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Maternal and Child Health Nursing is a specialized field of nursing that focuses on the care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the health and well-being of infants and children. The course explores key concepts such as prenatal care, labor and delivery management, newborn assessment, immunizations, child growth and development, common pediatric illnesses, and strategies for promoting family-centered care. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, cultural competence, and effective communication to ensure optimal outcomes for mothers, children, and families. Students also examine current public health issues affecting maternal and child health and gain practical skills through clinical experiences and case studies.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal and Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Marcia L London
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Q1) The nurse manager is considering adopting clinical practice guidelines to care for clients experiencing abruptio placentae. What advantages of these guidelines should the manager discuss with the nursing staff? Select all that apply.
A) Limit the cost of care.
B) Help evaluate the effectiveness of care.
C) Reduce the number of nurses needed to provide care.
D) Reduce variations when caring for clients with the same health problem.
E) Provide sequence and timing of interventions to help achieve expected client outcomes.
Answer: A,B,D,E
Q2) What is the major focus of the nurse practitioner (NP)?
A) Leadership
B) Tertiary prevention
C) Physical and psychosocial clinical assessment
D) Independent care of the high-risk, pregnant client
Answer: C
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Q1) The nurse is comparing several different families' developmental stages. What serves as a marker for a family's developmental stage according to Duvall?
A) The father's age
B) The mother's age
C) The oldest child's age
D) The youngest child's age
Answer: C
Q2) A client says that she is taking a preparation that enhances the symptoms of her illness. Which type of complementary and alternative therapy is this client using?
A) Naturopathy
B) Homeopathy
C) Herbal therapy
D) Chinese medicine

Answer: B
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Q1) A family is scheduled for a genetic consultation. What should the nurse explain to the family about this appointment? Select all that apply.
A) A diagnosis will be made.
B) Photographs may be taken.
C) An interview will be conducted.
D) A geneticist will examine the child.
E) The appointment can last several hours.
Answer: B,C,D,E
Q2) After genetic testing, a patient is suspected of having mitochondrial gene alteration. When reviewing the test result with the patient, which body systems are noted as being affected by this alteration? Select all that apply.
A) Brain
B) Renal
C) Cardiac
D) Genitourinary
E) Musculoskeletal

Answer: A,C,E
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Q1) A pregnant client asks, "What's the difference between the true pelvis and the false pelvis?" How should the nurse respond?
A) "The false pelvis helps support the weight of the pregnant uterus."
B) "The false pelvis consists of the inlet, the pelvic cavity, and the outlet."
C) "The true pelvis does not affect fetal passage during labor and childbirth."
D) "The true pelvis helps direct the presenting fetal part into the false pelvis."
Q2) A prenatal client states, "The doctor said he might have to cut my cervix so the baby can get out during delivery." Based upon this statement, what structure should the nurse define when teaching about an episiotomy?
A) Mons pubis
B) Labia majora
C) Perineal body
D) Vaginal vestibule
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Q1) When a woman who has been raped is admitted to the emergency department, which nursing intervention has priority?
A) Contact family members.
B) Create a safe, secure atmosphere for the woman.
C) Assure the woman that everything will be all right.
D) Explain exactly what will need to be done to preserve legal evidence.
Q2) A 63-year-old female client requests information about complementary and alternative therapies that promote wellness during menopause. Which therapy should the nurse recommend?
A) Soy for reducing insomnia symptoms
B) Non-weight-bearing exercise, such as swimming
C) Calcium intake of 600 mg per day to help prevent osteoporosis
D) Increased consumption of phytoestrogens for women with a history of endometriosis or fibroids
Q3) Which client is not a good candidate for Depo-Provera (DMPA)?
A) One with a vaginal prolapse
B) One who weighs 200 pounds
C) One who wishes to breastfeed
D) One who wishes to get pregnant within 3 months
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Q1) A client is diagnosed with a uterine prolapse. Which treatments should the nurse prepare to discuss with this client? Select all that apply.
A) Hysterectomy
B) Kegel exercises
C) Vaginal pessary
D) Topical estrogen
E) Systemic estrogen
Q2) The nurse is teaching a class to women who were recently diagnosed with benign breast disease (BBD), commonly known as fibrocystic breast disease. One of the participants reports increased swelling, pain, and pressure in her breasts just before menstruation. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "It's best to make an appointment with an oncologist."
