Maternity Nursing Exam Review
Course Introduction
Maternity Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the health and well-being of newborns. Students will explore topics such as prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, postnatal care, complications of pregnancy, and the fundamentals of newborn care. The course emphasizes the importance of family-centered care, cultural competence, patient education, and evidence-based practices to support maternal and infant health. Through theoretical knowledge and clinical experiences, students will develop the necessary skills to provide safe, holistic, and compassionate nursing care to mothers and their families during this critical period.
Recommended Textbook
Maternity and Womens Health Care 11th Edition by Lowdermilk
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37 Chapters
1079 Verified Questions
1079 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/961
Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity and Womens Health Nursing
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18940
Sample Questions
Q1) Which methods help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for the maternity client?
A) Provide transportation to prenatal visits.
B) Provide child care to enable a pregnant woman to keep prenatal visits.
C) Increase the number of providers that will care for Medicaid clients.
D) Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance.
E) Provide job training.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) Maternity nurses can enhance communication among health care providers by using the SBAR technique.The acronym SBAR stands for what?
A) Situation, background, assessment, recommendation
B) Situation, baseline, assessment, recommendation
C) Subjective, background, analysis, recommendation
D) Subjective, background, analysis, review
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Community Care: The Family and Culture
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18941
Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is an accurate description of the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society?
A) Acculturation
B) Assimilation
C) Ethnocentrism
D) Cultural relativism
Answer: A
Q2) What is the primary difference between hospital care and home health care?
A) Home care is routinely and continuously delivered by professional staff.
B) Home care is delivered on an intermittent basis by professional staff.
C) Home care is delivered for emergency conditions.
D) Home care is not available 24 hours a day.
Answer: B
Q3) In what form do families tend to be the most socially vulnerable?
A) Married-blended family
B) Extended family
C) Nuclear family
D) Single-parent family
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Nursing and Genomics
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18942
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement describes a key finding of the Human Genome Project?
A) Humans produce one protein per gene.
B) All human beings are 99.9% identical at the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) level.
C) The Human Genome Project has not yet been able to translate the accumulating raw research into anything medically practical.
D) Humans have more genes than other species.
Answer: B
Q2) The U.S.Department of Health and Human Services has designated Thanksgiving Day as National Family History Day.The U.S.Surgeon General encourages family members to discuss important family health information while sharing in holiday gatherings.Why is this initiative significant to nurses?
A) Few genetic tests are available that identify this information.
B) Only physicians should obtain this detailed information.
C) Clients cannot accurately complete these histories on their own.
D) Family history is the single most cost-effective source for genetic information.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Assessment and Health Promotion
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18943
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination.She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection,and she has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it.How should the nurse initially respond?
A) Inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled.
B) Reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination.
C) Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection.
D) Ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.
Q2) Which statements regarding menstruation (periodic uterine bleeding)are accurate? (Select all that apply).
A) Menstruation occurs every 28 days.
B) During menstruation, the entire uterine lining is shed.
C) Menstruation begins 7 to 10 days after ovulation.
D) Menstruation leads to fertilization.
E) Average blood loss during menstruation is 50 ml.
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Chapter 5: Violence Against Women
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18944
Sample Questions
Q1) What are some common characteristics of a potential male batterer?
(Select all that apply).
A) High level of self-esteem
B) High frustration tolerance
C) Substance abuse problems
D) Excellent verbal skills
E) Personality disorders
Q2) Which statement is most accurate regarding the reporting of IPV in the United States?
A) Asian women report more IPV than do other minority groups.
B) Caucasian women report less IPV than do non-Caucasians.
C) Native-American women report IPV at a rate similar to other groups.
D) African-American women are less likely to report IPV than Caucasian women.
Q3) Which trait is least likely to be displayed by a woman experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV)?
