Maternal and Newborn Nursing
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Maternal and Newborn Nursing is a specialized branch of nursing that focuses on providing comprehensive care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as to newborn infants. This course covers key concepts including maternal health assessment, prenatal care, labor and delivery management, postpartum support, and the care of normal and high-risk newborns. It emphasizes evidence-based practices for health promotion, disease prevention, and management of common complications to ensure the well-being of both mothers and infants. Students will also explore cultural, ethical, and legal considerations in maternal and newborn care, and develop skills for effective communication, family education, and interdisciplinary collaboration within the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation is most representative of an extended family?
A) It includes adoptive children.
B) It is headed by a single parent.
C) It contains children from previous marriages.
D) It is composed of children, parents, and grandparents living in the same house.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is assessing a client's use of complementary and alternative therapies. Which should the nurse document as an alternative or complementary therapy practice? (Select all that apply.)
A) Practicing yoga daily
B) Drinking green tea in the morning
C) Taking omeprazole (Prilosec) once a day
D) Using aromatherapy during a relaxing bath
E) Wearing a lower back brace when lifting heavy objects
Answer: A, B, D
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Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are taking care of a couple postbirth who are very eager to learn about bathing techniques that they can use for their newborn. Which teaching technique could the nurse use to facilitate parents learning about giving a bath to their newborn infant?
A) Provide direct, step-by-step demonstration to each parent separately to foster individual retention and comprehension.
B) Present information to parents prior to discharge so that the information will be current.
C) Have each parent bathe the newborn each time the infant comes to the room and provide commentary after the skill repetition.
D) Demonstrate bathing techniques on the newborn infant with parents in attendance.
Answer: D
Q2) Which nursing intervention is correctly written?
A) Force fluids as necessary.
B) Observe interaction with the infant.
C) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.
D) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding the quality assurance or incident report?
A) Reports are a permanent part of the patient's chart.
B) The report assures the legal department that there is no problem.
C) The nurse's notes should contain this statement: "Incident report filed and copy placed in chart."
D) This report is a form of documentation of an event that may result in legal action.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is interviewing a 6-week pregnant client. The client asks the nurse, "Why is elective abortion considered an ethical issue?" Which is the best response that the nurse should make?
A) Abortion requires third-party consent.
B) The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
C) Abortion law is unclear about a woman's constitutional rights.
D) There is a conflict between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman's menstrual cycle began on June 2, on which date should ovulation mostly likely have occurred?
A) June 10
B) June 16
C) June 29
D) July 5
Q2) Which hormone is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Q3) The nurse is reviewing normal female development with a mother of a 10-year-old daughter. The mother states, "I noticed that my daughter developed breast buds about a year ago. When do you think she will start her menstrual cycle?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "In about a year."
B) "Likely any time now."
C) "Does your daughter know what to expect?"
D) "It is impossible to predict when she will start her cycle."
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working with a client to obtain information needed for genetic counseling. Which tool will be used to obtain this information?
A) Braden scale
B) Genogram
C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
D) Serum protein electrophoresis
Q2) The parents of a child with a karyotype of 47,XY, +21 ask the nurse what this means.
Which is an accurate response by the nurse?
A) This karyotype is for a normal male.
B) This karyotype is for a normal female.
C) This karyotype is for a male with Down syndrome.
D) This karyotype is for a female with Turner's syndrome.
Q3) X-linked recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is diagnosed with fetal anemia. What information would support that clinical diagnosis?
A) Presence of excess maternal hormones
B) Maternal blood type O-negative, Rh-negative, and infant blood type O-negative, Rhnegative
C) Passive immunity
D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive baby
Q2) A pregnant client asks the nurse how her baby gets oxygen to breathe. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Oxygen-rich blood is delivered through the umbilical vein to the baby."
B) "Take lots of deep breaths because the baby gets all of its oxygen from you."
C) "You don't need to be concerned about your baby getting enough oxygen."
D) "The baby's lungs are not mature enough to actually breathe, so don't worry."
Q3) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. She asks, "Why does this happen?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "It is due to an increase in gastric motility."
B) "It may be due to changes in hormones."
C) "It is related to an increase in glucose levels."
D) "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."
