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Maternal and Child Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the health and development of newborns, infants, and children. This course covers the physiological, psychological, and social aspects influencing maternal and child health, emphasizing preventive care, health education, and the early identification and management of common health issues. Students will learn to provide family-centered care, support healthy lifestyles, and address the unique needs of various populations through evidence-based practice, cultural sensitivity, and interdisciplinary collaboration.
Recommended Textbook
Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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35 Chapters
1814 Verified Questions
1814 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
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Q1) Interventions are put into action
A)Assessment
B)Diagnosis
C)Outcomes identification
D)Planning
E)Implementation
F)Evaluation
Answer: E
Q2) Determines if the outcome was met
A)Assessment
B)Diagnosis
C)Outcomes identification
D)Planning
E)Implementation
F)Evaluation
Answer: F
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent of a school-age child tells the school nurse that the parents are going through a divorce. The child has not been doing well in school and sometimes has trouble sleeping. The nurse should recognize this as what?
A) Indicative of maladjustment
B) A common reaction to divorce
C) Suggestive of a lack of adequate parenting
D) An unusual response that indicates a need for referral
Answer: B
Q2) Incorporates levels of education, occupation, income, and access to resources
A)Race
B)Gender
C)Ethnicity
D)Social class
E)Socialization
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the characteristics of autosomal recessive inheritance. Which are true about these characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Most affected persons are males.
B) Males and females are equally affected.
C) All daughters of an affected male are carriers.
D) Carrier parents have a 25% chance of producing an affected child.
E) Carrier parents have a 50% chance of producing a carrier child in each pregnancy.
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) The inheritance of which is X-linked recessive?
A) Hemophilia A
B) Marfan syndrome
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Fragile X syndrome
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an otoscopic examination on an infant, in which direction is the pinna pulled?
A) Up and back
B) Up and forward
C) Down and back
D) Down and forward
Q2) The nurse needs to take the blood pressure of a small child. Of the cuffs available, one is too large and one is too small. The best nursing action is which?
A) Use the small cuff.
B) Use the large cuff.
C) Use either cuff using the palpation method.
D) Wait to take the blood pressure until a proper cuff can be located.
Q3) During examination of a toddler's extremities, the nurse notes that the child is bowlegged. The nurse should recognize that this finding is which?
A) Abnormal and requires further investigation
B) Abnormal unless it occurs in conjunction with knock-knee
C) Normal if the condition is unilateral or asymmetric
D) Normal because the lower back and leg muscles are not yet well developed
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cancer patient is experiencing neuropathic cancer pain. Which prescription should the nurse expect to be ordered to control anxiety?
A) Lorazepam (Ativan)
B) Gabapentin (Neurontin)
C) Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
D) Morphine sulfate (MS Contin)
Q2) Which are components of the FLACC scale? (Select all that apply.)
A) Color
B) Capillary refill time
C) Leg position
D) Facial expression
E) Activity
Q3) Biologically based
A)Vitamins
B)Massage
C)Reiki
D)Hypnosis
E)Homeopathy
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Q1) Lymphangitis (streaking) is frequently seen in what?
A) Cellulitis
B) Folliculitis
C) Impetigo contagiosa
D) Staphylococcal scalded skin
Q2) The clinic nurse is assessing a child with bacterial conjunctivitis (pink eye). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A) Itching
B) Swollen eyelids
C) Inflamed conjunctiva
D) Purulent eye drainage
E) Crusting of eyelids in the morning
Q3) An 18-month-old child has been diagnosed with pediculosis capitis (head lice). Which prescription should the nurse question if ordered for the child?
A) Malathion (Ovide)
B) Permethrin 1% (Nix)
C) Benzyl alcohol 5% lotion
D) Pyrethrin with piperonyl butoxide (RID)
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Q1) Which term describes irregular areas of deep blue pigmentation seen predominantly in infants of African, Asian, Native American, or Hispanic descent?