A) Socially isolated
B) Assertive personality
C) Struggling with depression
D) Dependent partner in a relationship
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Reproductive System Concerns
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18945
Sample Questions
Q1) Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach.Which pharmacologic therapy provides optimal pain relief for this condition?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)
C) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Aspirin
Q2) Fennel,dong quai
A)Uterine antispasmodic
B)Uterotonic
C)Antiinflammatory
D)Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant
E)Decreases prolactin levels
Q3) When a nurse is counseling a woman for primary dysmenorrhea,which nonpharmacologic intervention might be recommended?
A) Increasing the intake of red meat to replace blood loss
B) Reducing the intake of diuretic foods, such as peaches and asparagus
C) Temporarily substituting physical activity for a sedentary lifestyle
D) Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping
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8
Chapter 7: Sexually Transmitted and Other Infections
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18946
Sample Questions
Q1) Which treatment regime would be most appropriate for a client who has been recently diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Oral antiviral therapy
B) Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position
C) Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside
D) Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the healing progress
Q2) Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?
A) Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2)
B) HPV
C) HIV
D) CMV
Q3) Which sexual behaviors are associated with exposure to an STI?
(Select all that apply).
A) Fellatio
B) Unprotected anal intercourse
C) Multiple sex partners
D) Dry kissing
E) Abstinence
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Contraception and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18947
Sample Questions
Q1) The client and her partner are considering male sterilization as a form of permanent birth control.While educating the client regarding the risks and benefits of the procedure,which information should the nurse include?
(Select all that apply).
A) Sterilization should be performed under general anesthesia.
B) Pain, bleeding, and infection are possible complications.
C) Pregnancy may still be possible.
D) Vasectomy may affect potency.
E) Secondary sex characteristics are unaffected.
Q2) Nurses,certified nurse-midwives,and other advanced practice nurses have the knowledge and expertise to assist women in making informed choices regarding contraception.A multidisciplinary approach should ensure that the woman's social,cultural,and interpersonal needs are met.Which action should the nurse first take when meeting with a new client to discuss contraception?
A) Obtain data about the frequency of coitus.
B) Determine the woman's level of knowledge concerning contraception and her commitment to any particular method.
C) Assess the woman's willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus.
D) Evaluate the woman's contraceptive life plan.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Infertility
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18948
Sample Questions
Q1) Many factors,male and female,contribute to normal fertility.Approximately 40% of cases of infertility are related to the female partner.Which factors are possible causes for female infertility?
(Select all that apply).
A) Congenital or developmental
B) Hormonal or ovulatory
C) Tubal or peritoneal
D) Uterine
E) Emotional or psychologic
Q2) Isoimmunization
A)Ovarian
B)Tubal or peritoneal factors
C)Uterine
D)Vaginal-cervical factors
E)Other factors
Q3) Which statement regarding gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)is most accurate?
A) Semen is collected after laparoscopy.
B) Women must have two normal fallopian tubes.
C) Ovulation spontaneously occurs.
D) Ova and sperm are transferred to one tube.
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Chapter 10: Problems of the Breast
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18949
Sample Questions
Q1) Macromastia,or breast hyperplasia,is a condition in which women have very large and pendulous breasts.Breast hyperplasia can be corrected with a reduction mammoplasty.Which statement regarding this procedure is the most accurate?
A) Breast reduction surgery is covered by insurance.
B) Breastfeeding might be difficult.
C) No sequelae after the procedure is known.
D) Pain in the back and shoulders may not be relieved.
Q2) Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a suspected diagnosis of breast cancer?
A) Mammogram
B) Ultrasound
C) Needle-localization biopsy
D) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Q3) Stage IIIb
A)Tumor 2 to 5 cm with positive node
B)Carcinoma in situ
C)Any distant metastasis
D)Tumor less than 2 cm with negative nodes
E)Tumor of any size with extension to chest wall
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Chapter 11: Structural Disorders and Neoplasms of the Reproductive System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18950
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has preinvasive cancer of the cervix.Which modality would the nurse discuss as an available option for a client with this condition?