Q2) A client notices that the health care provider writes "positive Chadwick's sign" on her chart. She asks the nurse what this means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It means the cervix is softening."
B) "That refers to a positive sign of pregnancy."
C) "It refers to the bluish color of the cervix in pregnancy."
D) "The doctor was able to flex the uterus against the cervix."
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which comment made by a new mother to her own mother is most likely to encourage the grandmother's participation in the infant's care?
A) "Could you help me with the housework today?"
B) "The baby is spitting up a lot. What should I do?"
C) "I know you are busy, so I'll get John's mother to help me."
D) "The baby has a stomachache. I'll call the nurse to find out what to do."
Q2) An expectant client asks the nurse about the behavior of "mimicry." Which is an example of mimicry that the nurse should relate to the client?
A) Daydreaming about the newborn
B) Imagining oneself as a good mother
C) Babysitting for a neighbor's children
D) Wearing maternity clothes before they are needed
Q3) An Asian-American expectant father tells the nurse that he seems to be gaining weight, just like his wife. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely a reflection of which?
A) Couvade
B) Embarrassment
C) Ambivalence regarding the pregnancy
D) Limited interest in the well-being of his wife
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a breastfeeding client about substances to avoid while she is breastfeeding. Which substances should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Omega-6 fatty acids
D) Appetite suppressants
E) Polyunsaturated omega-3 fatty acids
Q2) The health care provider has recommended an iron supplement for the patient who is 20 weeks pregnant. The nurse is reviewing the recommendation with the patient. What fluid is best for the nurse to recommend when taking an iron supplement?
A) 8 ounces of milk
B) 8 ounces of water
C) 4 ounces of orange juice
D) 4 ounces of apple juice
Q3) Magnesium
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) No difference in accuracy among the trimesters
Q2) What does a score of 9 on a biophysical profile signify?
A) Normal
B) Abnormal
C) Equivocal
D) Nonreactive
Q3) The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are positive. Which intervention is necessary based on this test result?
A) Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be trended based on this baseline result.
B) Contact the health care provider to discuss birth options for the client.
C) Send the client out for a meal and repeat the test to confirm that the results are valid.
D) Ask the client to perform a fetal kick count assessment for the next 30 minutes and then reassess the client.
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Martha is a gravida 3, para 2, whose last child was born 5 years ago. She attended childbirth preparation classes with her first pregnancy. Which class would be most appropriate for her?
A) Refresher course
B) Infant care classes
C) Postpartum classes
D) Early pregnancy classes
Q2) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
Q3) A client asks, "What can I do to help decrease the amount of pain with labor?" What should be the nurse's best response?
A) "Nothing. That is the way God intended it to be."
B) "We can give you medications to help with the pain."
C) "You should not worry about the pain; leave that concern up to the staff."
D) "By trying to relax, the contractions will be more efficient and the pain may be less."
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assess a laboring patient's contraction pattern and notes the frequency at every 3 to 4 minutes, duration 50 to 60 sections, and the intensity is moderate by palpation. What is the most accurate documentation for this contraction pattern?
A) Stage 1, latent phase
B) Stage 2, latent phase
C) Stage 1, active phase
D) Stage 2, active phase
Q2) A nullipara client has progressed to the active phase of labor. The nurse understands that this phase of labor, on the average, for a nullipara will last how long?
A) 50 minutes
B) 3 1/2 hours
C) 6 to 7 hours
D) 8 to 10 hours
Q3) Which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing the cardinal maneuvers with a group of nursing students. Which maneuver will immediately follow the birth of the baby's head?
A) Expulsion
B) Restitution
C) Internal rotation
D) External rotation
Q2) Which client at term should go to the hospital or birth center the soonest after labor begins?
A) Gravida 2, para 1, who lives 10 minutes away
B) Gravida 1, para 0, who lives 40 minutes away
C) Gravida 2, para 1, whose first labor lasted 16 hours
D) Gravida 3, para 2, whose longest previous labor was 4 hours
Q3) The nurse auscultates the fetal heart rate and determines a rate of 152 bpm. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
A) Inform the mother that the rate is normal.
B) Reassess the fetal heart rate in 5 minutes because the rate is too high.
C) Report the fetal heart rate to the physician or nurse-midwife immediately.
