Maternal and Child Health Nursing
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Maternal and Child Health Nursing is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices essential to the care of women throughout the stages of pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the health and development of infants and children. The course emphasizes the promotion of holistic health, prevention of illness, and early detection of common maternal and pediatric conditions. Students will learn about family-centered care, reproductive health, growth and development milestones, immunization practices, and common pediatric disorders. By integrating theoretical knowledge with clinical skills, this course prepares nursing students to deliver safe, evidence-based, and compassionate care to mothers, infants, and children within diverse cultural and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing 4th Edition by Emily Slone McKinney
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55 Chapters
1617 Verified Questions
1617 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/918 Page 2
Chapter 1: Foundations of Maternity, Womens Health, and Child Health Nursing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18056
Sample Questions
Q1) As a result of changes in health care delivery and funding,a current trend seen in the pediatric setting is:
A) Increased hospitalization of children
B) Decreased number of children living in poverty
C) An increase in ambulatory care
D) Decreased use of managed care.
Answer: C
Q2) Which situation reflects a potential ethical dilemma for the nurse?
A) A nurse administers analgesics to a patient with cancer as often as the physician's order allows.
B) A neonatal nurse provides nourishment and care to a newborn who has a defect that is incompatible with life.
C) A labor nurse, whose religion opposes abortion, is asked to assist with an elective abortion.
D) A postpartum nurse provides information about adoption to a new mother who feels she cannot adequately care for her infant.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurses Role in Maternity, Womens Health, and Pediatric Nursing
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18057
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary role of practicing nurses in the research process?
A) Designing research studies
B) Collecting data for other researchers
C) Identifying researchable problems
D) Seeking funding to support research studies
Answer: C
Q2) Which response by the nurse to the woman's statement,"I'm afraid to have a cesarean birth," would be the most therapeutic?
A) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"
B) "Everything will be OK."
C) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."
D) "The doctor will be in later, and you can talk to him."
Answer: A
Q3) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Teaching the woman perineal care
C) Requesting diagnostic studies
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Childbearing and Child-Rearing Family
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18058
Sample Questions
Q1) Parents of children with special needs often require specialized care and experience frequent hospitalizations.When caring for these families,the nurse should be aware that they may experience financial hardship due to their child's condition and require assistance in obtaining referrals to resources.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A nurse observes that parents discuss rules with their children when the children do not agree with the rules.Which style of parenting is being displayed?
A) Authoritarian
B) Authoritative
C) Permissive
D) Disciplinarian
Answer: B
Q3) ___________ refers to the view that one's own culture's way of doing things is always the best.
Answer: Ethnocentrism
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Communicating With Children and Families
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18059
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most appropriate question to ask when interviewing an adolescent to encourage conversation?
A) "Are you in school?"
B) "Are you doing well in school?"
C) "How is school going for you?"
D) "How do your parents feel about your grades?"
Q2) What is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the parent of a 3-year-old child found in a bed with the side rails down?
A) "You must never leave the child in the room alone with the side rails down."
B) "I am very concerned about your child's safety when you leave the side rails down. The hospital has guidelines stating that side rails need to be up if the child is in the bed."
C) "It is hospital policy that side rails need to be up if the child is in bed."
D) "When parents leave side rails down, they might be considered as uncaring."
Q3) Which behavior is most likely to encourage open communication?
A) Avoiding eye contact
B) Folding arms across chest
C) Standing with head bowed
D) Soft stance with arms loose at the side
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Chapter 5: Health Promotion for the Developing Child
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18060
Sample Questions
Q1) The theorist who viewed developmental progression as a lifelong series of conflicts that need resolution is
A) Erikson
B) Freud
C) Kohlberg
D) Piaget
Q2) The nurse is planning a teaching session for a young child and her parents.According to Piaget's theory,the period of cognitive development in which the child is able to distinguish between concepts related to fact and fantasy,such as human beings are incapable of flying like birds,is the _______ period of cognitive development.
A) Sensorimotor
B) Formal operations
C) Concrete operations
D) Preoperational
Q3) Which children are at greater risk for not receiving immunizations?
A) Children who attend licensed daycare programs
B) Children entering school
C) Children who are home schooled
D) Young adults entering college
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Chapter 6: Health Promotion for the Infant
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18061
Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a 10-month-old infant tells the nurse that her infant "really likes cow's milk." What is the nurse's best response to this mother?
A) "Milk is good for him."
B) "It is best to wait until he is a year old before giving him cow's milk."
C) "Limit cow's milk to his bedtime bottle."
D) "Mix his cereal with cow's milk and give him formula in a bottle."
Q2) The nurse is performing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed.This should be interpreted as a(n)
A) Normal finding
B) Questionable finding-infant should be rechecked in 1 month
C) Abnormal finding-indicates need for immediate referral to practitioner
D) Abnormal finding-indicates need for developmental assessment
Q3) A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant.The nurse should recommend that the infant be given
A) Skim milk
B) Whole cow's milk
C) Commercial iron-fortified formula
D) Commercial formula without iron.
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8
Chapter 7: Health Promotion during Early Childhood
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18062
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing parental knowledge of temper tantrums.Which are true statements about temper tantrums? Select all that apply.
A) Temper tantrums are a common response to anger and frustration in toddlers.
B) Temper tantrums often include screaming, kicking, throwing things, and head banging.
C) Parents can effectively manage temper tantrums by giving in to the child's demands.
D) Children having temper tantrums should be safely isolated and ignored.
E) Parents can learn to anticipate times when tantrums are more likely to occur.
