Maternity Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
Maternity Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women throughout the childbearing period, encompassing preconception, pregnancy, labor, delivery, postpartum, and neonatal care. The course emphasizes the physiological and psychological changes during pregnancy, as well as current best practices in maternal and newborn health. Students learn to provide supportive, evidence-based care, assess and manage common complications, educate families, and advocate for the health needs of mothers and infants in diverse healthcare settings. Ethical, cultural, and legal aspects of maternity nursing are also explored to prepare students for holistic and compassionate practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the advantage of a labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) room?
A)The family is in a familiar environment.
B)They are less expensive than traditional hospital rooms.
C)The infant is removed to the nursery to allow the mother to rest.
D)The woman's support system is encouraged to stay until discharge.
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A)The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B)Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C)Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D)Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which issue is a major concern among members of lower socioeconomic groups?
A) Practicing preventive health care
B) Meeting health needs as they occur
C) Maintaining an optimistic view of life
D) Maintaining group health insurance for their families
Answer: B
Q2) At the present time, which agency governs surrogate parenting?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
Q3) While teaching an Asian patient regarding prenatal care, the nurse notes that the patient refuses to make eye contact. Which is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A) A submissive attitude
B) Lack of understanding
C) Embarrassment about the subject
D) Cultural beliefs about eye contact
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient who has gone through puberty and started menstruating without any problems has developed cessation of periods after 2 years of normal cycles. Which finding would indicate a possible cause for this occurrence?
A) Lag in development of secondary sexual characteristics
B) Overproduction of androgenic hormones
C) Negative pregnancy test
D) Clinical diagnosis of primary amenorrhea
Answer: B
Q2) The clinic nurse is reviewing breastfeeding with a pregnant patient. Which hormone will the nurse explain is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic is related to Down syndrome?
A) Up-slanting eyes
B) Abnormal genitalia
C) Bleeding tendency
D) Edema of extremities
Q2) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene are generally
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
Q4) A patient presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) dominant alleles.
D) recessive traits.
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.
C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Q2) Some of the embryo's intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the
A) intestines need this time to grow until week 15.
B) nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location.
C) abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.
D) umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy.
Q3) Which statement best describes the changes that occur during the fetal period of development?
A) Maturation of organ systems
B) Development of basic organ systems
C) Resistance of organs to damage from external agents
D) Development of placental oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While providing education to a primiparous patient regarding the normal changes of pregnancy, what is an important information for the nurse to share regarding Braxton Hicks contractions?
A) These contractions may indicate preterm labor.
B) These are contractions that never cause any discomfort.
C) Braxton Hicks contractions only start during the third trimester.
D) These occur throughout pregnancy, but you may not feel them until the third trimester.
Q2) Which situation best describes a man trying on fathering behaviors?
A) Reading books on newborn care
B) Spending more time with his siblings
C) Coaching a little league baseball team
D) Exhibiting physical symptoms related to pregnancy
Q3) Which of these findings would indicate a potential complication related to renal function during pregnancy?
A) Increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
B) Increase in serum creatinine level
C) Decrease in blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Mild proteinuria
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complaint made by a patient at 35 weeks of gestation requires additional assessment?
A) Abdominal pain
B) Ankle edema in the afternoon
C) Backache with prolonged standing
D) Shortness of breath when climbing stairs
Q2) In a prenatal education class, the nurse is reviewing the importance of using relaxation techniques during labor. Which patient statement will the nurse need to correct?
A) "We will practice relaxation techniques only in a quiet setting so I can focus."
B) "Relaxation is important during labor because it will help me conserve my energy."
C) "If I relax in between contractions, my baby will get more oxygen during labor."
D) "My partner and I will practice relaxation throughout the remainder of my pregnancy."
Q3) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a patient whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number. _______
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Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a breastfeeding patient about substances to avoid while she is breastfeeding. Which substances should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Omega-6 fatty acids
D) Appetite suppressants
E) Polyunsaturated omega-3 fatty acids
Q2) The nurse is advising a lactose-intolerant pregnant patient about calcium intake. Which calcium sources are approximately equivalent to 1 cup of milk? (Select all that apply.)
A) \( 3 / 4 \) cup yogurt
B) 1 cup of sherbet
C) 1\(\frac{1}{4}\) oz of hard cheese
D) 1\(\frac{1}{4}\) cups of ice cream
E) \( 3 / 4 \) cup of low-fat cottage cheese
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant asks the nurse to explain the vibroacoustic stimulator (VAS) test. Which should the nurse include in the response? (Select all that apply.)
A) The test is invasive.
B) The test uses sound to elicit fetal movements.
C) The test may confirm nonreactive nonstress test results.
D) The test can only be performed if contractions are present.
E) Vibroacoustic stimulation can be repeated at 1-minute intervals up to three times.
Q2) A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
A) NST positive, nonreassuring
B) NST negative, reassuring
C) NST reactive, reassuring
D) NST nonreactive, nonreassuring
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11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which routine nursing assessment is contraindicated for a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa?
A) Determining cervical dilation and effacement
B) Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs
C) Observing vaginal bleeding or leakage of amniotic fluid
D) Determining frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions
Q2) A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
A) gastrointestinal upset.