D) Tell the mother that she is going to have a boy because the heart rate is fast.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse admits a laboring patient at term. On review of the prenatal record, the patient's pregnancy has been unremarkable and she is considered low risk. In planning the patient's care, at what interval will the nurse intermittently auscultate (IA) the fetal heart rate during the first stage of labor?
A) Every 10 minutes
B) Every 15 minutes
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Every 60 minutes
Q2) Increasing the infusion rate of nonadditive intravenous fluids can increase fetal oxygenation primarily by:
A) expanding the maternal blood volume.
B) maintaining a normal maternal temperature.
C) preventing normal maternal hypoglycemia.
D) increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the maternal blood.
Q3) Proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is:
A) inside the uterus.
B) on the fetal scalp.
C) over the uterine fundus.
D) over the mother's lower abdomen.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your laboring client has asked that you help her to use a cutaneous stimulation strategy for pain management, you would then:
A) assist her into the shower.
B) apply a heat pack to lower back.
C) help her to create a relaxing mental scene.
D) encourage cleansing breaths and slow-paced breathing.
Q2) A multipara's labor plan includes the use of jet hydrotherapy during the active phase of labor. What is the priority patient assessment prior to assisting the patient with this request?
A) Maternal pulse
B) Maternal temperature
C) Maternal blood pressure
D) Maternal blood glucose level
Q3) Childbirth preparation can be considered successful if the outcome is described as which of the following?
A) Labor was pain-free.
B) The birth experiences of friends and families were ignored.
C) Only nonpharmacologic methods for pain control were used.
D) The client rehearsed labor and practiced skills to master pain.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion is:
A) measuring urinary output.
B) evaluating cervical dilation.
C) monitoring uterine response.
D) increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes.
Q2) Before the health care provider performs an external version, the nurse should expect an order for a:
A) Foley catheter.
B) tocolytic drug.
C) local anesthetic.
D) contraction stress test (CST).
Q3) Which aspect of newborn assessment may be limited by the application of a vacuum extractor at birth?
A) Anterior fontanel
B) Coronal suture lines
C) Posterior fontanel
D) Biparietal diameter
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which maternal event is abnormal in the early postpartal period?
A) Diuresis and diaphoresis
B) Flatulence and constipation
C) Extreme hunger and thirst
D) Lochial color changes from rubra to alba
Q2) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends the use of which personal protective equipment with which the nurse is likely to come into contact?
A) Any body fluids
B) Any client at any time
C) Blood and blood products
D) Any client suspected of being HIV-positive
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client who delivered by cesarean birth 6 hours ago. The nurse assesses light bilateral rales when auscultating lung sounds. Which priority action should the nurse take?
A) Decrease IV fluid rate.
B) Document the finding.
C) Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer.
D) Ambulate the client around the nurses' station.
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are nursing measures that can promote parent-infant bonding and attachment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide comfort and ample time for rest.
B) Keep the baby wrapped to avoid cold stress.
C) Position the infant face to face with the mother.
D) Point out the characteristics of the infant in a positive way.
E) Limit the amount of modeling so the mother doesn't feel insecure.
Q2) An example of binding in during the postpartum period is a:
A) new mother telling her friends all about her labor and birth experience.
B) father looking at his newborn and stating that he "looks like I did when I was a baby."
C) mother reporting increasing anxiety during the postpartum period because she feels like she is all alone.
D) mother wanting some time alone so that she can catch up on needed sleep.
Q3) Taking-in
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) During fetal circulation the pressure is greatest in the:
A) left atrium.
B) right atrium.
C) hepatic system.
D) pulmonary veins.
Q2) A reported hematocrit level for a newborn vaginal birth is 75%. Based on this lab value, which complication is the newborn least at risk to develop?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Respiratory distress
C) Infection
D) Jaundice
Q3) The postpartum nurse is administering vitamin K (phytonadione) to a newborn. The prescribed order is to administer one dose of 0.5 mg of vitamin K via the intramuscular (IM) route within 1 hour after birth. The ampule of vitamin K sent from the pharmacy is 1 mg/0.5 mL. How many milliliters does the nurse draw up to administer the correct dose?
Record your answer to two decimal points.