A) Acrocyanosis
B) Mongolian spots
C) Erythema toxicum
D) Harlequin color change
Q2) Which characteristic is representative of a full-term newborn's gastrointestinal tract?
A) Transit time is diminished.
B) Peristaltic waves are relatively slow.
C) Pancreatic amylase is overproduced.
D) Stomach capacity is very limited.
Q3) Which assessments are included in the Apgar scoring system? (Select all that apply.)
A) Heart rate
B) Muscle tone
C) Blood pressure
D) Blood glucose
E) Reflex irritability
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning care for an infant receiving calcium gluconate for treatment of hypocalcemia. Which route of administration should be used?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Intravenous
D) Intraosseous
Q2) What is an important nursing intervention for a full-term infant receiving phototherapy?
A) Observing for signs of dehydration
B) Using sunscreen to protect the infant's skin
C) Keeping the infant diapered to collect frequent stools
D) Informing the mother why breastfeeding must be discontinued
Q3) The nurse suspects a newborn has a fractured clavicle. What are signs of a fractured clavicle? (Select all that apply.)
A) An asymmetric Moro reflex
B) Limited use of the affected arm
C) Crying when the arm is moved
D) Muscles of the hand are paralyzed
E) The arm hangs limp alongside the body
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Q1) The home care nurse is visiting a 6-month-old infant with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). The nurse assesses the child for which signs of overhydration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Edema
B) Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L
C) Urine specific gravity of 1.008
D) Weight gain of 1 lb in 1 week
Q2) A preterm infant is being fed by gavage. What is an important consideration for this infant?
A) Warm the feeding to body temperature before feeding.
B) Feed the infant in an isolette to minimize handling.
C) Provide a pacifier for nonnutritive sucking during bolus feeding.
D) Do not allow the infant to have increased stress by becoming hungry.
Q3) Which is an important nursing action related to the use of tape or adhesives on premature neonates?
A) Avoid using tape and adhesives until skin is more mature.
B) Remove adhesives with water, mineral oil, or petrolatum.
C) Use scissors carefully to remove tape instead of pulling off the tape.
D) Use solvents to remove tape and adhesives instead of pulling on the skin.
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of parents at a community education program about introducing solid foods to their infants. Which recommendations should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Spoon feeding should be introduced after an entire milk feeding.
B) It is best to introduce a wide variety of foods during the first year.
C) As solid food consumption increases, the quantity of milk should decrease.
D) Introduction of low-calorie milk and food should be done by the end of the first year.
E) Introduction of citrus fruits, meats, and eggs should be delayed until after 6 months of age.
F) Each new food item should be introduced at 5- to 7-day intervals.
Q2) What information should be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities for this age?
A) Give large push-pull toys for kinetic stimulation.
B) Place a cradle gym across the crib to help develop fine motor skills.
C) Provide the child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills.
D) Provide a stick horse to develop gross motor coordination.
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Q1) A health care provider prescribes iron supplements (Fer-In-Sol), 1 mg/kg/day orally (PO). The infant weighs 5 kg. The medication label states: "Fer-In-Sol 25 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to one decimal place.
Q2) What are risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Postterm
B) Female gender
C) Low Apgar scores
D) Recent viral illness
E) Native American infants
Q3) A 12-month-old infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to be documented with this infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of strangers
B) Minimal smiling
C) Avoidance of eye contact
D) Meeting developmental milestones
E) Wide-eyed gaze and continual scan of the environment
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Q1) Parents are switching their toddler, who has met the weight requirement, from a rear-facing car seat to a forward-facing seat. The nurse should recommend the parents place the seat where in the car?
A) In the front passenger seat
B) In the middle of the rear seat
C) In the rear seat behind the driver
D) In the rear seat behind the passenger
Q2) Which statement is correct about toilet training?
A) Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
B) Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
C) Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
D) Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
Q3) A health care provider prescribes sodium fluoride drops, 0.25 mg PO daily. The medication label states: "Sodium fluoride drops 0.5 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.