A) Cryosurgery
B) Colposcopy
C) Hysterectomy
D) Internal radiation
Q2) A client in late middle age who is certain she is not pregnant tells the nurse during an office visit that she has urinary problems,as well as sensations of bearing down and of something in her vagina.What condition would the nurse suspect based upon this report?
A) Pelvic relaxation
B) Cystoceles and/or rectoceles
C) Uterine prolapse
D) Genital fistulas
Q3) What is the most common reproductive tract cancer associated with pregnancy?
A) Cervical
B) Uterine
C) Ovarian
D) Fallopian tube
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Chapter 12: Conception and Fetal Development
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18951
Sample Questions
Q1) Relating to the fetal circulatory system,which special characteristics allow the fetus to obtain sufficient oxygen from the maternal blood?
(Select all that apply).
A) Fetal hemoglobin (Hb) carries 20% to 30% more oxygen than maternal Hb.
B) Fetal Hb carries 40% to 50% more oxygen than maternal Hb.
C) Hb concentration is 50% higher than that of the mother.
D) Fetal heart rate is 110 to 160 beats per minute.
E) Fetal heart rate is 160 to 200 beats per minute.
Q2) A pregnant woman at 25 weeks of gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a pan last week and her baby jumped at the noise.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "That must have been a coincidence; babies can't respond like that."
B) "The fetus is demonstrating the aural reflex."
C) "Babies respond to sound starting at approximately 24 weeks of gestation."
D) "Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife."
Q3) What kind of fetal anomalies are most often associated with oligohydramnios?
A) Renal
B) Cardiac
C) Gastrointestinal
D) Neurologic
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Chapter 13: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18952
Sample Questions
Q1) Which presumptive sign or symptom of pregnancy would a client experience who is approximately 10 weeks of gestation?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Positive pregnancy test
C) Chadwick sign
D) Hegar sign
Q2) Why might it be more difficult to diagnose appendicitis during pregnancy?
A) The appendix is displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right.
B) The appendix is displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left.
C) The appendix is deep at the McBurney's point.
D) The appendix is displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.
Q3) Which statement regarding the probable signs of pregnancy is most accurate?
A) Determined by ultrasound
B) Observed by the health care provider
C) Reported by the client
D) Confirmed by diagnostic tests
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15
Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18953
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is 3 months pregnant.At her prenatal visit she tells the nurse that she does not know what is happening; one minute she is happy that she is pregnant and the next minute she cries for no reason.Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Don't worry about it; you'll feel better in a month or so."
B) "Have you talked to your husband about how you feel?"
C) "Perhaps you really don't want to be pregnant."
D) "Hormone changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings."
Q2) During the physical examination of a client beginning prenatal care,which initial action is most important for the nurse to perform?
A) Only women who show physical signs or meet the sociologic profile should be assessed for physical abuse.
B) The client should empty her bladder before the pelvic examination.
C) The distribution, amount, and quality of body hair are of no particular importance.
D) The size of the uterus is discounted in the initial examination because it will be increasing in size during the second trimester.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18954
Sample Questions
Q1) After the nurse completes nutritional counseling for a pregnant woman,she asks the client to repeat the instructions to assess the client's understanding.Which statement indicates that the client understands the role of protein in her pregnancy?
A) "Protein will help my baby grow."
B) "Eating protein will prevent me from becoming anemic."
C) "Eating protein will make my baby have strong teeth after he is born."
D) "Eating protein will prevent me from being diabetic."
Q2) Placenta
A)0.5 to 1.8
B)1.8 to 2.3
C)3.2 to 3.9
D)0.9
E)0.9 to 1.1
Q3) The major source of nutrients in the diet of a pregnant woman should be composed of what?
A) Simple sugars
B) Fats
C) Fiber
D) Complex carbohydrates
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Chapter 16: Labor and Birth Processes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18955
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding the care of a client in labor is correct and important to the nurse as he or she formulates the plan of care?
