Maternity Nursing Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Maternity Nursing focuses on the holistic care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the care of newborns and families. The course covers physiological and psychological changes during pregnancy, labor and delivery processes, common complications, and evidence-based nursing interventions. Students learn to assess maternal and fetal health, promote safe and positive birth experiences, provide postpartum support, and educate families on newborn care. Emphasis is placed on cultural sensitivity, ethical considerations, and the promotion of maternal and infant well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/167 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) Case management
A)A practice model that uses a systematic approach to identify specific patients and manage their care in a coordinated way
B)Identifies desired patient outcomes, specifies timelines for achievement of those outcomes, directs appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, includes interventions from a variety of disciplines, promotes collaboration, and involves a comprehensive approach to care
C)Develops clinical practice guidelines to provide safe and effective care
Answer: A
Q2) Which is an advantage to labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) rooms?
A) The family is in a familiar environment.
B) They are less expensive than traditional hospital rooms.
C) The infant is removed to the nursery to allow the mother to rest.
D) The woman's support system is encouraged to stay until discharge.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2113
Sample Questions
Q1) Paraphrasing
A)Calling attention to differences or inconsistencies in statements
B)Using nonverbal responses or succinct comments to encourage the person to continue
C)Restating in words other than those used by the woman what she seems to express; a form of clarification
Answer: C
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse set as a priority for a laboring client?
A) Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth
B) Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status
C) Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family
D) Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2114
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is interviewing a 6-week pregnant client. The client asks the nurse, "Why is elective abortion considered an ethical issue?" Which is the best response that the nurse should make?
A) Abortion requires third-party consent.
B) The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
C) Abortion law is unclear about a woman's constitutional rights.
D) There is a conflict between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
Answer: D
Q2) The United States ranks 27th in terms of worldwide infant mortality rates. Which factor has the greatest impact on decreasing the mortality rate of infants?
A) Providing more women's shelters
B) Ensuring early and adequate prenatal care
C) Resolving all language and cultural differences
D) Enrolling pregnant women in the Medicaid program by their eighth month of pregnancy
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2115
Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormonal effect is noted during the menstrual cycle?
A) LH and FSH secretion rise during the ovulatory phase.
B) A negative feedback mechanism is exhibited by the anterior pituitary gland and ovaries.
C) The posterior pituitary gland secretes LH.
D) Estrogen secretion enhances FSH secretion.
Q2) Follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle
A)Ovulation marks the beginning of this stage and occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period.
B)The period in which an ovum matures begins with the first day of menstruation and ends about 14 days later.
C)This occurs as the ovum matures and is released during the first half of the ovarian cycle.
Q3) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2116
Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old client has an amniocentesis performed to find out whether her baby has a chromosomal defect. Which statement indicates that the client understands her situation?
A) "The doctor will tell me if I should have an abortion when the test results come back."
B) "When all the lab results come back, my husband and I will make a decision about the pregnancy."
C) "My mother must not find out about all this testing. If she does, she will think I'm having an abortion."
D) "I know there are support groups for parents who have a baby with birth defects, but we have plenty of insurance to cover what we need."
Q2) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q3) X-linked recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2117
Sample Questions
Q1) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q2) Some of the embryo's intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the:
A) intestines need this time to grow until week 15.
B) nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location.
C) abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.
D) umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy.
Q3) A client who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first baby asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move. Which is the nurse's best answer?
A) "You should have felt the baby move by now."
B) "The baby is moving, but you can't feel it yet."
C) "Some babies are quiet and you don't feel them move."
D) "Within the next month you should start to feel fluttering sensations."
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2118
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is currently pregnant; she has a 5-year-old son and a 3-year-old daughter. She had one other pregnancy that terminated at 8 weeks. Which are her gravida and para?
A) 3, 2
B) 4, 3
C) 4, 2
D) 3, 3
Q2) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a client whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number.
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
Q4) Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy because of:
A) inadequate intake of iron.
B) the fetus establishing iron stores.
C) dilution of hemoglobin concentration.
D) decreased production of erythrocytes.