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Q1) The nurse is explaining average weight gain during the preschool years to a group of parents. Which average weight gain should the nurse suggest to the parents?
A) 1 to 2 kg
B) 2 to 3 kg
C) 3 to 4 kg
D) 4 to 5 kg
Q2) The nurse is teaching parents of a 3-year-old child about language developmental milestones. What milestones should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Asks many questions
B) Names one or more colors
C) Repeats sentence of six syllables
D) Uses primarily "telegraphic" speech
E) Has a vocabulary of 1500 words or more
Q3) What characteristic best describes the language skills of a 3-year-old child?
A) Asks meanings of words
B) Follows directional commands
C) Can describe an object according to its composition
D) Talks incessantly regardless of whether anyone is listening
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Q1) The nurse is teaching parents of preschool-aged children strategies to prevent sexual abuse. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Back up a child's right to say no.
B) Don't take what your child says too seriously.
C) Take a second look at signals of potential danger.
D) Don't be too detailed about examples of sexual assault.
E) Remind children that even "nice" people sometimes do mean things.
Q2) The parents of a 7-year-old boy tell the nurse that lately he has been cruel to their family pets and actually caused physical harm. The nurse's recommendation should be based on remembering what?
A) This is an expected behavior at this age.
B) This is a warning sign of a serious problem.
C) This is harmless venting of anger and frustration.
D) This is common in children who are physically abused.
Q3) What statement is correct about young children who report sexual abuse?
A) They may exhibit various behavioral manifestations.
B) In more than half the cases, the child has fabricated the story.
C) Their stories should not be believed unless other evidence is apparent.
D) They should be able to retell the story the same way to another person.
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Q1) An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for "being bad." What should the nurse interpret this as?
A) A common belief at this age
B) Indicative of excessive family pressure
C) Faith that forms the basis for most religions
D) Suggestive of a failure to develop a conscience
Q2) A school-age child has begun to sleepwalk. What does the nurse advise the parents to perform?
A) Wake the child and help determine what is wrong.
B) Leave the child alone unless he or she is in danger of harming him- or herself or others.
C) Arrange for psychologic evaluation to identify the cause of stress.
D) Keep the child awake later in the evening to ensure sufficient tiredness for a full night of sleep.
Q3) What is the role of the peer group in the life of school-age children?
A) Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles
B) Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility
C) Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time
D) Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents
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Q1) The emergency department nurse is admitting a child with a temperature of 35° C (95° F). What physical effects of hypothermia should the nurse expect to observe in this child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bradycardia
B) Vigorous shivering
C) Decreased respiratory rate
D) Decreased intestinal motility
E) Task performance is impaired
Q2) Excessive sensitiveness
A)Pruritus
B)Anesthesia
C)Hyperesthesia
D)Hypesthesia
E)Paresthesia
Q3) Wound with a relatively small opening compared with the depth
A)Abrasion
B)Avulsion
C)Laceration
D)Incision
E)Puncture
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Q1) What aspects of cognition develop during adolescence?
A) Ability to see things from the point of view of another
B) Capability of using a future time perspective
C) Capability of placing things in a sensible and logical order
D) Progress from making judgments based on what they see to making judgments based on what they reason
Q2) The school nurse is teaching a class on injury prevention. What should be included when discussing firearms?
A) Adolescents are too young to use guns properly for hunting.
B) Gun carrying among adolescents is on the rise, primarily among inner-city youth.
C) Nonpowder guns (air rifles, BB guns) are a relatively safe alternative to powder guns.
D) Adolescence is the peak age for being a victim or offender in the case of injury involving a firearm.
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Q1) An adolescent girl asks the school nurse for advice because she has dysmenorrhea. She says that a friend recommended she try an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). The nurse's response should be based on what?
A) Hormone therapy is necessary for the treatment of dysmenorrhea.
B) Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for the treatment of dysmenorrhea.