B) effects of magnesium sulfate.
C) anxiety caused by hospitalization.
D) worsening disease and impending convulsion.
Q3) Which intervention is the priority for the patient diagnosed with an intact tubal pregnancy?
A) Assessment of pain level
B) Administration of methotrexate
C) Administration of Rh immune globulin
D) Explanation of the common side effects of the treatment plan
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which health concern is most likely to be an issue for the older mother?
A) Nutrition and diet planning
B) Exercise and fitness
C) Having enough rest and sleep
D) Effective contraceptive methods
Q2) Which action is the most appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect at birth?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
Q3) A patient at 24 weeks of gestation reports that she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. Which rationale should the nurse provide this patient regarding the necessity to eliminate alcohol intake?
A) The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth.
B) The fetus is at risk for severe nervous system injury.
C) The patient will be at risk for abusing other substances as well.
D) A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism.
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient whose cervix is dilated to 6 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor?
A) Latent phase
B) Active phase
C) Second stage
D) Third stage
Q2) Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent during labor?
A) A full bladder
B) Decreased peristalsis
C) Rupture of membranes
D) Reduction in internal uterine size
Q3) A laboring patient asks the nurse how she will know that the contraction is at its peak. The nurse explains that the contraction peaks during which stage of measurement?
A) The acme
B) The interval
C) The increment
D) The decrement
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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient will most likely have increased anxiety and tension during labor?
A) Gravida 2 who refused any medication
B) Gravida 2 who delivered a stillborn baby last year
C) Gravida 1 who did not attend prepared childbirth classes
D) Gravida 3 who has two children younger than 3 years
Q2) While developing an intrapartum care plan for the patient in early labor, it is important that the nurse recognize that psychosocial factors may influence a woman's experience of pain. These include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Culture
B) Anxiety and fear
C) Support systems
D) Preparation for childbirth
E) Previous experiences with pain
Q3) The primary side effect of maternal narcotic analgesia in the newborn is A) tachypnea.
B) bradycardia.
C) acrocyanosis.
D) respiratory depression.
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding can be determined only by electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Variability
B) Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Fetal response to contractions
Q2) When the mother's membranes rupture during active labor, the fetal heart rate should be observed for the occurrence of which periodic pattern?
A) Early decelerations
B) Variable decelerations
C) Nonperiodic accelerations
D) Increase in baseline variability
Q3) The fetal heart rate baseline increases 20 bpm after vibroacoustic stimulation. The best interpretation of this is that the fetus is showing
A) a worsening hypoxia.
B) progressive acidosis.
C) an expected response.
D) parasympathetic stimulation.
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16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2163
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse auscultates the fetal heart rate and determines a rate of 152 bpm. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate at this time?
A) Inform the mother that the fetal heart rate is normal.
B) Reassess the fetal heart rate in 5 minutes because the rate is too high.
C) Report the fetal heart rate to the physician or nurse-midwife immediately.
D) Suggest to the mother that she is going to have a boy because the heart rate is fast.
Q2) A woman who is gravida 3, para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments include
A) contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history.
B) fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth.
C) last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.
D) identification of ruptured membranes, the woman's gravida and para, and access to a support person.
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17
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman, is evaluated to be at 42 weeks' gestation on admission to the labor and birth unit. The patient is not in labor at the current time; however, she has been sent over by the physician to be admitted for the induction of labor. The patient indicates to you that she would rather go home and wait for natural labor to start. How should the nurse respond to the patient's request?
A) There is no way to tell if any complications would arise. Because the patient is not presenting with any problems, the nurse should call the health care provider and inform her or him of the patient's decision to go home and wait.
B) Inform the patient that there are a number of serious concerns related to a postdate pregnancy and that she would be better off to be monitored in a clinical setting.
C) Tell the patient that an assessment will be done and if there are no findings indicating that an induction of labor would be favorable, the patient will be sent home.
D) Tell the patient that confirmation of a due date can be off by 2 weeks and possibly be even later than 42 weeks, so it is better to follow the physician's directions.
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse do to provide support to a patient who must return to full-time employment 6 weeks after a vaginal birth?
A) Discuss child care arrangements with her.
B) Allow her to solve the problem on her own.
C) Reassure her that she'll get used to leaving her baby.
D) Allow her to express her positive and negative feelings freely.
Q2) If the patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 25,000/mm³ on her second postpartum day, which action should the nurse take?
A) Document the finding.
B) Inform the health care provider.
C) Begin antibiotic therapy immediately.
D) Have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis.
Q3) Which patient would be most likely to have severe afterbirth pains and request a narcotic analgesic?
A) Gravida 5, para 5
B) Primipara who delivered a 7-lb boy
C) Patient who is bottle feeding her first child
D) Patient who is breastfeeding her second child
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient data received during report should the nurse recognize as being at risk for postpartum complications?