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2119
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reveals to the patient that the over-the-counter test is verified and that she is pregnant. The patient confides to the nurse, "We have wanted to be pregnant for some time. These last few days I have been questioning our decision. I am feeling really bad right now." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You will come around in time and you will grow to love this baby."
B) "Don't feel bad. It is the hormones of pregnancy talking right now."
C) "Why do you think you are feeling bad when you wanted to be pregnant?"
D) "Your feelings are understandable. Ambivalence is not uncommon right now."
Q2) Margaret, a 36-year-old divorcee with a successful modeling career, finds out that her 18-year-old married daughter is expecting her first child. Which is a major factor in determining how Margaret will respond to becoming a grandmother?
A) Her age
B) Her career
C) Being divorced
D) Age of the daughter
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10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2120
Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the absorption of iron in a pregnant client, with what should an iron preparation be given?
A) Tea
B) Milk
C) Coffee
D) Orange juice
Q2) Changes in the diet of the pregnant client who has phenylketonuria would include:
A) adding foods high in vitamin C.
B) eliminating drinks containing aspartame.
C) restricting protein intake to <20 g a day.
D) increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day.
Q3) Iodine
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
Q4) Magnesium
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2121
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. She provides you with a copy of the test results that she obtained from the lab. What would the nurse anticipate as being implemented in the client's plan of care?
A) No further testing is indicated at this time because results are normal.
B) Refer to the physician for additional testing.
C) Validate the results with the lab facility.
D) Repeat the test in 2 weeks and have the client return for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit.
Q2) What does nursing care after amniocentesis include?
A) Forcing fluids by mouth
B) Monitoring uterine activity
C) Placing the client in a supine position for 2 hours
D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
Q3) The health care provider has prescribed an initial rate of 1 milliunits (mU)/min of diluted Pitocin to be started on a client having a contraction stress test (CST). What mL/hr will the nurse set the infusion pump if the dilution of the Pitocin is 10 units of Pitocin in 1000 mL of 0.25 normal saline? Record your answer as a whole number. ___________ mL/hr
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2122
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client is anticipating a vaginal birth without complications. During the course of her labor, complications arise and the fetus has to be delivered via cesarean section. The client is visibly upset and wants to know why this has happened to her because she did everything right during her pregnancy. Which priority nursing diagnosis would apply?
A) Risk for injury
B) Pain
C) Impaired skin integrity
D) Anxiety
Q2) Martha is a gravida 3, para 2, whose last child was born 5 years ago. She attended childbirth preparation classes with her first pregnancy. Which class would be most appropriate for her?
A) Refresher course
B) Infant care classes
C) Postpartum classes
D) Early pregnancy classes
Q3) Bradley childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2123
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is:
A) total duration of labor.
B) level of pain experienced.
C) amount of cervical dilation.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
Q2) Pregnant clients can usually tolerate the normal blood loss associated with childbirth because they have:
A) a higher hematocrit.
B) increased leukocytes.
C) increased blood volume.
D) a lower fibrinogen level.
Q3) The nurse is planning care for a client during the fourth stage of labor. Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Offer the client a warm blanket.
B) Place an ice pack on the perineum.
C) Massage the uterus if it is boggy.
D) Delay breastfeeding until the client is rested.
E) Explain to the client that the lochia will be light pink in color.
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is gravida 3, para 2, enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments are:
A) contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history.
B) fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth.
C) last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.
D) identification of ruptured membranes, the woman's gravida and para, and her support person.
Q2) Which interventions are required following an amniotomy procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Notation related to amount of fluid expelled
B) Color and consistency of fluid
C) Fetal heart rate
D) Maternal blood pressure
E) Maternal heart rate
Q3) Which should the nurse recognize as being associated with fetal compromise?
A) Active fetal movements
B) Fetal heart rate in the 140s
C) Contractions lasting 90 seconds
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2125
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has ordered an amnioinfusion for the laboring client. What data supports the use of this therapeutic procedure?
A) Presenting part not engaged
B) +4 meconium-stained amniotic fluid on artificial rupture of membranes (AROM)
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Twin gestation
Q2) A client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. The uterine contractions have become persistently hypertonic and the infusion is stopped. The health care provider has prescribed a tocolytic to stop contractions. Which medication should the nurse be prepared to administer?