A) The woman's blood pressure will increase during contractions and fall back to prelabor normal levels between contractions.
B) The use of the Valsalva maneuver is encouraged during the second stage of labor to relieve fetal hypoxia.
C) Having the woman point her toes will reduce leg cramps.
D) Endogenous endorphins released during labor will raise the woman's pain threshold and produce sedation.
Q2) When assessing the fetus using Leopold's maneuvers,the nurse feels a round,firm,and movable fetal part in the fundal portion of the uterus and a long,smooth surface in the mother's right side close to midline.What is the position of the fetus?
A) ROA
B) LSP
C) RSA
D) LOA
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18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Comfort for the Laboring Woman
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18956
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is pregnant for the first time is dilated 3 cm and having contractions every 5 minutes.She is groaning and perspiring excessively; she states that she did not attend childbirth classes.What is the optimal intervention for the nurse to provide at this time?
A) Notify the woman's health care provider.
B) Administer the prescribed narcotic analgesic.
C) Assure her that her labor will be over soon.
D) Assist her with simple breathing and relaxation instructions.
Q2) The nurse should be cognizant of which important information regarding nerve block analgesia and anesthesia?
A) Most local agents are chemically related to cocaine and end in the suffix -caine.
B) Local perineal infiltration anesthesia is effective when epinephrine is added, but it can be injected only once.
C) Pudendal nerve block is designed to relieve the pain from uterine contractions.
D) Pudendal nerve block, if performed correctly, does not significantly lessen the bearing-down reflex.
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19
Chapter 18: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18957
Sample Questions
Q1) Peaking at 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage of labor
A)Frequency
B)Duration
C)Strength
D)Resting tone
E)Relaxation time
Q2) Which nursing intervention would result in an increase in maternal cardiac output?
A) Change in position
B) Oxytocin administration
C) Regional anesthesia
D) IV analgesic
Q3) A nurse caring for a woman in labor should understand that absent or minimal variability is classified as either abnormal or indeterminate.Which condition related to decreased variability is considered benign?
A) Periodic fetal sleep state
B) Extreme prematurity
C) Fetal hypoxemia
D) Preexisting neurologic injury
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18958
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the rationale for the administration of an oxytocic (e.g.,Pitocin,Methergine)after expulsion of the placenta?
A) To relieve pain
B) To stimulate uterine contraction
C) To prevent infection
D) To facilitate rest and relaxation
Q2) Emergency conditions during labor that would require immediate nursing intervention can arise with startling speed.Which situations are examples of such an emergency?
(Select all that apply).
A) Nonreassuring or abnormal FHR pattern
B) Inadequate uterine relaxation
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Prolonged second stage
E) Prolapse of the cord
Q3) Which characteristic of a uterine contraction is not routinely documented?
A) Frequency: how often contractions occur
B) Intensity: strength of the contraction at its peak
C) Resting tone: tension in the uterine muscle
D) Appearance: shape and height
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Postpartum Physiologic Changes
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After delivery,excess hypertrophied tissue in the uterus undergoes a period of self-destruction.What is the correct term for this process?
A) Autolysis
B) Subinvolution
C) Afterpains
D) Diastasis
Q2) Which statement by a newly delivered woman indicates that she knows what to expect regarding her menstrual activity after childbirth?
A) "My first menstrual cycle will be lighter than normal and then will get heavier every month thereafter."
B) "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles."
C) "I will not have a menstrual cycle for 6 months after childbirth."
D) "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and then will be light for several months after."
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22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18960
Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman is at risk for thrombus and is not ready to ambulate,which nursing intervention would the nurse use?
(Select all that apply).