Q2) Which statement,made by a 4-year-old child's father,is true about the care of the preschooler's teeth?
A) "Because the 'baby teeth' are not permanent, they are not important to the child."
B) "My son can be encouraged to brush his teeth after I have thoroughly cleaned his teeth."
C) "My son's 'permanent teeth' will begin to come in at 4 to 5 years of age."
D) "Fluoride supplements can be discontinued when my son's 'permanent teeth' erupt."
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Chapter 8: Health Promotion for the School-Age Child
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18063
Sample Questions
Q1) Which behavior by parents or teachers will best assist the child in negotiating the developmental task of industry?
A) Identifying failures immediately and asking the child's peers for feedback
B) Structuring the environment so that the child can master tasks
C) Completing homework for children who are having difficulty in completing assignments
D) Decreasing expectations to eliminate potential failures
Q2) A 9-year-old girl often comes to the school nurse complaining of stomach pains.Her teacher says she is completing her schoolwork satisfactorily,but lately she has been somewhat aggressive and stubborn in the classroom.The school nurse should recognize this as
A) Signs of stress
B) Developmental delay
C) Physical problem causing emotional stress
D) Lack of adjustment to school environment
Q3) Which comment is most developmentally typical of a 7-year-old boy?
A) "I am a Power Ranger, so don't make me angry."
B) "I don't know whether I like Mary or Joan better."
C) "My mom is my favorite person in the world."
D) "Jimmy is my best friend."
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Chapter 9: Health Promotion for the Adolescent
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18064
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate to a 15-year-old whose friend has mentioned suicide?
A) "Tell your friend to come to the clinic immediately."
B) "You need to gather details about your friend's suicide plan."
C) "Your friend's threat needs to be taken seriously, and immediate help for your friend is important."
D) "If your friend mentions suicide a second time, you will want to get your friend some help."
Q2) Which behavior suggests appropriate psychosocial development in the adolescent?
A) The adolescent seeks validation for socially acceptable behavior from older adults.
B) The adolescent is self-absorbed and self-centered and has sudden mood swings.
C) Adolescents move from peers and enjoy spending time with family members.
D) Conformity with the peer group increases in late adolescence.
Q3) What predisposes the adolescent to feel an increased need for sleep?
A) An inadequate diet
B) Rapid physical growth
C) Decreased activity that contributes to a feeling of fatigue
D) The lack of ambition typical of this age-group
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11
Chapter 10: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18065
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true of multifactorial disorders?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with multifactorial disease.
Q2) The karyotype of a person is 47,XY,+21.This person is a
A) Normal male
B) Male with Down syndrome
C) Normal female
D) Female with Turner syndrome
Q3) Mechanical forces that interfere with normal prenatal development include oligohydramnios and fibrous amniotic bands.A patient at 34 weeks of gestation has reported to the OB triage unit for assessment of oligohydramnios.The nurse assigned to care for this patient is aware that prolonged oligohydramnios may result in (select all that apply)
A) Intrauterine limb amputations
B) Clubfoot
C) Delayed lung development
D) Other fetal abnormalities
E) Fetal deformations
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18066
Sample Questions
Q1) Which 16-year-old female is most likely to experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) A girl who is 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) A girl who is 5 ft 9 in, 150 lb
C) A girl who is 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) A girl who is 5 ft 4 in, 120 lb
Q2) It is important for the nurse to understand that the levator ani is a(n)
A) Imaginary line that divides the true and false pelvis
B) Basin-shaped structure at the lower end of the spine
C) Collection of three pairs of muscles
D) Division of the fallopian tube
Q3) The function of the cremaster muscle in men is to
A) Aid in voluntary control of excretion of urine.
B) Entrap blood in the penis to produce an erection.
C) Assist with transporting sperm.
D) Aid in temperature control of the testicles.
Q4) Fertilization of the ovum takes place in which part of the fallopian tube?
A) Interstitial portion
B) Ampulla
C) Isthmus
D) Infundibulum
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Conception and Prenatal Development
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18067
Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosomes?
A) The head of the sperm
B) The middle portion of the sperm
C) X-bearing sperm
D) The tail of the sperm
Q2) Congenital disorders refer to those conditions that are present at birth.These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition.Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation.For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant client,she should be knowledgeable regarding known human teratogens,which include (select all that apply)
A) Infections
B) Radiation
C) Maternal conditions
D) Drugs
E) Chemicals
Q3) The ability of the fetus to survive outside the uterus is called ___________.
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Chapter 13: Adaptations to Pregnancy
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18068
Sample Questions
Q1) A number of cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy.Which finding is considered normal for a woman during pregnancy?
A) Cardiac output rises by 25%
B) Increased pulse rate
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production
Q2) Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of A) Inadequate intake of iron
B) Dilution of hemoglobin concentration
C) The fetus establishing iron stores
D) Decreased production of erythrocytes
Q3) A 36-year-old divorcee with a successful modeling career finds out that her 18-year-old married daughter is expecting her first child.What is a major factor in determining how the woman will respond to becoming a grandmother?
A) Her career
B) Being divorced
C) Her age
D) Age of the daughter
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15
Chapter 14: Nutrition for Childbearing
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18069
Sample Questions
Q1) Which pregnant adolescent is most at risk for a nutritional deficit during pregnancy?
A) A 15-year-old of normal height and weight
B) A 17-year-old who is 10 pounds underweight
C) A 16-year-old who is 10 pounds overweight
D) A 16-year-old of normal height and weight
Q2) What is a goal of a patient with the following nursing diagnosis: Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to diet choices inadequate to meet nutrient requirements of pregnancy?