C) Over-the-counter NSAIDs are rarely strong enough to provide adequate pain relief.
D) NSAIDs are effective because they inhibit prostaglandins, leading to reduction in uterine activity.
Q2) The nurse is teaching an adolescent about the use of tretinoin (Retin-A). What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Begin with a pea-sized dot of medication.
B) Apply additional medication to the throat.
C) Use sunscreen daily and avoid the sun when possible.
D) Divide the medication into the three main areas of the face.
E) Apply the medication immediately after washing the face.
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Q1) A long-lasting or recurrent condition that interferes with daily functioning that persists for more than 3 months
A)Chronic illness
B)Congenital disability
C)Developmental disability
D)Impairment
E)Special needs
Q2) What finding by the nurse is most characteristic of chronic sorrow?
A) Lack of acceptance of child's limitation
B) Lack of available support to prevent sorrow
C) Periods of intensified sorrow when experiencing anger and guilt
D) Periods of intensified sorrow at certain landmarks of the child's development
Q3) The nurse is assessing coping behaviors of a family with a child with a chronic illness. What indicates approach coping behaviors? (Select all that apply.)
A) Plans realistically for the future
B) Verbalizes possible loss of the child
C) Uses magical thinking and fantasy
D) Realistically perceives the child's condition
E) Does not share the burden of the disorder with others
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Q1) The nurse has attended a professional development program about palliative care for the pediatric population. What statement by the nurse should indicate a correct understanding of the program?
A) "Palliative care provides interventions that hasten death."
B) "Palliative care promotes the optimal functioning and quality of life."
C) "Palliative care does not provide pain and symptom management like hospice care."
D) "Palliative care is not well received in hospitals that provide end-of-life care for children."
Q2) What are common respiratory symptoms dying children experience? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cough
B) Eupnea
C) Wheezing
D) Shortness of breath
E) Decrease in secretions
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Q1) The nurse is discussing sexuality with the parents of an adolescent girl who has a moderate cognitive impairment. What factor should the nurse consider when dealing with this issue?
A) Sterilization is recommended for any adolescent with cognitive impairment.
B) Sexual drive and interest are very limited in individuals with cognitive impairment.
C) Individuals with cognitive impairment need a well-defined, concrete code of sexual conduct.
D) Sexual intercourse rarely occurs unless the individual with cognitive impairment is sexually abused.
Q2) Reduced visual acuity in one eye
A)Myopia
B)Hyperopia
C)Astigmatism
D)Anisometropia
E)Amblyopia
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Q1) The mother of a 7-month-old infant newly diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is rooming in with her infant. She is breastfeeding and provides all the care except for the medication administration. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Ensuring that the mother has time away from the infant
B) Making sure the mother is providing all of the infant's care
C) Determining whether other family members can provide the necessary care so the mother can rest
D) Contacting the social worker because of the mother's interference with the nursing care
Q2) The nurse is assessing a family's use of complementary medicine practices. What practices are classified as mind-body control therapies? (Select all that apply.)
A) Relaxation
B) Acupuncture
C) Prayer therapy
D) Guided imagery
E) Herbal medicine
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Q1) What disease processes require contact isolation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Rotavirus
B) Hepatitis A
C) Streptococcal pharyngitis
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia
E) Respiratory syncytial virus
Q2) What play activities should the nurse implement to encourage fluid intake for a child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Have a tea party.
B) Use a crazy straw.
C) Cut gelatin into fun shapes.
D) Place liquid in large Styrofoam cups.
E) Make ice pops using the child's favorite juice.
Q3) What is the best method to verify the placement of a nasogastric tube before each use?
A) Radiologic confirmation
B) Auscultation of injected air
C) Aspiration of stomach contents
D) Verification of tape placement on tube
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Q1) What sign is one of the first to indicate overwhelming sepsis in a child with burn injuries?
A) Seizures
B) Bradycardia
C) Disorientation
D) Decreased blood pressure
Q2) What is an approximate method of estimating output for a child who is not toilet trained?
