Maternity Nursing
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Maternity Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women and their families throughout the stages of pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. The course addresses the physiological and psychological changes that occur during pregnancy, maternal and fetal health assessment, prenatal education, labor and delivery management, and postpartum care. Emphasis is placed on the nurse's role in promoting the health and well-being of both mother and newborn, identifying and responding to complications, providing supportive patient-centered care, and fostering effective communication within the multidisciplinary team. Ethical, cultural, and legal issues related to maternity care are also explored, preparing students to deliver evidence-based, compassionate care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is formulating a nursing care plan for a postpartum patient. Which actions by the nurse indicate use of critical thinking skills when formulating the care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Using a standardized postpartum care plan
B) Determining priorities for each diagnosis written
C) Writing interventions from a nursing diagnosis book
D) Reflecting and suspending judgment when writing the care plan
E) Clustering data during the assessment process according to normal versus abnormal
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, "Which setting for childbirth limits the amount of parent-infant interaction?" Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting?
A)Birth center
B)Home birth
C)Traditional hospital birth
D)Labor, birth, and recovery room
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2150
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to an obstetric litigation case, a nurse working in labor and birth is found to be negligent. Which intervention performed by the nurse indicates that a breach of duty has occurred?
A) The nurse did not document fetal heart tones (FHR) during the second stage of labor.
B) The patient was only provided ice chips during the labor period, which lasted 8 hours.
C) The nurse allowed the patient to use the bathroom rather than a bedpan during the first stage of labor.
D) The nurse asked family members to leave the room when she prepared to do a pelvic exam on the patient.
Answer: A
Q2) At the present time, which agency governs surrogate parenting?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient states, "My breasts are so small. I don't think I will be able to breastfeed my baby." Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It may be difficult but you should try anyway."
B) "You can always supplement with formula."
C) "All women have about the same amount of glandular tissue necessary to secrete milk."
D) "The ability to produce breast milk depends on increased levels of estrogen and progesterone."
Answer: C
Q2) A female patient who has gone through puberty and started menstruating without any problems has developed cessation of periods after 2 years of normal cycles. Which finding would indicate a possible cause for this occurrence?
A) Lag in development of secondary sexual characteristics
B) Overproduction of androgenic hormones
C) Negative pregnancy test
D) Clinical diagnosis of primary amenorrhea
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is born with blood type AB. The father is type A and the mother is type B. The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from that of the parents. The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that
A) both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) types A and B are recessive when linked together.
C) the baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
D) type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
Q2) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
Q3) The nurse is working with a patient to obtain information necessary for genetic counseling. Which tool will be used to obtain this information?
A) Braden scale
B) Genogram
C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
D) Serum protein electrophoresis
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the embryo's intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the
A) intestines need this time to grow until week 15.
B) nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location.
C) abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.
D) umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy.
Q2) An expectant father asks the nurse, "Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosome?" What is the correct response by the nurse?
A) X-bearing sperm
B) The tail of the sperm
C) The head of the sperm
D) The middle portion of the sperm
Q3) A patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first baby asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move. Which is the nurse's best answer?
A) "You should have felt the baby move by now."
B) "The baby is moving, but you can't feel it yet."
C) "Some babies are quiet and you don't feel them move."
D) "Within the next month you should start to feel fluttering sensations."
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which findings are presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Quickening
B) Amenorrhea
C) Ballottement
D) Goodell's sign
E) Chadwick's sign
Q2) A pregnant patient comes into the medical clinic stating that her family and friends are telling her that she is always talking about the pregnancy and nothing else. She is concerned that something is wrong with her. What psychological behavior is she exhibiting?
A) Antepartum obsession
B) Ambivalence
C) Uncertainty
D) Introversion
Q3) Which comment made by a new mother to her own mother is most likely to encourage the grandmother's participation in the infant's care?
A) "Could you help me with the housework today?"
B) "The baby is spitting up a lot. What should I do?"
C) "I know you are busy, so I'll get John's mother to help me."
D) "The baby has a stomachache. I'll call the nurse to find out what to do."