A) Gain a total of 30 lb.
B) Take daily supplements consistently.
C) Decrease intake of snack foods.
D) Increase intake of complex carbohydrates.
Q3) The evidence regarding the effects of caffeine on nutrition during pregnancy is conflicting and more research is needed.Until the time when there is more evidence on the effect of caffeine on the fetus,caffeine intake during pregnancy should be limited to 400 mg per day.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Prenatal Diagnostic Tests
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18070
Sample Questions
Q1) Which response by the nurse is most appropriate to this statement: "This test isn't my idea,but my husband insists"?
A) "Don't worry. Everything will be fine."
B) "Why don't you want to have this test?"
C) "You're concerned about having this test?"
D) "It's your decision."
Q2) When is the best time to determine gestational age based on biparietal diameter through ultrasound?
A) 4 to 6 weeks
B) 5 to 7 weeks
C) 7 to 10 weeks
D) 12 to 20 weeks
Q3) The major advantage of chorionic villus sampling (CVS)over amniocentesis is that it
A) Is not an invasive procedure
B) Does not require hospitalization
C) Has less risk of spontaneous abortion
D) Is performed earlier in pregnancy
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Chapter 16: Giving Birth
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18071
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor ensures that the smallest anterior-posterior diameter of the fetal head enters the pelvis?
A) Descent
B) Engagement
C) Flexion
D) Station
Q2) Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent and require further nursing interventions?
A) Decreased peristalsis
B) A full bladder
C) Reduction in internal uterine size
D) Rupture of membranes
Q3) A laboring woman is lying in the supine position.The most appropriate nursing action is to
A) Ask her to turn to one side.
B) Elevate her feet and legs.
C) Take her blood pressure.
D) Determine if fetal tachycardia is present.
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18
Chapter 17: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18072
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse might be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp
A) As part of fetal scalp blood sampling
B) In response to tocolysis
C) In preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring
D) To elicit an acceleration in the FHR
Q2) How does the available staff influence the selection of either continuous electronic or intermittent auscultation as the fetal-monitoring method?
A) There must be a 1:1 nurse-to-patient ratio regardless of the method used.
B) Staffing patterns do not influence fetal monitoring choices.
C) Use of intermittent auscultation requires a lower nurse-to-patient ratio.
D) More nurses are needed when electronic fetal monitoring is used because of increased medical interventions.
Q3) When the deceleration pattern of the fetal heart rate mirrors the uterine contraction,which nursing action is indicated?
A) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
B) Reposition the woman.
C) Apply a fetal scalp electrode.
D) Record this reassuring pattern.
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management for Childbirth
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18073
Sample Questions
Q1) Childbirth preparation can be considered successful if the outcome is described as A) Labor was pain-free.
B) Birth experiences of friends and families were discredited.
C) The woman rehearsed labor and practiced skills to master pain.
D) Only nonpharmacologic methods for pain control were used.
Q2) Which intervention may be most helpful for the patient experiencing most of her labor pain in her back?
A) Lying supine with head slightly elevated
B) Having the support person apply firm pressure to the sacrum
C) Sitting upright with the legs straight
D) Having the nurse massage the upper back during a contraction
Q3) When providing labor support,the nurse knows that which fetal position might cause the laboring woman more back discomfort?
A) Right occiput anterior
B) Left occiput anterior
C) Right occiput transverse
D) Left occiput posterior
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20
Chapter 19: Nursing Care during Obstetric Procedures
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18074
Sample Questions
Q1) As an adjunct to inductions,a number of procedures to ripen the cervix are employed.One of these methods is the vaginal administration of preparations using prostaglandins.Before administering this medication,the nurse should be aware that this class of drug is an appropriate choice for women who have had a prior cesarean birth.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) When positioning the Foley catheter before cesarean birth,the nurse knows that the catheter drainage tube and catheter bag should be
A) Positioned on top of the patient's leg
B) Placed near the head of the table
C) Clamped during the cesarean section
D) Positioned at the foot of the surgeon under the sterile drapes
Q3) When preparing a woman for a cesarean birth,the nurse's care should include
A) Injection of narcotic preoperative medications
B) Full perineal shave preparation
C) Straight catheterization to empty the bladder
D) Administration of an oral antacid
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Chapter 20: Postpartum Adaptations
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18075
Sample Questions
Q1) Clotting factors and fibrinogen levels normally are decreased during pregnancy and remain low in the immediate puerperium.This hypocoagulable state increases the risk of thromboembolism,especially after cesarean birth.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) A postpartum patient asks,"Will these stretch marks go away?" The nurse's best response is
A) "They will continue to fade and should be gone by your 6-week checkup."
B) "No, never."
C) "Yes, eventually."
D) "They will fade to silvery lines but won't disappear completely."
Q3) Because a full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting normally,nurses intervene to help the woman empty her bladder spontaneously as soon as possible.If all else fails,the last thing the nurse might try is
A) Pouring water from a squeeze bottle over the woman's perineum
B) Providing hot tea
C) Asking the physician to prescribe analgesics
D) Inserting a sterile catheter
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Chapter 21: The Normal Newborn: Adaptation and Assessment
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18076
Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a newborn ask the nurse how much the newborn can see.The parents specifically want to know what type of visual stimuli they should provide for their newborn.The nurse responds to the parents by telling them
A) "Infants can see very little until about 3 months of age."
B) "Infants can track their parent's eyes and can distinguish patterns; they prefer complex patterns."