A) Naloxone (Narcan)
B) Terbutaline (Brethine)
C) Ephedrine
D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Q3) Late decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
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16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2126
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering fentanyl (Sublimaze) to a client in labor. The health care provider's prescription reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 100 mcg IV stat. The medication vial reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 50 mcg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer as a whole number.
_____ mL
Q2) A multipara's labor plan includes the use of jet hydrotherapy during the active phase of labor. What is the priority patient assessment prior to assisting the patient with this request?
A) Maternal pulse
B) Maternal temperature
C) Maternal blood pressure
D) Maternal blood glucose level
Q3) A client in labor reports a feeling of burning pain during the second stage of labor. This type of pain is associated with:
A) visceral pain.
B) tissue ischemia.
C) somatic pain.
D) cervical dilation.
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17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2127
Sample Questions
Q1) The priority nursing intervention following an amniotomy is to:
A) change the client's gown.
B) assess the fetal heart rate.
C) assess the color of the amniotic fluid.
D) estimate the amount of amniotic fluid.
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a client who just received 25 mcg of misoprostol (Cytotec) vaginally to ripen the cervix. Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assist the client to the bathroom.
B) Position the client in a high Fowler position.
C) Assess the uterus for excessive contractions.
D) Monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 30 minutes.
Q3) To monitor for potential hemorrhage in the client who has just had a cesarean birth, which action should the recovery room nurse implement?
A) Monitor her urinary output.
B) Maintain an intravenous infusion at 1 mL/hr.
C) Assess the abdominal dressings for drainage.
D) Assess the uterus for firmness every 15 minutes.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2128
Sample Questions
Q1) If the client's white blood cell (WBC) count is 25,000/mm³ on her second postpartum day, which action should the nurse take?
A) Document the finding.
B) Tell the health care provider.
C) Begin antibiotic therapy immediately.
D) Have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis.
Q2) The nurse decides to perform a prescribed PRN intermittent sterile catheterization on a postpartum client if which occurs? (Select all that apply.)
A) The client has not voided but the bladder cannot be palpated.
B) The fundus is displaced from the midline and the client has been unable to void.
C) The client has been medicated for pain but she has not voided; the fundus is midline.
D) The amount voided is less than 150 mL and the fundus is displaced from the midline.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2129
Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum client who continually repeats the story of her labor, birth, and recovery experiences is doing which?
A) Making the birth experience "real"
B) Accepting her response to labor and birth
C) Providing others with her knowledge of events
D) Taking hold of the events leading to her labor and birth
Q2) A 25-year-old gravida 1, para 1, who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As you prepare her for discharge, she begins to cry. Which should be your initial action?
A) Assess her for pain.
B) Allow her time to express her feelings.
C) Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby.
D) Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues.
Q3) The nurse observes a client on her first postpartum day sitting in bed while her newborn lies awake in the bassinet. Which appropriate action should the nurse take?
A) Hand the baby to the woman.
B) Explain "taking-in" to the woman.
C) Offer to hand the baby to the woman.
D) No action, because this situation is perfectly acceptable.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2130
Sample Questions
Q1) How can nurses prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn?
A) Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows
B) Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners
C) Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket
D) Warming the stethoscope and nurse's hands before touching the baby
Q2) Which infant has the lowest risk of developing high levels of bilirubin?
A) The infant who developed a cephalohematoma
B) The infant who was bruised during a difficult birth
C) The infant who uses brown fat to maintain temperature
D) The infant who is breastfed during the first hour of life
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer a vitamin K injection to the infant shortly after birth. Which is important to understand about vitamin K?
A) It is necessary for the production of platelets.
B) It is important for the production of red blood cells.
C) It is not initially synthesized because of a sterile bowel at birth.
D) It is responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin and the prevention of jaundice.
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newborn delivered 24 hours ago for jaundice. What is the best way to evaluate for this finding?
A) Depress the tip of the nose.
B) Stroke the outer aspect of the foot.
