finger to help the baby pass the barium."

C) "Your baby can't have anything to eat or drink until bowel function returns."

D) "Add cereal to the baby's formula to help him pass the barium."

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Chapter 44: The Child with a Genitourinary Alteration

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is planning care for a child admitted with nephrotic syndrome.Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

A) Administration of antihypertensive medications

B) Daily weights

C) Salt-restricted diet

D) Frequent position changes

E) Teaching parents to expect tea-colored urine

Q2) Which statement by a school-age girl indicates the need for further teaching about the prevention of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A) "I always wear cotton underwear."

B) "I really enjoy taking a bubble bath."

C) "I go to the bathroom every 3 to 4 hours."

D) "I drink four to six glasses of fluid every day."

Q3) The most common cause of acute kidney injury in children is A) pyelonephritis.

B) tubular destruction.

C) urinary tract obstruction.

D) severe dehydration.

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Chapter 45: The Child with a Respiratory Alteration

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48 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement made by parents of a child with cystic fibrosis indicates that they understood the nurse's teaching on pancreatic enzyme replacement?

A) "Enzymes will improve my child's breathing."

B) "I should give the enzymes 1 hour after meals."

C) "Enzymes should be given with meals and snacks."

D) "The enzymes are stopped if my child begins wheezing."

Q2) For which problem should the child with chronic otitis media with effusion be evaluated?

A) Brain abscess

B) Meningitis

C) Hearing loss

D) Perforation of the tympanic membrane

Q3) Which finding confirms a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?

A) Chest radiograph shows alveolar hyperinflation.

B) Stool analysis indicates significant amounts of fecal fat.

C) Sweat chloride is greater than 60 mEq/L.

D) Liver function levels are abnormal.

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Chapter 46: The Child with a Cardiovascular Alteration

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child has a total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL.What dietary recommendations should the nurse make to the child and the child's parents? (Select all that apply.)

A) Replace whole milk with 1% milk.

B) Increase servings of red meat.

C) Increase servings of fish.

D) Avoid excessive intake of fruit juices.

E) Limit servings of whole grain.

Q2) For what reason might a newborn infant with a cardiac defect,such as coarctation of the aorta,that results in a right-to-left shunt receive prostaglandin E??

A) To decrease inflammation

B) To control pain

C) To decrease respirations

D) To improve oxygenation

Q3) A common,serious complication of rheumatic fever is A) seizures.

B) cardiac dysrhythmias.

C) pulmonary hypertension.

D) cardiac valve damage.

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Chapter 47: The Child with a Hematologic Alteration

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement best describes beta-thalassemia major (Cooley anemia)?

A) All formed elements of the blood are depressed.

B) Inadequate numbers of red blood cells are present.

C) Increased incidence occurs in families of Mediterranean extraction.

D) Increased incidence occurs in persons of West African descent.

Q2) What is a priority intervention in planning care for the child with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A) Hospitalization at the first sign of bleeding

B) Teaching the child relaxation techniques for pain control

C) Management in the intensive care unit

D) Provision of adequate hydration to prevent complications

Q3) What is the priority nursing intervention for a child hospitalized with hemarthrosis resulting from hemophilia?

A) Immobilization and elevation of the affected joint

B) Administration of acetaminophen for pain relief

C) Assessment of the child's response to hospitalization

D) Assessment of the impact of hospitalization on the family system

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Chapter 48: The Child with Cancer

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What fluid is the best choice when a child with mucositis asks for something to drink?

A) Hot chocolate

B) Lemonade

C) Popsicle

D) Orange juice

Q2) A nurse has taught the parents about home care of their child who has leukemia.Which statement made by the parents indicates an understanding of this teaching?

A) "We will take our child's blood pressure daily."

B) "We will restrict fluids in case there is central nervous system involvement."

C) "We will make sure our child gets all immunizations in a timely manner."

D) "We will take our child's temperature frequently."

Q3) A child has a brain tumor.What assessment finding leads the nurse to request a physical therapy consultation?

A) Dizziness

B) Ataxia

C) Slurred speech

D) Visual changes

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Chapter 49: The Child with an Alteration in Tissue Integrity

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34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What procedure is contraindicated in the care of a child with a minor partial-thickness burn injury wound?

A) Cleaning the affected area with mild soap and water

B) Applying antimicrobial ointment to the burn wound

C) Changing dressings daily

D) Leaving all loose tissue or skin intact

Q2) Ringworm,frequently found in schoolchildren,is caused by a(n) A) virus.

B) fungus.

C) allergic reaction.

D) bacterial infection.

Q3) Where do the lesions of atopic dermatitis most commonly occur in the infant? (Select all that apply.)