C) "The infant's eyes must be protected. Infants enjoy looking at brightly colored stripes."
D) "It's important to shield the newborn's eyes. Overhead lights help them see better."
Q2) A first-time dad is concerned that his 3-day-old daughter's skin looks "yellow." In the nurse's explanation of physiologic jaundice,what fact should be included?
A) Physiologic jaundice occurs during the first 24 hours of life.
B) Physiologic jaundice is caused by blood incompatibilities between the mother and infant blood types.
C) The bilirubin levels of physiologic jaundice peak between the second and fourth days of life.
D) This condition is also known as "breast milk jaundice."
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Normal Newborn: Nursing Care
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant's eyes and why it is needed.The nurse explains to the father that the purpose of the Ilotycin ophthalmic ointment is to
A) Destroy an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind.
B) Prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant's eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal.
C) Prevent potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant's eyes, leading to dry eyes.
D) Prevent the infant's eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see.
Q2) An unfortunate but essential role of the nurse is protecting the infant from abduction.Which statement regarding the profile of a potential abductor is the most accurate?
A) Male gender
B) A young woman who has had a previous pregnancy loss
C) A middle-aged woman past childbearing age
D) A female with a number of children of her own
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Newborn Feeding
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18078
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in assisting the breastfeeding mother?
A) Provide instruction on the composition of breast milk.
B) Discuss the hormonal changes that trigger the milk ejection reflex.
C) Assess the woman's knowledge of breastfeeding.
D) Help her obtain a comfortable position and place the infant to the breast.
Q2) How many kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg)of body weight does a breastfed term infant require each day?
A) 50 to 75
B) 85 to 100
C) 100 to 110
D) 150 to 200
Q3) All parents are entitled to a birthing environment in which breastfeeding is promoted and supported.The Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative endorsed by WHO and Unicef was founded to encourage institutions to offer optimal levels of care for lactating mothers.Which is not one of the "Ten Steps to Successful Breastfeeding for Hospitals"?
A) Give newborns no food or drink other than breast milk.
B) Have a written breastfeeding policy that is communicated to all staff.
C) Help mothers initiate breastfeeding within one half hour of birth.
D) Give artificial teats or pacifiers as necessary.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family With Special Needs
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18079
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit.This behavior puts her at a greater risk for
A) Depression of the central nervous system
B) Hypotension and vasodilation
C) Sexually transmitted diseases
D) Postmature birth
Q2) In counseling a patient who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption,the nurse should
A) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
B) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
C) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
Q3) Of adolescents who become pregnant,what percentage have had a previous birth?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 19%
D) 35%
Q4) The standard of care for women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics is ___________ maintenance treatment (MMT).
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Chapter 25: Pregnancy-Related Complications
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18080
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is being discharged from the hospital after placement of a cerclage because of a history of recurrent pregnancy loss secondary to an incompetent cervix.Discharge teaching should emphasize that
A) Any vaginal discharge should be reported immediately to her care provider.
B) The presence of any contractions, rupture of membranes, or severe perineal pressure should be reported.
C) She will need to make arrangements for care at home, because her activity level will be restricted.
D) She will be scheduled for a cesarean birth.
Q2) Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean section?
A) Partial abruptio placentae
B) Total placenta previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Eclampsia
Q3) Rh incompatibility can occur if the woman is Rh negative and her
A) Fetus is Rh positive
B) Husband is Rh positive
C) Fetus is Rh negative
D) Husband and fetus are both Rh negative
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18081
Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing intervention for the pregnant diabetic is based on the knowledge that the need for insulin
A) Increases throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period
B) Decreases throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period
C) Varies depending on the stage of gestation
D) Should not change because the fetus produces its own insulin
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus is a chronic multisystem inflammatory disease that affects skin,joints,kidney,lungs,CNS,liver,and other organs.Maternal risks include (select all that apply)
A) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
B) Fetal death resulting in stillbirth
C) Hypertension
D) Preeclampsia
E) Renal complications
Q3) The leading cause of life threatening perinatal infections in the United States is ________ (GBS).
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Chapter 27: The Woman With an Intrapartum Complication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18082
Sample Questions
Q1) A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful.Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours.The woman is crying and wants an epidural.What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
A) She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
B) She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
C) She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
D) She is experiencing pelvic dystocia.
Q2) Which patient situation presents the greatest risk for the occurrence of hypotonic dysfunction during labor?
A) A primigravida who is 17 years old
B) A 22-year-old multiparous woman with ruptured membranes
C) A multiparous woman at 39 weeks of gestation who is expecting twins
D) A primigravida woman who has requested no analgesia during her labor
Q3) Which nursing action must be initiated first when evidence of prolapsed cord is found?
A) Notify the physician.
B) Apply a scalp electrode.
C) Prepare the mother for an emergency cesarean delivery.
D) Reposition the mother with her hips higher than her head.
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Chapter 28: The Woman With a Postpartum Complication
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18083
Sample Questions
Q1) Of all pregnant women being treated for depression,approximately one-third have a first occurrence during pregnancy.All pregnant and postpartum women should be screened for perinatal mood disorders by using the _________ Postnatal Depression Scale.
Q2) A postpartum patient is at increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage if she delivers a(n)
A) 5-lb, 2-oz infant with outlet forceps
B) 6.5-lb infant after a 2-hour labor
C) 7-lb infant after an 8-hour labor
D) 8-lb infant after a 12-hour labor
Q3) The nurse is in the process of assessing the comfort level of her postpartum patient.Excess bleeding is not obvious; however,the new mother complains of deep,severe pelvic pain.The registered nurse (RN)has noted both skin and vital sign changes.This patient may have formed a(n)________.