A) Putting her in antiembolic stockings (thromboembolic deterrent [TED] hose) and/or sequential compression device (SCD) boots
B) Having her flex, extend, and rotate her feet, ankles, and legs
C) Having her sit in a chair
D) Immediately notifying the physician if a positive Homans sign occurs
E) Promoting bed rest
Q2) A 25-year-old multiparous woman gave birth to an infant boy 1 day ago.Today her husband brings a large container of brown seaweed soup to the hospital.When the nurse enters the room,the husband asks for help with warming the soup so that his wife can eat it.What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "Didn't you like your lunch?"
B) "Does your physician know that you are planning to eat that?"
C) "What is that anyway?"
D) "I'll warm the soup in the microwave for you."
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent who has a hearing impairment is presented with a number of challenges in parenting.Which nursing approaches are appropriate for working with hearing-impaired new parents?
(Select all that apply).
A) Using devices that transform sound into light
B) Assuming that the client knows sign language
C) Speaking quickly and loudly
D) Ascertaining whether the client can read lips before teaching
E) Writing messages that aid in communication
Q2) The nurse observes that a first-time mother appears to ignore her newborn.Which strategy should the nurse use to facilitate mother-infant attachment?
A) Tell the mother she must pay attention to her infant.
B) Show the mother how the infant initiates interaction and attends to her.
C) Demonstrate for the mother different positions for holding her infant while feeding.
D) Arrange for the mother to watch a video on parent-infant interaction.
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24
Chapter 23: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) During life in utero,oxygenation of the fetus occurs through transplacental gas exchange.When birth occurs,four factors combine to stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla.The initiation of respiration then follows.What are these four essential factors?
(Select all that apply).
A) Chemical
B) Mechanical
C) Thermal
D) Psychologic
E) Sensory
Q2) An African-American woman noticed some bruises on her newborn daughter's buttocks.The client asks the nurse what causes these.How would the nurse best explain this integumentary finding to the client?
A) Lanugo
B) Vascular nevus
C) Nevus flammeus
D) Mongolian spot
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25
Chapter 24: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18963
Sample Questions
Q1) Which explanation will assist the parents in their decision on whether they should circumcise their son?
A) The circumcision procedure has pros and cons during the prenatal period.
B) American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that all male newborns be routinely circumcised.
C) Circumcision is rarely painful, and any discomfort can be managed without medication.
D) The infant will likely be alert and hungry shortly after the procedure.
Q2) Which intervention by the nurse would reduce the risk of abduction of the newborn from the hospital?
A) Instructing the mother not to give her infant to anyone except the one nurse assigned to her that day
B) Applying an electronic and identification bracelet to the mother and the infant
C) Carrying the infant when transporting him or her in the halls
D) Restricting the amount of time infants are out of the nursery
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Chapter 25: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18964
Sample Questions
Q1) A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible.How should the client be instructed to position the infant to facilitate correct latch-on?
A) The infant should be positioned with his or her arms folded together over the chest.
B) The infant should be curled up in a fetal position.
C) The woman should cup the infant's head in her hand.
D) The infant's head and body should be in alignment with the mother.
Q2) The nurse should be cognizant of which statement regarding the unique qualities of human breast milk?
A) Frequent feedings during predictable growth spurts stimulate increased milk production.
B) Milk of preterm mothers is the same as the milk of mothers who gave birth at term.
C) Milk at the beginning of the feeding is the same as the milk at the end of the feeding.
D) Colostrum is an early, less concentrated, less rich version of mature milk.
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Chapter 26: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18965
Sample Questions
Q1) How does the nurse document a NST during which two or more FHR accelerations of 15 beats per minute or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period?
A) Nonreactive
B) Positive
C) Negative
D) Reactive
Q2) A 39-year-old primigravida woman believes that she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant,although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life.She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day; however,she tells the nurse that she is trying to cut down.Her laboratory data are within normal limits.What diagnostic technique would be useful at this time?