A) Cheeks

B) Buttocks

C) Extensor surfaces of arms and legs

D) Back

E) Scalp

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Chapter 50: The Child with a Musculoskeletal Alteration

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8553

Sample Questions

Q1) When a child with a musculoskeletal injury on the foot is assessed,what is most indicative of a fracture?

A) Increased swelling after the injury is iced

B) The presence of localized tenderness distal to the site

C) The presence of an elevated temperature for 24 hours

D) The inability of the child to bear weight

Q2) What is the major concern guiding treatment for the child with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?

A) Avoid permanent deformity.

B) Minimize pain.

C) Maintain normal activities.

D) Encourage new hobbies.

Q3) A neonate is born with mild clubfeet.When the parents ask the nurse how this will be corrected,what response by the nurse is best?

A) Traction is tried first.

B) Surgical intervention is needed.

C) Frequent, serial casting is tried first.

D) Children outgrow this condition when they learn to walk.

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Chapter 51: The Child with an Endocrine or Metabolic Alteration

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the primary concern for a 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes mellitus who asks his mother not to tell anyone at school that he has diabetes?

A) The child's safety

B) The privacy of the child

C) Development of a sense of industry

D) Peer group acceptance

Q2) Which children admitted to the pediatric unit would the nurse monitor closely for development of SIADH? (Select all that apply.)

A) A newly diagnosed preschooler with type 1 diabetes

B) A school-age child returning from surgery for removal of a brain tumor

C) An infant with suspected meningitis

D) An adolescent with blunt abdominal trauma following a car accident

E) A school-age child with head trauma

Q3) What is the best time for the nurse to assess the peak effectiveness of subcutaneously administered regular insulin?

A) Two hours after administration

B) Four hours after administration

C) Immediately after administration

D) Thirty minutes after administration

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Chapter 52: The Child with a Neurologic Alteration

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Latex allergy is suspected in a child with spina bifida.Appropriate nursing interventions include which of the following?

A) Avoiding using any latex product

B) Using only non-allergenic latex products

C) Administering medication for long-term desensitization

D) Teaching family about long-term management of allergic manifestations

Q2) A mother reports that her child has episodes where he appears to be staring into space.This behavior is characteristic of which type of seizure?

A) Absence

B) Atonic

C) Tonic-clonic

D) Simple partial

Q3) Which finding in an analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?

A) CSF appears cloudy.

B) CSF pressure is decreased.

C) Few leukocytes are present.

D) Glucose level is increased compared with blood.

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Chapter 53: Psychosocial Problems in Children and Families

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8556

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the goal of therapeutic management for a child diagnosed with ADHD?

A) Administer stimulant medications.

B) Assess the child for other psychosocial disorders.

C) Correct nutritional imbalances.

D) Reduce the frequency and intensity of unsocialized behaviors.

Q2) Which finding noted by the nurse on a physical assessment is most suggestive that a child has been sexually abused?

A) Swelling of the genitalia and pain on urination

B) Smooth philtrum and thin upper lip

C) Speech and physical development delays

D) History of constipation, drowsiness, and constricted pupils

Q3) In counseling an adolescent who is abusing alcohol,the nurse explains that alcohol abuse primarily affects which organ of the body?

A) Heart

B) Liver

C) Brain

D) Lungs

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Page 55

Chapter 54: The Child With an Intellectual Disability or Developmental

Disability

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8557

Sample Questions

Q1) The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with a cognitive dysfunction is A) impaired social interaction.

B) deficient knowledge.

C) risk for injury.

D) ineffective coping.

Q2) Which is the best setting for daytime care for a 5-year-old autistic child whose mother works?

A) Private day care

B) Public school

C) His own home with a sitter

D) A specialized program that uses behavioral methods

Q3) A child with autism is hospitalized with asthma.The nurse should plan care so that the

A) parents' expectations are met.

B) child's routine habits and preferences are maintained.

C) child is supported through the autistic crisis.

D) parents need not be at the hospital.

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Page 56

Chapter 55: The Child with a Sensory Alteration

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8558

Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent goes to the primary care provider complaining of difficulty with vision.When the nurse asks the adolescent to explain the visual deficits,the adolescent states,"I am having difficulty seeing distant objects; they are less clear than things that are close." What disorder does the nurse suspect the adolescent has?

A) Hyphema

B) Astigmatism

C) Amblyopia

D) Myopia

Q2) Which teaching guideline helps prevent eye injuries during sports and play activities?

A) Restrict helmet use to those who wear eye glasses or contact lenses.

B) Discourage the use of goggles with helmets so the child can see better.

C) Wear eye protection when participating in high-risk sports such as paintball.

D) Wear a face mask when playing any sport or playing roughly.

Q3) A patient who has a hyphema is at risk for developing which condition?

A) Glaucoma

B) Strabismus

C) Diplopia

D) Astigmatism

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