B) "The pain may be caused by thinning of the normal breast tissue."
C) "Consider asking your healthcare provider about adding a mild diuretic to your regimen."
D) "Breast swelling and pressure are expected symptoms, but pain is abnormal and should be evaluated by your physician."
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Q1) The nurse is conducting an early pregnancy class for a group of pregnant women. Which statement indicates a need for further education about the placenta?
A) "It develops and grows larger until about 20 weeks' gestation."
B) "It floats in the amniotic sac and filters waste products from the fetus."
C) "It creates hormones and enzymes that are necessary during pregnancy."
D) "It ages and becomes less permeable during the last month of pregnancy."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the structures of the developing fetus with a group of pregnant clients. What should the nurse emphasize about the function of the placenta? Select all that apply.
A) It produces hormones.
B) It produces glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids.
C) It maintains fetal respiration, nutrition, and excretion.
D) It provides a circulatory pathway from the chorionic villi to the embryo.
E) It contains a specialized mucoid connective tissue known as Wharton jelly.
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Q1) A client at 30 weeks' gestation is tearful at the time of her follow-up visit. She tells the prenatal clinic nurse that she is excited to finally become a mother and that she has been thinking about what kind of parent she will be. However, she is upset because her mother has told her that she does not want to be a grandmother because she does not feel old enough. Meanwhile, the client's husband has said that the pregnancy does not feel real to him yet, and that he will become excited when the baby is actually here. What is the most likely explanation for what is happening within this family?
A) Family members are adjusting to the role change at their own pace.
B) Her mother is rejecting the role of grandparent and will not help out.
C) Her husband will not attach with this child and will not be a good father.
D) The client is not progressing through the developmental tasks of pregnancy.
Q2) The nurse is preparing an educational program on the different types of pregnancy tests. What should the nurse include about the -subunit radioimmunoassay (RIA) test?
Select all that apply.
A) It causes a color change.
B) It takes 2 to 3 hours to perform.
C) It is able to detect trophoblastic disease.
D) It is able to detect an ectopic pregnancy.
E) It is the same as an over-the-counter test.
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Q1) The client has delivered her first child at 39 weeks. How should the nurse document this type of delivery?
A) Preterm
B) Postterm
C) Full Term
D) Near term
Q2) The pregnant client's prenatal record indicates that she is a gravida 4 para 2022. How should the nurse interpret these data about the client?
A) Is pro-abortion
B) Has four living children
C) Delivered two term infants
D) Delivered two infants preterm
Q3) The nurse explains to a pregnant woman that her antepartum assessment will include assessment of clinical pelvimetry. Which client response reflects understanding of the reason for this test?
A) "It will help me understand how big a baby I can have."
B) "It will be used to screen for gestational diabetes."
C) "It will be used to find out whether my baby has a chromosomal abnormality."
D) "It will help tell whether my pelvis is big enough to deliver my baby vaginally."
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Q1) A client in the third trimester of pregnancy reports working 8 hours a day as a cashier and stands when at work. What response by the nurse is the most appropriate?
A) "No problem. Your baby will be fine."
B) "Do you get regular breaks for eating?"
C) "Your risk of preterm labor is higher."
D) "Standing might increase ankle swelling."
Q2) The nurse is preparing a class for expectant fathers. Which information should the nurse include?
A) Siblings adjust readily to the new baby.
B) Sexual activity is safe for normal pregnancy.
C) The expectant mother decides the feeding method.
D) Fathers are expected to be involved in labor and birth.
Q3) An expectant couple is determining their compatibility with a healthcare provider. Which question should the nurse encourage the couple to ask first?
A) "Can my children attend the birth?"
B) "What is your philosophy of birth?"
C) "If I have a cesarean birth, can my husband attend?"
D) "What percentage of your clients have episiotomies?"
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a prenatal class about infant feeding methods to include maternal nutritional requirements for breastfeeding and formula-feeding. What statement should the nurse include?
A) "Formula-feeding mothers need a high protein intake to avoid fatigue."