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
C) Amniocentesis
D) Nonstress test (NST)
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Chapter 27: Hypertensive Disorders
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18966
Sample Questions
Q1) What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
A) Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability
B) Risk for altered gas exchange
C) Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate
D) Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs
Q2) A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit.She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes,dark red vaginal bleeding,and a tense,painful abdomen.Which clinical change does the nurse anticipate?
A) Eclamptic seizure
B) Rupture of the uterus
C) Placenta previa
D) Abruptio placentae
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Chapter 28: Hemorrhagic Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18967
Sample Questions
Q1) Which order should the nurse expect for a client admitted with a threatened abortion?
A) Bed rest
B) Administration of ritodrine IV
C) Nothing by mouth (nil per os [NPO])
D) Narcotic analgesia every 3 hours, as needed
Q2) In caring for an immediate postpartum client,the nurse notes petechiae and oozing from her intravenous (IV)site.The client would be closely monitored for which clotting disorder?
A) DIC
B) Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE)
C) Hemorrhage
D) HELLP syndrome
Q3) In contrast to placenta previa,what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?
A) Bleeding
B) Intense abdominal pain
C) Uterine activity
D) Cramping
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Chapter 29: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic alteration of pregnancy most significantly affects glucose metabolism?
A) Pancreatic function in the islets of Langerhans is affected by pregnancy.
B) Pregnant women use glucose at a more rapid rate than nonpregnant women.
C) Pregnant women significantly increase their dietary intake.
D) Placental hormones are antagonistic to insulin, thus resulting in insulin resistance.
Q2) The nurse who is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect the initial treatment to involve what?
A) Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
B) Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
C) Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting
D) Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits
Q3) To manage her diabetes appropriately and to ensure a good fetal outcome,how would the pregnant woman with diabetes alter her diet?
A) Eat six small equal meals per day.
B) Reduce the carbohydrates in her diet.
C) Eat her meals and snacks on a fixed schedule.
D) Increase her consumption of protein.
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Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased risk of acidosis
A)Increased oxygen consumption
B)Increased heart rate
C)Decreased gastric motility
D)Displacement of abdominal viscera
E)Increase in clotting factors
Q2) Which important component of nutritional counseling should the nurse include in health teaching for a pregnant woman who is experiencing cholecystitis?
A) Assess the woman's dietary history for adequate calories and proteins.
B) Teach the woman that the bulk of calories should come from proteins.
C) Instruct the woman to eat a low-fat diet and to avoid fried foods.
D) Instruct the woman to eat a low-cholesterol, low-salt diet.
Q3) Increased risk of thrombus formation
A)Increased oxygen consumption
B)Increased heart rate
C)Decreased gastric motility
D)Displacement of abdominal viscera
E)Increase in clotting factors
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Chapter 31: Mental Health Disorders and Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance used during pregnancy causes vasoconstriction and decreased placental perfusion,resulting in maternal and neonatal complications?
A) Alcohol
B) Caffeine
C) Tobacco
D) Chocolate
Q2) As part of the discharge teaching,the nurse can prepare the mother for her upcoming adjustment to her new role by instructing her regarding self-care activities to help prevent PPD.Which statement regarding this condition is most helpful for the client?
A) Stay home, and avoid outside activities to ensure adequate rest.
B) Be certain that you are the only caregiver for your baby to facilitate infant attachment.
C) Keep your feelings of sadness and adjustment to your new role to yourself.
D) Realize that PPD is a common occurrence that affects many women.
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Chapter 32: Labor and Birth Complications
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Q1) A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1½ to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful.Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours.The woman is crying and wants an epidural.What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
A) She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
B) She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
C) She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
D) She is experiencing precipitous labor.
Q2) A pregnant woman at 29 weeks of gestation has been diagnosed with preterm labor.Her labor is being controlled with tocolytic medications.She asks when she might be able to go home.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "After the baby is born."
B) "When we can stabilize your preterm labor and arrange home health visits."
C) "Whenever your physician says that it is okay."
D) "It depends on what kind of insurance coverage you have."