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gravida 1 patient at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
Q2) Which laboratory result would be a cause for concern if exhibited by a patient at her first prenatal visit during the second month of her pregnancy?
A) Rubella titer, 1:6
B) Platelets, 300,000/mm3
C) White blood cell count, 6000/mm3
D) Hematocrit 38%, hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Q3) A patient in her third trimester of pregnancy is asking about safe travel. Which statement should the nurse provide regarding safe travel during pregnancy?
A) "Only travel by car during pregnancy."
B) "Avoid use of the seat belt during the third trimester."
C) "You can travel by plane until your 38th week of gestation."
D) "If you are traveling by car stop to walk every 1 to 2 hours."
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Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can double her prenatal vitamin dose because she does not like to eat vegetables. What is the nurse's response regarding the danger of taking excessive vitamins?
A) Increases caloric intake
B) Has toxic effects on the fetus
C) Increases absorption of all vitamins
D) Promotes development of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)
Q2) When explaining the recommended weight gain to your patient, the nurse's teaching should include which statement?
A) "All pregnant women need to gain a minimum of 25 to 35 lb."
B) "The fetus, amniotic fluid, and placenta require 15 lb of weight gain."
C) "Weight gain in pregnancy is based on the patient's prepregnant body mass index."
D) "More weight should be gained in the first and second trimesters and less in the third."
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which condition?
A) Hemophilia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) A neural tube defect
D) Abnormal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
Q2) A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant patient. The following assessments are noted: nonreactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal breathing movements (FBMs), limited gross movements, opening and closing of hang indicating the presence of fetal tone, and adequate amniotic fluid index (AFI) meeting criteria. Which answer would be the correct interpretation of this test result?
A) A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal.
B) A score of 8 would indicate normal results.
C) A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment option.
D) A score of 9 would indicate reassurance.
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Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2158
Sample Questions
Q1) The labor and birth nurse is reviewing the risk factors for placenta previa with a group of nursing students. The nurse determines that the students understood the discussion when they identify which patient being at the highest risk for developing a placenta previa?
A) Female fetus, Mexican-American, primigravida
B) Male fetus, Asian-American, previous preterm birth
C) Male fetus, African-American, previous cesarean birth
D) Female fetus, European-American, previous spontaneous abortion
Q2) A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute.
In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
A) Increase the patient's IV fluids.
B) Administer calcium gluconate.
C) Vigorously stimulate the patient.
D) Instruct the patient to take deep breaths.
Q3) A laboratory finding indicative of DIC is one that shows
A) decreased fibrinogen.
B) increased platelets.
C) increased hematocrit.
D) decreased thromboplastin time.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2159
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is seeing a 17-year-old female in the clinic for complaints of acne. The nurse plans on taking advantage of this teachable moment with the teen. Which topics will the nurse include in the teen's teaching plan?
A) Smoking habits, folic acid intake, and heart disease
B) Hyperlipidemia, distracted driving, and menstrual history
C) Sexual activity, contraception, and screening for violence
D) Optimum weight, hypothyroidism, and sexually transmitted diseases
Q2) In planning sex education classes for the middle school age group, more emphasis should be placed on
A) how to set limits for sexual behavior.
B) the inaccuracy of information from peers.
C) the use of oral contraceptives to prevent unwanted pregnancy.
D) the use of condoms to prevent sexually transmitted diseases as well as pregnancy.
Q3) Which factor is a major barrier to health care for adolescent mothers?
A) Health care workers have a positive attitude.
B) The hospital or clinic is within walking distance of the girl's home.
C) Seeing a different nurse and/or health care provider at every visit.
D) The institution is open days, evenings, and Saturday by special arrangement.
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2160
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a laboring patient's contraction pattern and notes the frequency at every 3 to 4 minutes, duration 50 to 60 seconds, and the intensity is moderate by palpation. What is the most accurate documentation for this contraction pattern?