C) Place a finger in the palm of the hand.
D) Rotate the hips in an upward and outward direction.
Q2) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
Q3) Caput succedaneum
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the purpose of state-required newborn screening?
A) Keep the state records updated.
B) Document the number of births.
C) Allow for accurate statistical information.
D) Recognize and treat newborn disorders early.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a newborn's circumcision 30 minutes after the procedure. The nurse notes excessive bleeding coming from the circumcised area. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Apply pressure to the site.
B) Continue to observe for another 30 minutes.
C) Apply the diaper tightly over the circumcised area.
D) Apply petroleum jelly to the site with a small piece of gauze.
Q3) In which position should the parents be instructed to place their newborn for sleep?
A) On the back
B) On the left side
C) On the right side
D) On the abdomen
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions may relieve symptoms of colic in the infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased stimulation of infant to provide distraction
B) Burping infant frequently during feedings
C) Feeding infant placed in an upright position
D) Providing chamomile tea to infant
E) Feeding infant on an on demand schedule
Q2) Which is an important consideration about the storage of breast milk?
A) Can be thawed and refrozen
B) Can be frozen for up to 2 months
C) Should be stored only in glass bottles
D) Can be kept refrigerated for 48 hours
Q3) To prevent breast engorgement, what should the new breastfeeding mother be instructed to do?
A) Feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
B) Limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
C) Apply cold packs to the breast prior to feeding.
D) Breast-feed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about growth and development during the first 6 months?
A) The infant will grow 1 cm in length per month.
B) The infant will gain about 2 pounds per month.
C) The infant will regain weight lost after birth within 1 week.
D) The infant will have a 1-inch increase in head circumference per month.
Q2) Which is the priority rationale for doing a car seat trial for a preterm neonate being discharged soon?
A) To assess the car seat's size
B) To assess the parents' knowledge about car seat use
C) To determine if the neonate cries while in the car seat
D) To assess for any neonate apnea or bradycardia while in the car seat
Q3) The nurse is calling a new mother to schedule a routine home visit planned for 48 to 72 hours after discharge. What is the nurse's priority question to help determine the best time for the visit?
A) "When will the baby's father be home?"
B) "Do you plan on having any visitors in the day or two?"
C) "At approximately what time do you think you will be nursing your baby?"
D) "When will your home be presentable enough for me to come and visit?"
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25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client tells you during a clinic visit that she is concerned about her significant other's change in behavior during the course of the pregnancy. She relates feelings of being afraid but emphatically denies any physical or verbal threats. She confides in you that she has been using her mobile phone to find out more information about this subject. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
A) Tell her that all relationships change during pregnancy and give herself and her significant other some time to adapt to this situation by spending quality time with one another.
B) Tell the client that you are concerned for her and the baby; provide her with a phone number for a safe house just in case she needs to act quickly and leave the home situation.
C) Explore in more detail the client's feelings but tell her that you are concerned about searching information on the Internet as a stimulus trigger for potential abuse.
D) Do not let the client leave the clinic office and call the domestic abuse hotline number to report the incident.
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions may be indicated for the clinical management of hyperemesis gravidarum (HEG)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pyridoxine
B) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for severe cases
C) Promethazine (Phenergan)
D) Levaquin (Levofloxacin)
E) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
F) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Q2) What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the client is recovering from preeclampsia?
A) 1+ protein in urine
B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
C) Urine output >100 mL/hr
D) Deep tendon reflexes +2
Q3) Which maternal condition always necessitates birth by cesarean section?
A) Partial abruptio placentae
B) Total placenta previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Eclampsia
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which postpartum client requires further assessment?
A) G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
B) G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
C) G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
D) G3 P2 postcesarean client who has active herpes lesions on the labia
Q2) The most important instruction to include in a teaching plan for a client in early pregnancy who has Class I heart disease is she:
A) must report any nausea or vomiting.
B) may experience mild fatigue in early pregnancy.
C) must report any chest discomfort or productive cough.
D) should plan to increase her daily exercise gradually throughout pregnancy.