Q4) When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum psychosis,one of the main concerns is that she may
A) Have outbursts of anger
B) Neglect her hygiene
C) Harm her infant
D) Lose interest in her husband
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Chapter 29: The High-Risk Newborn: Problems Related to
Gestational Age and Development
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18084
Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because surfactant
A) Causes increased permeability of the alveoli
B) Provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply
C) Keeps the alveoli open during expiration
D) Dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance
Q2) What will the nurse note when assessing an SGA infant with asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction?
A) One side of the body appears slightly smaller than the other.
B) All body parts appear proportionate.
C) The head seems large compared with the rest of the body.
D) The extremities are disproportionate to the trunk.
Q3) In caring for the preterm infant,what complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
D) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
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Chapter 30: The High Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18085
Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)is not responding to conventional treatment.Which highly technical method of treatment may be necessary for an infant who does not respond to conventional treatment?
A) Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
B) Respiratory support with ventilator
C) Insertion of laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea
D) Insertion of an endotracheal tube
Q2) A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult,forceps-assisted delivery.After stabilization,the infant is weighed,and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 pounds,6 ounces).The nurse's most appropriate action is to
A) Leave the infant in the room with the mother.
B) Take the infant immediately to the nursery.
C) Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age.
D) Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.
Q3) A lack of O? and an increase in CO? in the blood is known as __________.This condition in the neonate may occur while in utero,at birth,or later.
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Chapter 31: Management of Fertility and Infertility
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18086
Sample Questions
Q1) Which contraceptive method is contraindicated in a woman with a history of toxic shock syndrome?
A) Condom
B) Spermicide
C) Cervical cap
D) Norplant
Q2) A physician prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid,Serophene)for a woman experiencing infertility.She is very concerned about the risk of multiple births.The nurse's most appropriate response is
A) "This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins?"
B) "No one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid."
C) "Ovulation will be monitored with ultrasound so that this will not happen."
D) "Ten percent is a very low risk, so you don't need to worry too much."
Q3) Three million unintended pregnancies occur each year in the United States.A Healthy People 2020 goal is to increase the number of intended pregnancies to 70%.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Womens Health Care
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18087
Sample Questions
Q1) Women in the U.S.are now more likely to die of cardiac disease than all cancers combined.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) When discussing estrogen replacement therapy (ERT)with a perimenopausal woman,the nurse should include the risks of
A) Breast cancer
B) Vaginal and urinary tract atrophy
C) Osteoporosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q3) Which woman is most likely to have osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old woman receiving estrogen therapy
B) A 60-year-old woman who takes supplemental calcium
C) A 55-year-old woman with a sedentary lifestyle
D) A 65-year-old woman who walks 2 miles each day
Q4) The drug of choice to treat gonorrhea is
A) Penicillin G
B) Tetracycline
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Acyclovir
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Physical Assessment of Children
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18088
Sample Questions
Q1) What heart sound is produced by vibrations within the heart chambers or in the major arteries from the back-and-forth flow of blood?
A) S<sub>1</sub>, S<sub>2</sub>
B) S<sub>3</sub>, S<sub>4</sub>
C) Murmur
D) Physiologic splitting.
Q2) Which strategy is not always appropriate for pediatric physical examination?
A) Take the history in a quiet, private place.
B) Examine the child from head to toe.
C) Exhibit sensitivity to cultural needs and differences.
D) Perform frightening procedures last.
Q3) Which statement about performing a pediatric physical assessment is correct for a school-age child? Select all that apply.
A) Physical examinations proceed systematically from head to toe.
B) The physical examination should be done with parents in the waiting room.
C) Measurement of head circumference is obtained.
D) The physical examination is done only when the child is cooperative.
E) Remove clothing and have the child put on an examination gown.
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Chapter 34: Emergency Care of the Child
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18089
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most critical element of pediatric emergency care?
A) Airway management
B) Prevention of neurologic impairment
C) Maintaining adequate circulation
D) Supporting the child's family
Q2) Which nursing action facilitates care being provided to a child in an emergency situation?
A) Encourage the family to remain in the waiting room.
B) Include parents as partners in providing care for the child.
C) Always reassure the child and family.
D) Give explanations using professional terminology.
Q3) Automatic external defibrillators (AEDs)are becoming increasingly more available in community settings.They are very effective for correcting serious rhythm disturbances in adults; however,they are not recommended for use in children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: The Ill Child in the Hospital and Other Care Settings
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18090
Sample Questions
Q1) Having explanations for all procedures and selecting their own meals from hospital menus is an important coping mechanism for which age-group?
A) Toddlers
B) Preschoolers
C) School-age children
D) Adolescents.
Q2) What is the best explanation for a 2-year-old child who is quiet and withdrawn on the fourth day of a hospital admission?
A) The child is protesting her separation from her caregivers.
B) The child has adjusted to the hospitalization.
C) The child is experiencing the despair stage of separation.
D) The child has reached the stage of detachment.
Q3) Why is observation for 24 hours in an acute-care setting often appropriate for children?
A) Longer hospital stays are more costly.
B) Children become ill quickly and recover quickly.
C) Children feel less separation anxiety when hospitalized for 24 hours.
D) Families experience less disruption during short hospital stays.
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Chapter 36: The Child With a Chronic Condition or Terminal Illness
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18091
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the most appropriate response for the nurse when parents say,"Living with this disease is really hard; it's not fair."