A) Stage 1, latent phase
B) Stage 2, latent phase
C) Stage 1, active phase
D) Stage 2, active phase
Q2) On admission to the labor and birth unit, a 38-year-old female, gravida 4, para 3, at term in early labor is found to have a transverse lie on vaginal examination. What is the priority intervention at this time?
A) Perform a vaginal exam to denote progress.
B) Notify the health care provider.
C) Initiate parenteral therapy.
D) Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 8 L/minute.
Q3) Uncontrolled maternal hyperventilation during labor results in
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors would affect pain perception or tolerance for the laboring patient?
A) Right occiput posterior fetal position during labor
B) Bishop score of 10 prior to the induction of labor
C) Gynecoid pelvis
D) Absence of Ferguson's reflex
Q2) Which patient will most likely have increased anxiety and tension during labor?
A) Gravida 2 who refused any medication
B) Gravida 2 who delivered a stillborn baby last year
C) Gravida 1 who did not attend prepared childbirth classes
D) Gravida 3 who has two children younger than 3 years
Q3) A major advantage of nonpharmacologic pain management is
A) a more rapid labor is likely.
B) more complete pain relief is possible.
C) the woman remains fully alert at all times.
D) there are no side effects or risks to the fetus.
Q4) The health care provider's prescription reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 25 mg IV stat. The medication vial reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 50 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to one decimal point. _____ mL
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.
B) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.
C) Inform the patient that she should remain in the semi-Fowler position.
D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode to the maternal abdomen.
Q2) A patient at 41 weeks' gestation is undergoing an induction of labor with an IV administration of oxytocin (Pitocin). The fetal heart rate starts to demonstrate a recurrent pattern of late decelerations with moderate variability. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Stop the infusion of Pitocin.
B) Reposition the patient from her right to her left side.
C) Perform a vaginal exam to assess for a prolapsed cord.
D) Prepare the patient for an emergency cesarean birth.
Q3) Which medications could potentially cause hyperstimulation of the uterus during labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil)
D) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2163
Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding would be an indication to the nurse that the fetus may be compromised?
A) Active fetal movements
B) Fetal heart rate in the 140s
C) Contractions lasting 90 seconds
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
Q2) Which assessment would be important for a 6-hour-old infant who has bruising over the cheeks from a forceps birth?
A) Presence of newborn reflexes
B) Symmetry of facial movements
C) Caput and molding of the head
D) Anterior and posterior fontanels
Q3) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to
A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the patient delivers vaginally.
Q2) Birth for the nulliparous patient with a fetus in a breech presentation is usually
A) cesarean birth.
B) vaginal birth.
C) vacuumed extraction.
D) forceps-assisted birth.
Q3) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2165
Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum nurse is reviewing dietary practices for an Asian patient. Which of the following should the nurse expect to observe as a dietary practice for this culture?
A) Special foods brought from home.
B) Preference for fresh fruits.
C) Preference for "cold" foods.
D) Request for ice water instead of hot water.
Q2) The nurse observes a patient on her first postpartum day sitting in bed while her newborn lies awake in the bassinet. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take at this time?
A) Hand the baby to the woman.
B) Explain "taking-in" to the woman.
C) Offer to hand the baby to the woman.
D) No action, because this situation is perfectly acceptable.
Q3) To promote bonding and attachment immediately after birth, which action should the nurse take?
A) Assist the mother in feeding her baby.
B) Allow the mother quiet time with her infant.
C) Teach the mother about the concepts of bonding and attachment.
D) Assist the mother in assuming an en face position with her newborn.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum patient has developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and treatment with warfarin (Coumadin) has been initiated. Which dietary selection should be modified in view of this treatment regimen?
A) Fresh fruits
B) Milk
C) Lentils
D) Soda
Q2) A patient with mastitis is concerned about breastfeeding while she has an active infection. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) Organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid.
B) Organisms that cause mastitis are not passed through the milk.
C) The infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause mastitis.
D) The infant is protected from infection by immunoglobulins in the breast milk.
Q3) If the nurse suspects a complication of a low forceps birth labor, she should immediately
A) administer a strong oral analgesic.
B) assess the perineal and vaginal areas.