_____ mL
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristic shows the greatest gestational maturity?
A) The infant's arms and legs are extended.
B) There is some peeling and cracking of the skin.
C) There are few rugae on the scrotum and the testes are high in the scrotum.
D) The arm can be positioned with the elbow beyond the midline of the chest.
Q2) An infant at term was born at 0105, or 1:05 AM. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the newborn. During which time range will the nurse plan on performing the assessment to determine a Ballard score?
A) 0115-0130
B) 0200-0600
C) 1400-1800
D) 2000-2300
Q3) Which assessment finding of a newborn requires prompt action by the nurse?
A) Respiratory rate of 50 breaths/min
B) Cyanosis of the extremities
C) Pause in breathing lasting 20 seconds
D) Pause in breathing for 15 seconds followed by rapid respirations
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of medications after birth is the topic of discussion during a prenatal education class. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the pregnant patient understands the primary indication for the administration of vitamin K?
A) "The nurse will draw blood to determine if vitamin K is needed."
B) "Vitamin K prevents the possibility of bleeding problems in my baby."
C) "My baby will receive a shot when the nurse administers the vitamin K."
D) "Vitamin K will be administered shortly after birth, generally within the first hour."
Q2) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take an action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37° C (98.6° F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
Q3) The postpartum nurse is reviewing oral-nasal bulb suctioning with a first-time mom. Which statement will the nurse need to correct?
A) "Depress the bulb prior to inserting the tip."
B) "Suction the nose first and then the mouth."
C) "Keep a bulb syringe in the bassinet at all times."
D) "Gradually release the pressure on the bulb while withdrawing it."
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23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother asks why she has to open a new bottle of formula for each feeding. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Formula may turn sour after it is opened."
B) "Bacteria can grow rapidly in warm milk."
C) "Formula loses some nutritional value once it is opened."
D) "This makes it easier to keep track of how much the baby is taking."
Q2) A newborn infant weighs 7 pounds, 2 ounces, on the fifth day of life. How much water should be given to the newborn based on required fluid needs?
A) Fluid replacement should be based on weight and calculated in the range of 60 to 100 mL/kg.
B) Offer additional water to tolerance in between infant feedings to maintain hydration.
C) Give 12 ounces of fluid per feeding.
D) No water is needed because formula and breast milk are adequate to maintain hydration.
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
Q2) Which statement made by a new mother should be a cause of concern to the nurse?
A) "I will start my baby on solid foods at 5 months."
B) "I usually keep the temperature in my house at 72° F."
C) "I plan to position my infant on his back when sleeping."
D) "I don't intend to spoil my baby by picking him up every time he cries."
Q3) Which intervention will be most helpful to parents in identifying problems with an infant car seat?
A) Questioning the parents about the instructions
B) Providing the parents with current laws on infant and child safety
C) Asking the parents to demonstrate how to secure the infant in the car seat
D) Allowing the parents to ask questions and express feelings about infant restraint
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
Q2) Opiates
A)A powerful short-acting CNS stimulant
B)CNS depressants that produce a feeling of mental dullness, drowsiness, and finally stupor
C)Active constituent is tetrahydrocannabinol, which crosses the placenta and accumulates in the fetus
Q3) Which statement correctly describes the incidence of intimate partner violence (IPV) in the United States?
A) Intimate partner violence seldom occurs during pregnancy.
B) Each year about 42.4 million women experience intimate partner violence.
C) The largest number of intimate partner violence is in the lower socioeconomic classes.
D) Intimate partner violence is second only to automobile accidents as the most frequent cause of injury to women.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding on the fetal monitor strip supports a diagnosis of abruptio placentae?
A) FHR of 150 bpm
B) Moderate variability of FHR
C) Contractions every 3 minutes
D) Uterine resting tone of 30 mm Hg
Q2) A patient presents to labor and birth with complaints of persistent acute back pain at 36 weeks' gestation. The nursing assessment reveals a taught abdomen, fundal height at 40 cm, and late decelerations, with an FHR range of 124 to 128 bpm. The nurse will implement the protocol for which obstetric condition?
A) Placenta previa
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Abruptio placentae or abruption
D) DIC
Q3) Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
A) Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
B) Complaint of frequent mild nausea
C) Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
D) History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antiinfective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant client with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the client is at risk of developing:
A) hypertension.