Q3) Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoinsulinemia
D) Hypobilirubinemia
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emergency measures used in the treatment of a prolapsed cord include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administration of oxygen via face mask at 8 to 10 L/min
B) Maternal change of position to knee-chest
C) Administration of tocolytic agent
D) Administration of oxytocin (Pitocin)
E) Vaginal elevation
F) Insertion of cord back into vaginal area
Q2) Which is (are) the priority nursing assessment(s) for the client having tocolytic therapy with terbutaline (Brethine)?
A) Intake and output
B) Maternal blood glucose level
C) Internal temperature and odor of amniotic fluid
D) Fetal heart rate, maternal pulse, and blood pressure
Q3) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because:
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the client delivers vaginally.
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the client diagnosed with endometritis, the nurse recognizes that the client should be positioned in the:
A) prone position.
B) side-lying position.
C) Fowler position.
D) supine position with the head flat.
Q2) Which client data received during report should the nurse recognize as being a postpartum risk factor?
A) Gravida 5, para 5
B) Labor duration of 4 hours
C) Infant weight greater than 3800 g
D) Epidural anesthesia for labor and birth
Q3) A client with mastitis is concerned about breastfeeding while she has an active infection. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) Organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid.
B) Organisms that cause mastitis are not passed to the milk.
C) The infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause mastitis.
D) The infant is protected from infection by immunoglobulins in the breast milk.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2140
Sample Questions
Q1) Overstimulation may cause increased oxygen use in a preterm infant. Which nursing intervention helps to avoid this problem?
A) Group all care activities together to provide long periods of rest.
B) Keep charts on top of the incubator so the nurses can write on them there.
C) While giving a report to the next nurse, stand in front of the incubator and talk softly about how the infant responds to stimulation.
D) Teach the parents signs of overstimulation, such as turning the face away or stiffening and extending the extremities and fingers.
Q2) To determine a preterm infant's readiness for nipple feeding, the nurse should assess the:
A) Skin turgor.
B) Bowel sounds.
C) Current weight.
D) Respiratory rate.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141
Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome is not responding to conventional treatment. Which method of treatment may be available at a level III facility for use with this infant?
A) Insertion of an endotracheal tube
B) Respiratory support with a ventilator
C) Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
D) Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea
Q2) The nurse's immediate action after the birth of a post-term infant with meconium stained amniotic fluid is to:
A) stimulate the infant to cry.
B) suction the infant's airways.
C) complete the 1- and 5-minute Apgars.
D) vigorously dry the infant's head and trunk.
Q3) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if:
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142
Sample Questions
Q1) A male client asks, "Why do I have to use another contraceptive? I had a vasectomy last week." The best response is:
A) "A vasectomy is only 85% effective."
B) "A vasectomy is not effective in all men."
C) "Semen may contain sperm for 6 months following a vasectomy."
D) "Complete sterilization doesn't occur until all sperm have left the system."
Q2) A client is using Depo-Provera as her method of birth control. Which finding warrants immediate intervention?
A) Mid-cycle bleeding
B) Nausea
C) Temperature of 100° F
D) Irregular periods
Q3) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for a client who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
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33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2143
Sample Questions
Q1) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is:
A) in vitro fertilization.
B) tubal embryo transfer.
C) therapeutic insemination.
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer.
Q2) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal bloating
B) Diarrhea
C) Oliguria
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Abnormal uterine bleeding
Q3) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) Findings of a Pap smear exam denote atypical cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The Pap test is repeated at 6 months and the same finding of ASCUS are reported. Which therapeutic treatment option would the nurse expect the practitioner to order?
A) Mammography
B) Bone scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Biopsy
Q2) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2145
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old client. You expect the initial treatment to include:
A) beginning hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the client after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
Q2) Which statement is true about primary dysmenorrhea?
A) Primary dysmenorrhea is experienced by all women.
B) It is unaffected by oral contraceptives.
C) It occurs in young multiparous women.
D) It may be caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin.
Q3) The drug of choice to treat gonorrhea is:
A) penicillin G (Pfizerpen).
B) tetracycline (Achromycin).
C) ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
D) acyclovir (Zovirax).
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