A) Have parents estimate output.
B) Weigh diapers after each void.
C) Place a urine collection device on the child.
D) Have the child sit on a potty chair 30 minutes after eating.
Q3) What physiologic state(s) produces the clinical manifestations of nervous system stimulation and excitement, such as overexcitability, nervousness, and tetany?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic and respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with acute renal failure. What laboratory findings should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Elevated blood urea nitrogen level
E) Decreased plasma creatinine level
Q2) What statement is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis compared with hemodialysis?
A) Protein loss is less extensive.
B) Dietary limitations are not necessary.
C) It is easy to learn and safe to perform.
D) It is needed less frequently than hemodialysis.
Q3) What diagnostic test allows visualization of renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes?
A) Renal ultrasonography
B) Computed tomography
C) Intravenous pyelography
D) Voiding cystourethrography
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Q1) What therapeutic intervention provides the best chance of survival for a child with cirrhosis?
A) Nutritional support
B) Liver transplantation
C) Blood component therapy
D) Treatment with corticosteroids
Q2) What signs or symptoms are most commonly associated with the prodromal phase of acute viral hepatitis?
A) Bruising and lethargy
B) Anorexia and malaise
C) Fatigability and jaundice
D) Dark urine and pale stools
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child with Meckel diverticulum. What type of stool does the nurse expect to observe?
A) Steatorrhea
B) Clay colored
C) Currant jelly-like
D) Loose stools with undigested food
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child on oxygen being delivered by a nasal cannula. What is the advantage of delivering oxygen in this manner?
A) It can deliver mist if desired.
B) It is less likely to cause abdominal distention.
C) The child is able to eat and talk while getting oxygen.
D) This method can deliver a higher concentration of oxygen.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with a tracheostomy. What clinical manifestation should the nurse recognize as an early sign of impending respiratory distress or failure?
A) Cyanosis
B) Restlessness
C) Audible stridor
D) Crowing respirations
Q3) When is bronchial (postural) drainage generally performed?
A) Before meals and at bedtime
B) Right before all aerosol therapy
C) Immediately on arising and at bedtime
D) Thirty minutes after meals and at bedtime
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Q1) What tests aid in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) Sweat test, stool for fat, chest radiography
B) Sweat test, bronchoscopy, duodenal fluid analysis
C) Sweat test, stool for trypsin, biopsy of intestinal mucosa
D) Stool for fat, gastric contents for hydrochloride, radiography
Q2) What condition is the leading cause of chronic illness in children?
A) Asthma
B) Pertussis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q3) Children who are taking long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed frequently for what potential complication?
A) Cough
B) Osteoporosis
C) Slowed growth
D) Cushing syndrome
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Q1) The nurse is teaching parents about administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What instructions should the nurse tell the parents?
A) If the child vomits, give another dose.
B) Give the medication at regular intervals.
C) If a dose is missed, give a give an extra dose.
D) Give the medication mixed with the child's formula.
Q2) The physician suggests that surgery be performed for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) to prevent which complication?
A) Hypoxemia
B) Right-to-left shunt of blood
C) Decreased workload on the left side of the heart
D) Pulmonary vascular congestion
Q3) The test that provides the most reliable evidence of recent streptococcal infection is which?
A) Throat culture
B) Mantoux test
C) Antistreptolysin O test
D) Elevation of liver enzymes
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Q1) A health care provider prescribes iron (Niferex) elixir, 2 mg/kg orally daily for a preterm infant. The infant weighs 4 kg. The medication label states: "Niferex 100 mg/5 ml."
The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.
Q2) The parents of a child with sickle cell anemia (SCA) are concerned about subsequent children having the disease. What statement most accurately reflects inheritance of SCA?
A) SCA is not inherited.
B) All siblings will have SCA.
C) Each sibling has a 25% chance of having SCA.
D) There is a 50% chance of siblings having SCA.