B) "Producing breast milk requires calories, but any source of food is fine."
C) "Breastfeeding requires a continued high intake of protein and calcium."
D) "Formula-feeding mothers should protect their health with a lot of calcium."
Q2) Which statement is best to include when teaching a pregnant adolescent about nutritional needs?
A) "You just need to pay attention to what you eat now."
B) "Folic acid intake is the key to having a healthy baby."
C) "It is important eat iron-rich foods like meat every day."
D) "Calcium and milk aren't needed until the third trimester."
Q3) A client who became pregnant at a weight of 60 kg and a BMI of 16 has gained 4 kg at the end of the 5th gestational month. How many more pounds of weight should the nurse counsel this client to gain to achieve the least amount of weight that an underweight person should gain while pregnant?
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Q1) Which approach to planning educational activities is best suited to a group of pregnant adolescents?
A) Primarily using visual-based presentations during teaching
B) Combining teaching for adolescent mothers of all ages as one group
C) Respecting confidentiality and building trust by avoiding the topics of drug and alcohol abuse
D) Avoiding the inclusion of handouts with bulleted items and white space as part of the teaching
Q2) The nurse who is counseling a group of middle school girls about how to prevent pregnancy should include which statement?
A) "Although condom use is growing, the rate of STIs among teens is rising."
B) "It has become far less acceptable to give birth during your teenage years than it used to be."
C) "You have learned enough from your friends and families to understand how pregnancy occurs."
D) "Although sexuality is common in the media, peer pressure to have sex is not an important factor."
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Q1) What should the nurse do when assisting a pregnant client who is having an abdominal ultrasound to determine fetal age?
A) Has the woman empty her bladder before the test begins
B) Assists the woman into a supine position on the examining table
C) Asks the woman to sign an operative consent form prior to the procedure
D) Instructs the woman to eat a fat-free meal 2 hours before the scheduled test time
Q2) A woman at 28 weeks' gestation reports not feeling the baby move for over 30 minutes. How should the nurse respond first?
A) "When did you eat last?"
B) "Have you been smoking?"
C) "Your baby might be asleep."
D) "You need to go to the emergency room immediately for further evaluation."
Q3) The nurse is responding to phone calls. Which call should the nurse return first?
A) 29 weeks' gestation, reports increased fetal movement
B) 37 weeks' gestation, reports no fetal movement for 24 hours
C) 32 weeks' gestation, reports decreased fetal movement for 2 days
D) 35 weeks' gestation, reports decreased fetal movement for 4 hours
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Q1) A pregnant client who uses cocaine and ecstasy on a regular basis asks why ecstasy should not be used during pregnancy. What should the nurse explain about this drug?
A) "It produces intrauterine growth restriction and meconium aspiration."
B) "It leads to deficiencies of thiamine and folic acid, which help the baby develop."
C) "It produces babies with small heads and short bodies with brain function alterations."
D) "It can cause a high fever in you if high doses are taken and therefore cause the baby harm."
Q2) During the first antepartal visit, a client who is at 10 weeks' gestation learns of being HIV positive. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the plan of care both during the pregnancy and postpartally?
A) "I should not breastfeed my baby."
B) "When my baby is 2 months old, he or she will be tested for HIV."
C) "If I have a cesarean section, there is an increased risk that my HIV will be passed to my baby."
D) "I am supposed to take highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), but only during the first trimester."
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Q1) The nurse receives the following report on a client who delivered 36 hours ago: para 1, rubella immune, A-negative, antibody screen negative, newborn B-positive, Coombs negative, discharge orders are written for both mother and newborn. What should be the priority action by the nurse?
A) Administer rubella vaccine.
B) Ask if she is breast- or bottlefeeding.
C) Determine if RhoGAM has been given.
D) Discuss the discharge education with the client.
Q2) A pregnant woman is being excavated from the back seat of a motor vehicle after a crash. In which order should this victim receive emergency care?
A) Apply oxygen.
B) Establish an airway.
C) Monitor fetal activity.
D) Position on the left side.
E) Administer intravenous fluids.