A) Gravida 5, para 5
B) Labor duration of 4 hours
C) Infant weight greater than 3800 g
D) Epidural anesthesia for labor and birth
Q2) A patient has been treated with oxytocin (Pitocin) for postpartum hemorrhage. Bleeding has stabilized and slowed down considerably. The peripad in place reveals a moderate amount of bright red blood, with no clots expelled when massaging the fundus. The patient now complains of having difficulty breathing. Auscultation of breath sounds reveals adventitious sounds. Based on this clinical presentation, the priority nursing action is to
A) evaluate intake and output of the past 12 hours following birth.
B) initiate a rapid response intervention.
C) obtain an order from the physician for type and crossmatch of 2 units packed red blood cells (PRBCs).
D) reposition the patient and reassess in 15 minutes. Initiate frequent vital sign assessments.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn is admitted to the special care nursery with hypothermia. Which complication should the nurse monitor for closely?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
Q2) Which action by the nurse can result in hyperthermia in the newborn?
A) Placing a cap on the newborn
B) Wrapping the newborn in a warm blanket
C) Placing the newborn in a skin to skin position with the mother
D) Placing the newborn in the radiant warmer without attaching the skin probe
Q3) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn that is a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant is in which percentile(s) for weight?
A) Below the 90th
B) Less than the 10th
C) Greater than the 90th
D) Between the 10th and 90th
Q2) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
Q3) Which nursing action is designed to avoid unnecessary heat loss in the newborn?
A) Maintain room temperature at 21°C (70°F).
B) Place a blanket over the scale before weighing the infant.
C) Take the rectal temperature every hour to detect early changes.
D) Undress the infant completely for assessments so that they can be finished quickly.
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
Q2) The nurse is evaluating a newborn's circumcision 30 minutes after the procedure. The nurse notes excessive bleeding coming from the circumcised area. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement at this time?
A) Apply pressure to the site.
B) Continue to observe for another 30 minutes.
C) Apply the diaper tightly over the circumcised area.
D) Apply petroleum jelly to the site with a small piece of gauze.
Q3) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.8°F)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths per minute
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which condition is breastfeeding contraindicated?
A) Triplet birth
B) Flat or inverted nipples
C) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
D) Inactive, previously treated tuberculosis
Q2) Which woman is most likely to continue breastfeeding beyond 6 months?
A) A woman who avoids using bottles.
B) A woman who uses formula for every other feeding.
C) A woman who offers water or formula after breastfeeding.
D) A woman whose infant is satisfied for 4 hours after the feeding.
Q3) How should the nurse explain mild supply and demand when responding to the question, "Will I produce enough milk for my baby as she grows and needs more milk at each feeding?"
A) Early addition of baby food will meet the infant's needs.
B) The breast milk will gradually become richer to supply additional calories.
C) As the infant requires more milk, feedings can be supplemented with cow's milk.
D) The mother's milk supply will increase as the infant demands more at each feeding.
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is observing a 38-week gestation newborn in the nursery. Data reveals periods of apnea lasting approximately 10 seconds followed by a period of rapid respirations. The infant's color and heart rate remain unchanged. The nurse suspects that the infant
A) is exhibiting signs of RDS.
B) requires tactile stimulation around the clock to ensure that apneic periods do not progress further.
C) is experiencing periodic breathing episodes and will require continuous monitoring while in the nursery unit.
D) requires the use of CPAP to promote airway expansion.
Q2) Which is the most useful factor in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
Q3) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-lb infant, the nurse should evaluate
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. If breastfeeding must be supplemented, formula should be used instead of water. The purpose of this plan is to
A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
Q2) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
Q3) The difference between nonphysiologic jaundice (pathologic jaundice) and physiologic jaundice is that nonphysiologic jaundice
A) may result in kernicterus.
B) appears during the first 24 hours of life.
C) begins on the head and progresses down the body.
D) results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n)
A) IUD.
B) diaphragm.
C) male condom.
D) oral contraceptive.
Q2) A patient is 27 years old and delivered her first baby yesterday. She and her husband do not want to have another baby for at least 3 to 4 years. The most appropriate method of birth control to meet their needs is
A) withdrawal.
B) fertility awareness method.
C) combination of condoms and foam.
D) vasectomy with a reversal in 3 years.
Q3) Which patient is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis.
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor.
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant.
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of conization of the cervix
B) History of pelvic surgical procedures
C) Incompetent cervix
D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure
E) Endometriosis
Q2) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
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28
Chapter 27: Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 49, confides in the nurse that she has started experiencing pain with intercourse. The patient asks, "Is there anything I can do about this?" The nurse's best response is
A) "No, it is part of the aging process."
B) "Water-soluble vaginal lubricants may provide relief."
C) "You need to be evaluated for a sexually transmitted disease."
D) "You may have vaginal scar tissue that is producing the discomfort."
Q2) Which patient is most likely to develop osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old patient on estrogen therapy
B) A 55-year-old patient with a sedentary lifestyle
C) A 65-year-old patient who walks 2 miles each day
D) A 60-year-old patient who takes supplemental calcium
Q3) Findings of a Pap smear exam denote atypical cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The Pap test is repeated at 6 months and the same finding of ASCUS is reported. Which therapeutic treatment option would the nurse expect the practitioner to order?
A) Mammography
B) Bone scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Biopsy
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