Q3) A child with sickle cell anemia (SCA) develops severe chest and back pain, fever, a cough, and dyspnea. What should be the first action by the nurse?
A) Administer 100% oxygen to relieve hypoxia.
B) Notify the practitioner because chest syndrome is suspected.
C) Infuse intravenous antibiotics as soon as cultures are obtained.
D) Give ordered pain medication to relieve symptoms of pain episode.
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Q1) Postoperative positioning for a child who has had a medulloblastoma brain tumor (infratentorial) removed should be which?
A) Trendelenburg
B) Head of bed elevated above heart level
C) Flat on operative side with pillows behind the head
D) Flat, on either side with pillows behind the back
Q2) One pediatric oncologic emergency is acute tumor lysis syndrome. Symptoms that this may be occurring include what?
A) Muscle cramps and tetany
B) Respiratory distress and cyanosis
C) Thrombocytopenia and sepsis
D) Upper extremity edema and neck vein distension
Q3) What guidelines should the nurse follow when handling chemotherapeutic agents?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Use clean technique.
B) Prepare medications in a safety cabinet.
C) Wear gloves designed for handling chemotherapy.
D) Wear face and eye protection when splashing is possible.
E) Discard gloves and protective clothing in a special container.
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Q1) What statement is descriptive of a concussion?
A) Petechial hemorrhages cause amnesia.
B) Visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue occur.
C) It is a transient and reversible neuronal dysfunction.
D) It is a slight lesion that develops remote from the site of trauma.
Q2) A child is admitted for revision of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is a common reason for elective revision of this shunt?
A) Meningitis
B) Gastrointestinal upset
C) Hydrocephalus resolution
D) Growth of the child since the initial shunting
Q3) If an intramuscular (IM) injection is administered to a child who has Reye syndrome, the nurse should monitor for what?
A) Bleeding
B) Infection
C) Poor absorption
D) Itching at the injection site
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to assist with a growth hormone provocative test for a child with short stature. The nurse recognizes that which pharmacologics should be used to provoke the release of growth hormone (GH)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Larodopa (levodopa)
B) Clonidine (Catapres)
C) Propranolol (Inderal)
D) Cortisone (hydrocortisone)
E) Biosynthetic growth hormone
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child after a parathyroidectomy. What medication should the nurse have available if hypocalcemia occurs?
A) Insulin
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Propylthiouracil (PTU)
D) Cortisone (hydrocortisone)
Q3) What clinical manifestation occurs with hypoglycemia?
A) Lethargy
B) Confusion
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Weakness and dizziness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crosswise at right angles to the long axis of the bone
A)Transverse
B)Oblique
C)Spiral
D)Comminuted
Q2) The middle school nurse is speaking to parents about prevention of injuries as a goal of the physical education program. How should the goal be achieved?
A) Use of protective equipment at the family's discretion
B) Education of adults to recognize signs that indicate a risk for injury
C) Sports medicine program to help student athletes work through overuse injuries
D) Arrangements for multiple sports to use same athletic fields to accommodate more children
Q3) What should the nurse plan for an immobilized child in cervical traction to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Elevate the child's legs.
B) Place a foot cradle on the bed.
C) Place a pillow under the child's knees.
D) Assist the child to dorsiflex the feet and rotate the ankles.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old child with a lower motor neuron syndrome. What clinical manifestations of a lower motor neuron syndrome should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Loss of hair
B) Babinski reflex present
C) Skin and tissue changes
D) Marked atrophy of atonic muscle
E) Hyperreflexia with tendon reflexes exaggerated
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with tetanus during the acute phase. What should the nurse plan in the care for this child?
A) Playing music on a radio
B) Giving frequent back rubs
C) Providing bright lighting in the room
D) Clustering nursing care to limit distractions
Q3) What is the rationale for orthopedic surgery for a child with cerebral palsy?
A) To cure spasticity
B) To improve function
C) For cosmetic purposes
D) To prevent the need of physical therapy
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