A) "Tell me about what is hard for you."
B) "I know exactly how you must feel."
C) "I know a local support group for families."
D) "I am going to ask the grief counselor to meet with you."
Q2) The parents of a child born with disabilities ask the nurse for advice about discipline.The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that discipline is A) Essential for the child
B) Too difficult to implement with special-needs child
C) Not needed unless the child becomes problematic
D) Best achieved with punishment for misbehavior
Q3) What is a priority nursing diagnosis for the preschool child with chronic illness?
A) Risk for delayed growth and development related to chronic illness or disability
B) Chronic pain related to frequent injections
C) Anticipatory grieving related to impending death
D) Anxiety related to frequent hospitalizations
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Principles and Procedures for Nursing Care of Children
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18092
Sample Questions
Q1) What is critical for the nurse to know when using restraints on a child?
A) Use the least restrictive type of restraint.
B) Tie knots securely so they cannot be untied easily.
C) Secure the ties to the mattress or side rails.
D) Remove restraints every 4 hours to assess skin.
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the 5-year-old child in isolation because of immunosuppression?
A) Spiritual distress
B) Social isolation
C) Deficient diversional activity
D) Sleep deprivation
Q3) Which action by the nurse is appropriate when preparing a child for a procedure?
A) Discourage the child from crying during the procedure.
B) Use professional terms so the child will understand what is happening.
C) Give the child choices whenever possible.
D) Discourage the parents from staying in the room during the procedure.
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Chapter 38: Medication Administration and Safety for
Infants and Children
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18093
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best action for the nurse to take when giving medications to a 3-year-old child?
A) Tell the child to take the medication "right now."
B) Tell the child to take the medication or he will have to get a shot.
C) Allow the child to choose fruit punch or apple juice when giving the medication.
D) Tell the child that another child his age just took his medication like a "good boy."
Q2) What action is appropriate when using an EMLA cream before intravenous catheter insertion?
A) Rub a liberal amount of cream into the skin thoroughly.
B) Cover the skin with a gauze dressing after applying the cream.
C) Leave the cream on the skin for 1 to 2 hours before the procedure.
D) Use the smallest amount of cream necessary to numb the skin surface.
Q3) What is the most important nursing action before discharge for a mother who is apprehensive about giving her child insulin?
A) Review the side effects of insulin with the mother.
B) Have the mother verbalize that she knows the importance of follow-up care.
C) Observe the mother while she administers an insulin injection.
D) Help the mother devise a rotation schedule for injections.
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Chapter 39: Pain Management for Children
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18094
Sample Questions
Q1) Skin to skin holding of infants dressed only in a diaper,next to their mother's or father's chest is commonly known as __________ care.
Q2) When assessing pain in any child,the nurse should consider that
A) Any pain assessment tool can be used to assess pain in children.
B) Children as young as 1 year old use words to express pain.
C) The child's behavioral, physiologic, and verbal responses are valuable when assessing pain.
D) Pain assessment tools are minimally effective for communicating about pain.
Q3) Which statement indicates the nurse's lack of understanding about the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)therapy?
A) Children as young as 3 years old can effectively and successfully use a PCA pump.
B) Two registered nurses (RNs) are required to double-check the dosage and programmed administration of opioids.
C) The child should be carefully monitored for signs and symptoms of overmedication with opioids.
D) Naloxone (Narcan) should be readily available.
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Chapter 40: The Child With a Fluid and Electrolyte Alteration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18095
Sample Questions
Q1) Which diet would the nurse recommend to the mother of a child who is having mild diarrhea?
A) Rice, potatoes, yogurt, cereal, and cooked carrots
B) Bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast
C) Apple juice, hamburger, and salad
D) Whatever the child would like to eat.
Q2) The parents of a child with acid-base imbalance ask the nurse about mechanisms that regulate acid-base balance.Which statement by the nurse accurately explains the mechanisms regulating acid-base balance in children?
A) The respiratory, renal, and chemical-buffering systems
B) The kidneys balance acid; the lungs balance base
C) The cardiovascular and integumentary systems
D) The skin, kidney, and endocrine systems
Q3) What is the priority nursing intervention for a 6-month-old infant hospitalized with diarrhea and dehydration?
A) Estimating insensible fluid loss
B) Collecting urine for culture and sensitivity
C) Palpating the posterior fontanel
D) Measuring the infant's weight
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Page 42
Chapter 41: The Child With an Infectious Disease
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18096
Sample Questions
Q1) What discharge information should the nurse give to the parents of a male adolescent who has been diagnosed with the Epstein-Barr virus?
A) It is particularly important to protect the adolescent's head during physical activities.
B) The teen will feel like himself and be back to his usual routines in a week.
C) The treatment of the Epstein-Barr virus is prolonged bed rest, usually lasting several months.
D) Fatigue may persist, and the adolescent may need to increase school activities gradually.
Q2) A preschooler is diagnosed with helminthes.The child's mother is very upset and wants to know how her child could have contracted this illness.After obtaining a detailed history,the nurse identifies all possible transmission modes.Select all modes that apply.
A) Playing in the backyard sandbox
B) Not washing hands before eating
C) Placing hands in the mouth and nail biting
D) Skin-to-skin contact with other children
E) Scratches from a neighborhood cat
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Chapter 42: The Child With an Immunologic Alteration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18097
Sample Questions
Q1) It is important for the parents of a child who has had a severe allergic reaction to either peanuts or tree nuts to talk to their health care provider about whether the child should have medication available at school in case of an unanticipated exposure to nuts.Epinephrine is now available and easy to use in a device known as the
Q2) What is the drug of choice the nurse should administer in the acute treatment of anaphylaxis?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Histamine inhibitor (cimetidine)
C) Epinephrine
D) Albuterol.