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Chapter 33: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses need to understand the basic definitions and incidence data regarding PPH.Which statement regarding this condition is most accurate?
A) PPH is easy to recognize early; after all, the woman is bleeding.
B) Traditionally, it takes more than 1000 ml of blood after vaginal birth and 2500 ml after cesarean birth to define the condition as PPH.
C) If anything, nurses and physicians tend to overestimate the amount of blood loss.
D) Traditionally, PPH has been classified as early PPH or late PPH with respect to birth.
Q2) Which classification of placental separation is not recognized as an abnormal adherence pattern?
A) Placenta accreta
B) Placenta increta
C) Placenta percreta
D) Placenta abruptio
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Chapter 34: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corrected age of an infant who was born at 25 1/7 weeks and is preparing for discharge 124 days past delivery is ______________.
Q2) NEC is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel.Approximately 2% to 5% of premature infants succumb to this fatal disease.Care is supportive; however,known interventions may decrease the risk of NEC.Which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC?
A) Early enteral feedings
B) Breastfeeding
C) Exchange transfusion
D) Prophylactic probiotics
Q3) Because of the premature infant's decreased immune functioning,what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant?
A) Delayed growth and development
B) Ineffective thermoregulation
C) Ineffective infant feeding pattern
D) Risk for infection
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Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn
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Q1) A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery.After stabilization,the infant is weighed,and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lb,6 oz).What is the nurse's first priority?
A) Leave the infant in the room with the mother.
B) Immediately take the infant to the nursery.
C) Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age.
D) Frequently monitor blood glucose levels, and closely observe the infant for signs of hypoglycemia.
Q2) A number of common drugs of abuse may cross into the breast milk of a mother who is currently using these substances,which may result in behavioral effects in the newborn.Which substances are contraindicated if the mother elects to breastfeed her infant?
(Select all that apply).
A) Cocaine
B) Marijuana
C) Nicotine
D) Methadone
E) Morphine
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Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders and Congenital
Anomalies
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Q1) A neonate is born with mild clubfeet.When the parents ask the nurse how this will be corrected,how should the nurse respond?
A) Traction is tried first.
B) Surgical intervention is needed.
C) Frequent, serial casting is tried first.
D) Children outgrow this condition when they learn to walk.
Q2) Most congenital anomalies of the CNS result from defects in the closure of the neural tube during fetal development.Which factor has the greatest impact on this process?
A) Maternal diabetes
B) Maternal folic acid deficiency
C) Socioeconomic status
D) Maternal use of anticonvulsant
Q3) What is the highest priority nursing intervention for an infant born with myelomeningocele?
A) Protect the sac from injury.
B) Prepare the parents for the child's paralysis from the waist down.
C) Prepare the parents for closure of the sac when the child is approximately 2 years of age.
D) Assess for cyanosis.
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Chapter 37: Perinatal Loss, Bereavement, and Grief
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Q1) During the initial acute distress phase of grieving,parents still must make unexpected and unwanted decisions about funeral arrangements and even naming the baby.What is the nurse's role at this time?
A) To take over as much as possible to relieve the pressure
B) To encourage the grandparents to take over
C) To ensure that the parents, themselves, approve the final decisions
D) To leave them alone to work things out
Q2) Parents are often asked if they would like to have an autopsy performed on their infant.Nurses who are assisting parents with this decision should be aware of which information?
A) Autopsies are usually covered by insurance.
B) Autopsies must be performed within a few hours after the infant's death.
C) In the current litigious society, more autopsies are performed than in the past.
D) Some religions prohibit autopsy.
Q3) Which statement most accurately describes complicated grief?
A) Occurs when, in multiple births, one child dies and the other or others live
B) Is a state during which the parents are ambivalent, as with an abortion
C) Is an extremely intense grief reaction that persists for a long time
D) Is felt by the family of adolescent mothers who lose their babies
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