C) assess the position of the uterine fundus.
D) review the labor record for duration of second stage.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant at 39 weeks' gestation was just delivered; included in the protocol for a term infant is an initial blood glucose assessment. The nurse obtains the blood sample and the reading is 58 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action based upon this reading?
A) Document the finding in the newborn's chart.
B) Double-wrap the newborn under a warming unit.
C) Feed the newborn a 10% dextrose solution.
D) Notify the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) of the pending admission.
Q2) Which newborn is at higher risk for developing hypoglycemia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Post-term newborn
B) 38 weeks' gestation newborn
C) Small-for-gestational-age newborn
D) Large-for-gestational-age newborn
E) Term newborn delivered by cesarean birth
Q3) The infant's heat loss immediately at birth is predominantly from
A) radiation.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
Q2) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an infant's temperature drops from (37 to 36.3°C) 98.7 to 97.4°F, the nurse should
A) instruct parents on the risks of cold stress.
B) determine the time and amount of last feeding.
C) increase the temperature in the mother's room.
D) evaluate infant for the presence of a blood sugar level higher than 50 mg/dL.
Q2) The nurse is explaining the procedure of newborn screening to parents prior to discharge. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "We understand the tests are performed at 24 to 48 hours."
B) "We're glad all the tests can be done on one blood sample."
C) "We wish the tests would screen for congenital hypothyroidism, it runs in our family."
D) "We know that if the tests are done before 24 hours, the tests will need to be repeated at 1 to 2 weeks."
Q3) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is breastfeeding her newborn son and is experiencing signs of her breasts feeling tender and full in between infant feedings. She asks if there are any suggestions that you can provide to help alleviate this physical complaint. The ideal nursing response would be to
A) tell the patient to wear a bra at all times to provide more support to breast tissue.
B) have the patient put the infant to her breast more frequently.
C) place ice packs on breast tissue after infant feeding.
D) explain that this is a normal finding and will resolve as her breast tissue becomes more used to nursing.
Q2) How should the nurse explain mild supply and demand when responding to the question, "Will I produce enough milk for my baby as she grows and needs more milk at each feeding?"
A) Early addition of baby food will meet the infant's needs.
B) The breast milk will gradually become richer to supply additional calories.
C) As the infant requires more milk, feedings can be supplemented with cow's milk.
D) The mother's milk supply will increase as the infant demands more at each feeding.
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn assessment finding that would support the nursing diagnosis of postmaturity would be
A) loose skin.
B) ruddy skin color.
C) presence of vernix.
D) absence of lanugo.
Q2) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
Q3) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because
A) surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
Q2) Which newborn should the nurse recognize as being at the greatest risk for developing respiratory distress syndrome?
A) A 35-week-gestation male baby born vaginally to a mother addicted to heroin.
B) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally 72 hours after the rupture of membranes.
C) A 36-week-gestation male baby born by cesarean birth to a mother with insulin-dependent diabetes.
D) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally to a mother who has pregnancy-induced hypertension.
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using the basal body temperature method of family planning, the woman should understand that
A) she will remain fertile for 5 days after ovulation.
B) she should take her temperature each night before going to bed.
C) her temperature will increase about 0.2 to 0.4°C (0.4 to 0.8°F) after ovulation.
D) her temperature is normally lower during the second half of her cycle.
Q2) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q3) The patient who has had an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted should be instructed to
A) use a vinegar douche weekly for 4 weeks.
B) have the IUD replaced every 2 to 4 years.
C) check the placement of the string once a week for 4 weeks.
D) use another method of contraception for 2 weeks after insertion.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal bloating
B) Diarrhea
C) Oliguria
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Abnormal uterine bleeding
Q2) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q3) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived.
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
Q2) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old patient. You expect the initial treatment to include
A) initiating hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the patient after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
Q3) Which patient is most likely to develop osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old patient on estrogen therapy
B) A 55-year-old patient with a sedentary lifestyle
C) A 65-year-old patient who walks 2 miles each day
D) A 60-year-old patient who takes supplemental calcium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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