Q3) What is the most common mode of transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)in the pediatric population?
A) Perinatal transmission
B) Sexual abuse
C) Blood transfusions
D) Poor handwashing
Q4) _________________________ is a chronic,multisystem,autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation of the connective tissue.
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Chapter 43: The Child With a Gastrointestinal Alteration
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 4-month-old infant has gastroesophageal reflux (GER)but is thriving without other complications.What should the nurse suggest to minimize reflux?
A) Place in Trendelenburg position after eating.
B) Thicken formula with rice cereal.
C) Give continuous nasogastric tube feedings.
D) Give larger, less frequent feedings.
Q2) A histamine-receptor antagonist such as cimetidine (Tagamet)or ranitidine (Zantac)is ordered for an infant with GER.The purpose of this is to
A) Prevent reflux.
B) Prevent hematemesis.
C) Reduce gastric acid production.
D) Increase gastric acid production.
Q3) Which assessment finding is the most significant to report to the physician for a child with cirrhosis?
A) Weight loss
B) Change in level of consciousness
C) Skin with pruritus
D) Black, foul-smelling stools
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Chapter 44: The Child With a Genitourinary Alteration
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18099
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing an infant for urinary tract infection (UTI).Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? Select all that apply.
A) Change in urine odor or color
B) Enuresis
C) Fever or hypothermia
D) Voiding urgency
E) Poor weight gain
Q2) Which statement is descriptive of renal transplantation in children?
A) It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years.
B) It is preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children.
C) Children can receive kidneys only from other children.
D) The decision for transplantation is difficult, since a relatively normal lifestyle is not possible.
Q3) Which statement by a school-age girl indicates the need for further teaching about the prevention of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
A) "I always wear cotton underwear."
B) "I really enjoy taking a bubble bath."
C) "I go to the bathroom every 3 to 4 hours."
D) "I drink four to six glasses of fluid every day."
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Child With a Respiratory Alteration
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18100
Sample Questions
Q1) For which problem should the child with chronic otitis media with effusion be evaluated?
A) Brain abscess
B) Meningitis
C) Hearing loss
D) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Q2) An infant's parents ask the nurse about preventing OM.What should be recommended?
A) Avoid tobacco smoke.
B) Use nasal decongestant.
C) Avoid children with OM.
D) Bottle feed or breastfeed in supine position.
Q3) The mother of a newborn asks the nurse what causes the baby to begin to breathe after delivery.What changes in the respiratory system stimulating respirations postnatally can the nurse explain to the mother? Select all that apply.
A) Low oxygen levels in the infant's blood
B) Rubbing the newborn with a towel or blanket
C) Surfactant, a special lubricant in the lungs
D) Increased blood flow to the infant's lungs
E) Cold environment in the delivery room
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Chapter 46: The Child With a Cardiovascular Alteration
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18101
Sample Questions
Q1) For what reason might a newborn infant with a cardiac defect,such as coarctation of the aorta,that results in a right-to-left shunt receive prostaglandin E<sub>1</sub>?
A) To decrease inflammation
B) To control pain
C) To decrease respirations
D) To improve oxygenation
Q2) The nurse caring for a child diagnosed with acute rheumatic fever should assess the child for
A) Sore throat
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Desquamation of the fingers and toes
D) Tender, warm, inflamed joints
Q3) The primary nursing intervention to prevent bacterial endocarditis is
A) Institute measures to prevent dental procedures.
B) Counsel parents of high-risk children about prophylactic antibiotics.
C) Observe children for complications, such as embolism and heart failure.
D) Encourage restricted mobility in susceptible children.
Q4) Elevated blood pressure in the blood vessels of the lungs is a condition known as PAH or _____________________
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Chapter 47: The Child With a Hematologic Alteration
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18102
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the nursing priorities for a child with sickle cell disease in vaso-occlusive crisis?
A) Administration of antibiotics and nebulizer treatments
B) Hydration and pain management
C) Blood transfusions and an increased calorie diet
D) School work and diversion
Q2) What is true about the genetic transmission of sickle cell disease?
A) Both parents must carry the sickle cell trait.
B) Both parents must have sickle cell disease.
C) One parent must have the sickle cell trait.
D) Sickle cell disease has no known pattern of inheritance.
Q3) What is the best response to a parent who asks the nurse whether her 5-month-old infant can have cow's milk?
A) "You need to wait until she is 8 months old and eating solids well."
B) "Yes, if you think that she will eat enough meat to get the iron she needs."
C) "Infants younger than 12 months need iron-rich formula to get the iron they need."
D) "Try it and see how she tolerates it."
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Page 49
Chapter 48: The Child With Cancer
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18103
Sample Questions
Q1) What is an appropriate nursing action before surgery when caring for a child diagnosed with a Wilms' tumor?
A) Limit fluid intake.
B) Do not palpate the abdomen.
C) Force oral fluids.
D) Palpate the abdomen every 4 hours.
Q2) A child with a history of fever of unknown origin,excessive bruising,lymphadenopathy,anemia,and fatigue is exhibiting symptoms most suggestive of
A) Ewing sarcoma
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Leukemia.