B) postpartum infection.
C) bacterial endocarditis.
D) upper respiratory infections.
Q2) Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
A) Rubella
B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C) Syphilis
D) HIV
Q3) For which of the following infectious diseases can a woman be immunized?
A) Rubella
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus type 2
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Q1) An obstetric client has been identified as being high risk and so has had activities restrictions (placed on bed rest) placed on her until the end of the pregnancy. Currently, she is at 32 weeks' gestation and has two other children at home, ages 3 and 6. The client's husband works at home. A nursing diagnosis of Impaired home maintenance is noted. Which statement potentially identifies a long-term goal?
A) The client and husband will be able to adapt their schedules accordingly to meet activities of daily living until the client's next scheduled antepartum visit the following week.
B) The client and husband will hire a nanny to act as an additional caregiver for the next month.
C) The client will continue to take care of her children at home, taking frequent rest periods.
D) The client and husband will make arrangements for child care routine activity assistance for the rest of the pregnancy.
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139
Sample Questions
Q1) For the client diagnosed with endometritis, the nurse recognizes that the client should be positioned in the:
A) prone position.
B) side-lying position.
C) Fowler position.
D) supine position with the head flat.
Q2) The nurse knows that late postpartum hemorrhage can be prevented by:
A) manually removing the placenta.
B) inspecting the placenta after birth.
C) administering broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D) pulling on the umbilical cord to hasten the birth of the placenta.
Q3) The nurse expecting a uterine infection in a postpartum client should assess the: A) episiotomy site.
B) odor of the lochia.
C) abdomen for distention.
D) pulse and blood pressure.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2140
Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
Q2) Which is true about newborns classified as small for gestational age (SGA)?
A) They weigh less than 2500g.
B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.
C) They are below the tenth percentile on gestational growth charts.
D) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.
Q3) Which nursing action is especially important for an SGA newborn?
A) Promote bonding.
B) Observe for and prevent dehydration.
C) Observe for respiratory distress syndrome.
D) Prevent hypoglycemia with early and frequent feedings.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141
Sample Questions
Q1) Transitory tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is thought to occur as a result of:
A) a lack of surfactant.
B) hypoinflation of the lungs.
C) delayed absorption of fetal lung fluid.
D) a slow vaginal birth associated with meconium-stained fluid.
Q2) Which intervention should make phototherapy most effective in reducing the indirect bilirubin in an affected newborn?
A) Turn the infant every 2 hours.
B) Place eye patches on the newborn.
C) Wrap the infant in triple blankets to prevent cold stress.
D) Increase the oral intake of water between and before feedings.
Q3) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see:
A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142
Sample Questions
Q1) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n):
A) IUD.
B) diaphragm.
C) male condom.
D) oral contraceptive.
Q2) Which symptom in a client using oral contraceptives should be reported to the physician immediately?
A) 5-lb weight gain
B) Leg pain and edema
C) Decrease in menstrual flow
D) Increased pigmentation of the face
Q3) A male client asks, "Why do I have to use another contraceptive? I had a vasectomy last week." The best response is:
A) "A vasectomy is only 85% effective."
B) "A vasectomy is not effective in all men."
C) "Semen may contain sperm for 6 months following a vasectomy."
D) "Complete sterilization doesn't occur until all sperm have left the system."
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is:
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Q2) A client has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the client goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
Q3) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
Q2) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2145
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a client diagnosed with premenstrual syndrome indicates that further health teaching is needed?
A) "I will not eat chips or pickles."
B) "I'll eat only three meals per day."
C) "Drinking alcohol makes me more depressed."
D) "Coffee and chocolate can make me more irritable and nervous."
Q2) A 38-year-old client presents to the clinic office complaining of increased bilateral tenderness of her breasts prior to the onset of menses. On questioning the client, this presentation has occurred off and on for several years, but the pain has increased. Physical examination reveals lumpy areas bilaterally on the upper outer quadrants of each breast tissue. The areas of concern are approximately 2 cm in size. Based on this assessment, what diagnostic testing would be required? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Open biopsy
C) Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy
D) CBC with differential
E) Mammogram
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