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Q1) The primiparous client at 40 weeks' gestation reports to the nurse that she has had increased pelvic pressure and increased urinary frequency. Which response by the nurse is best?
A) "Come in for an appointment today and we will check everything out."
B) "Unless you have pain with urination, we do not need to worry about it."
C) "This might indicate that the baby is no longer in a head down position."
D) "These symptoms usually mean the baby's head has descended further."
Q2) The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a prenatal class about facilitating the progress of labor. Which pain response should the nurse identify as most likely to impede progress in labor?
A) Muscle tension
B) Increased pulse
C) Increased respirations
D) Elevated blood pressure
Q3) Which client requires immediate intervention by the labor and delivery nurse?
A) Primipara in active labor with urine output of 100 mL/hour
B) Primipara that delivered 1 hour ago with white blood cells (WBCs) of 50,000
C) Multipara at 8 cm, systolic blood pressure has increased 35 mm Hg
D) Multipara at 5 cm with a respiratory rate of 22 between contractions
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to assess the fetus of a laboring client. Which should the nurse perform first?
A) Place the client into a left lateral position.
B) Perform the Leopold maneuver to determine fetal position.
C) Dry the maternal abdomen before using the Doppler.
D) Count the fetal heart rate for 30 seconds and multiply by 2.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a high-risk client in the second stage of labor. After which actions should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate? Select all that apply.
A) Vaginal examination
B) Urinary catheterization
C) Ingestion of clear liquids
D) Administration of pain medication
E) Change in oxytocin administration
Q3) The nurse is admitting a client to the labor and delivery unit. Which aspect of the history requires notifying the healthcare provider?
A) Blood pressure 120/88
B) Dark red vaginal bleeding
C) History of domestic abuse
D) Father is a carrier of sickle-cell trait
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Q1) Five minutes after delivery, the neonate's body is pink with blue extremities. The heart rate is
150) The infant demonstrates a vigorous cry and good respiratory effort, and is actively moving. His elbows and hips are flexed, with his knees positioned up toward his abdomen. When the nurse flicks the soles of his feet, the neonate withdraws his leg. Which nursing interventions are appropriate?
A) Rescue breathing and stimulation
B) Stimulation and resuscitative efforts
C) Nasopharyngeal suctioning and blow-by oxygen
D) Oxygen via face mask and endotracheal suctioning
Q2) The nurse is orienting a new graduate nurse to the labor and birth unit. Which statement indicates that teaching about a client admission has been effective?"
A) "A vaginal examination is performed if delivery appears to be imminent."
B) "Her prenatal record is reviewed for indications of domestic abuse."
C) "She will be positioned supine to facilitate a normal blood pressure."
D) "A urine specimen is obtained by catheter to check for protein and ketones."
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Q1) A client in labor received a dose of meperidine (Demerol) for pain control. Which assessment findings should the nurse suspect are adverse effects of this medication? Select all that apply.
A) Nausea
B) Pruritus
C) Sedation
D) Bradycardia
E) Hypotension
Q2) A client in labor wants to have a medication-free birth. What should the nurse include when discussing alternatives to pain medication with this client?
A) Emphasize that no medication will be given.
B) Review that the use of medications allows for rest and less fatigue.
C) Explain that pain relief will allow a more enjoyable birth experience.
D) Summarize how maternal pain and stress can have a more adverse effect on the fetus than would a small amount of analgesia.
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Q1) A pregnant client is diagnosed with central abruptio placentae. What can the nurse infer about the client's condition?
A) The slight separation of the client's placenta from the uterine wall will not produce any bleeding.
B) The total separation of the client's placenta from the uterine wall will lead to massive hemorrhage.
C) Blood is trapped between the client's placenta and the uterine wall, and there may be concealed bleeding.
D) Blood is passing between the fetal membranes and the client's uterine wall, which will lead to some vaginal bleeding.
Q2) A client at 30 weeks' gestation is experiencing painless late vaginal bleeding. What should the nurse expect in the management of this client?
A) Assessing blood pressure every 2 hours
B) Evaluating the fetal heart rate with an internal monitor
C) Limiting vaginal examinations to only one per 24-hour period
D) Monitoring for blood loss, pain, and uterine contractibility
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Q1) What should the nurse anticipate the labor pattern for a fetal occiput posterior position to be?