Q3) Children with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are at risk for complications resulting from tumor lysis syndrome (TLS).The nurse should assess for
A) Liver failure
B) CNS deficit
C) Kidney failure
D) Respiratory distress
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Child With an Alteration in Tissue Integrity
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18104
Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother calls the pediatrician's office concerned because her newborn has developed a salmon colored,irregularly shaped spot between the eyes.The lesion becomes darker when the baby is crying.This skin lesion is called a(n)____________.
Q2) Ringworm,frequently found in schoolchildren,is caused by a(n)
A) Virus
B) Fungus
C) Allergic reaction
D) Bacterial infection
Q3) What best describes a full-thickness (third-degree)burn?
A) Erythema and pain
B) Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
C) Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
D) Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone
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Chapter 50: The Child With a Musculoskeletal Alteration
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18105
Sample Questions
Q1) When providing education for the parents of a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy,the nurse plans to include
A) Testing all female children for the disease
B) Testing the father for the presence of the trait on the Y chromosome
C) Genetic counseling for all female children
D) Testing the parents to determine the carrier
Q2) Which interventions should the nurse implement to prevent complications of immobility for a child in skeletal traction? Select all that apply.
A) Reposition the child every 2 hours.
B) Avoid use of an egg-crate or sheepskin mattress.
C) Limit fluid intake.
D) Administer stool softeners as prescribed.
E) Encourage coughing and deep breathing.
Q3) A nurse knows that which exercise is best for a child with juvenile arthritis?
A) Jogging
B) Tennis
C) Gymnastics
D) Swimming in a heated pool
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Chapter 51: The Child With an Endocrine or Metabolic Alteration
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18106
Sample Questions
Q1) Which children admitted to the pediatric unit would the nurse monitor closely for development of SIADH? Select all who apply.
A) A newly diagnosed preschooler with type 1 diabetes
B) A school-age child returning from surgery for removal of a brain tumor
C) An infant with suspected meningitis
D) An adolescent with blunt abdominal trauma following a car accident
E) A school-age child with head trauma
Q2) What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents of a child with diabetes insipidus who is receiving DDAVP?
A) Increase the dosage of DDAVP as the urine specific gravity (SG) increases.
B) Give DDAVP only if urine output decreases.
C) The child should have free access to water and toilet facilities at school.
D) Cleanse skin before administering the transdermal patch.
Q3) What is the best time for the nurse to assess the peak effectiveness of subcutaneously administered Regular insulin?
A) Two hours after administration
B) Four hours after administration
C) Immediately after administration
D) Thirty minutes after administration
Page 53
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Chapter 52: The Child With a Neurologic Alteration
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18107
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of fractures describes traumatic separation of cranial sutures?
A) Basilar
B) Linear
C) Commuted
D) Depressed
Q2) Which neurologic diagnostic test gives a visualized horizontal and vertical cross section of the brain at any axis?
A) Nuclear brain scan
B) Echoencephalography
C) CT scan.
D) MRI
Q3) A child with a head injury sleeps unless aroused,and when aroused responds briefly before falling back to sleep.What should the nurse chart for this child's level of consciousness?
A) Disoriented
B) Obtunded
C) Lethargic
D) Stuporous
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54
Chapter 53: Psychosocial Problems in Children and Families
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18108
Sample Questions
Q1) In counseling an adolescent who is abusing alcohol,the nurse explains that alcohol abuse primarily affects which organ of the body?
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Lungs
Q2) A parent of a child with an anxiety disorder states,"I don't know how my child developed this problem." On what information should the nurse base a response?
A) Genetic factors, hormonal imbalances, and societal influences all contribute to the development of anxiety disorders in children.
B) Like many conditions affecting children, the etiology of anxiety disorders is unknown.
C) The majority of anxiety disorders have a clear pattern of genetic inheritance.
D) Dysfunctional family patterns are usually identified as the cause of an anxiety disorder.
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55
Chapter 54: The Child With a Developmental Disability
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18109
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is giving a parent information about autism.Which statement made by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) Autism is characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation.
B) The onset of autism usually occurs before 3 years of age.
C) Children with autism have imitation and gesturing skills.
D) Autism can be treated effectively with medication.
Q2) A nurse should plan to implement which interventions for a child admitted with inorganic failure to thrive? Select all that apply.
A) Observation of parent-child interactions
B) Assignment of different nurses to care for the child from day to day
C) Use of 28 calorie per ounce concentrated formulas
D) Administration of daily multivitamin supplements
E) Role modeling appropriate adult-child interactions
Q3) A child with autism hospitalized with asthma.The nurse should plan care so that the A) Parents' expectations are met.
B) Child's routine habits and preferences are maintained.
C) Child is supported through the autistic crisis.
D) Parents need not be at the hospital.
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56
Chapter 55: The Child With a Sensory Alteration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18110
Sample Questions
Q1) Discharge planning for an 8-year-old child with a patched eye after a corneal abrasion should include
A) Removing the patch after 8 hours for instillation of antibiotic ointment
B) Gently massaging the affected eye to prevent edema
C) Keeping the patch in place for 24 hours
D) Returning after 7 days of patching for reassessment
Q2) Parents of a 4-year-old child are concerned because he continues to stutter.What nursing intervention is correct?
A) Remind the parents that stuttering is normal in children younger than 10 years.
B) Inform the parents to have a speech evaluation performed if the stuttering continues beyond age 5 years.
C) Reinforce the fact that this common speech defect requires no treatment.
D) Tell the parents that speech problems are most treatable during the child's teen years.
Q3) Adequate hearing depends on intact auditory structures and quality of sound.Failure to hear at 16 to 25 dB would be categorized as a __________ hearing loss.
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