A) Precipitous
B) Rapid during transition
C) Shorter than average during the latent phase
D) Prolonged with regard to the overall length of labor
Q2) A client who delivered 30 minutes ago is being prepared for manual removal of the placenta. What should the nurse complete as a priority?
A) Bottle-feed the infant.
B) Send the placenta to pathology.
C) Start an IV of lactated Ringer solution.
D) Apply antiembolism stockings.
Q3) The multiparous client at 33 weeks has experienced an intrauterine fetal demise. What finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Temperature 99°F
B) Fibrinogen level 50 mg/dL
C) Platelet count 210,000/cmm
D) Family refusing fetal autopsy
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a pregnant client being considered for cervical ripening. Which data indicate that the order for misoprostol (Cytotec) should be reconsidered? Select all that apply.
A) Current fetal heart rate is tachycardic.
B) Client had one cesarean live birth 3 years ago.
C) Uterine contractions are occurring every 2 minutes.
D) Client has 2+ pedal edema and elevated blood pressure.
E) There is a history of placenta previa with one previous pregnancy.
Q2) A client in the midst of labor and delivery of twins is being considered for a podalic version. What should the nurse assess in order for this version to be considered? Select all that apply.
A) Previous cesarean birth
B) Second fetus does not descend
C) Premature rupture of membranes
D) Presence of third-trimester bleeding
E) Second fetus heart rate nonreassuring
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Q1) The new father asks what his baby will experience while sleeping and awake. How should the nurse respond?
A) "Babies have several sleep and alert states. Keep watching and you will notice them."
B) "Newborns have two stages of sleep: deep or quiet sleep and rapid eye movement sleep."
C) "You may have noticed that your child was in an alert awake state for an hour after his birth."
D) "Birth is hard work for babies; it takes them a week or 2 to recover and become more awake."
Q2) The nurse is planning the care of a 1-day-old infant. Which intervention would protect the newborn from heat loss by convection?
A) Drying the newborn thoroughly
B) Prewarming the examination table
C) Removing wet linens from the isolette
D) Placing the newborn away from air currents
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Q1) The nurse is making an initial assessment of a newborn. Which data would be considered normal? 1. Chest circumference 30 cm, head circumference 29 cm
A) Chest circumference 38 cm, head circumference 31.5 cm
B) Chest circumference 32.5 cm, head circumference 38 cm
C) Chest circumference 31.5 cm, head circumference 33.5 cm
Q2) A new mother is concerned because the anterior fontanelle swells when the newborn cries. What normal findings should the nurse include when teaching the new mother about this concern? Select all that apply.
A) The fontanelles might bulge.
B) The fontanelles might be depressed.
C) The fontanelles can swell with crying.
D) The fontanelles can pulsate with the heartbeat.
E) The fontanelles can swell when stool is passed.
Q3) The nurse wants to demonstrate to a new family their infant's individuality. Which assessment tool should the nurse use?
A) Ortolani maneuver
B) Ballard Maturity Scale
C) Dubowitz Gestational Age Scale
D) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a 2-day-old male infant that has been circumcised. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) The umbilical cord clamp has been removed.
B) The mother is ready to breastfeed on demand.
C) The infant maintains temperature when wrapped in a blanket.
D) The infant has had a dry diaper since the circumcision procedure.
Q2) Which information is least likely recorded as a part of the initial newborn assessment?
A) Presence or absence of meconium-stained fluid
B) Blood draw for phenylketonuria (PKU) screening
C) Resuscitative measures required in the birthing area
D) Parents' desires regarding circumcision for a male infant
Q3) A new adolescent mother is concerned about being able to properly care for the newborn at home because her mother thinks she is too young. What should the nurse say to this client?
A) "You are very young, and parenting will be a challenge for you."
B) "Your mother was probably right. Be very careful with your baby."
C) "Mothers have instincts that kick in when they get their babies home."
D) "We can give the baby's bath together. I'll help you learn how to do it."
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Q1) In the special care nursery, the nurse places an infant with hydrocephalus in the prone position and is careful to thoroughly cleanse the perineum after bowel movements. What was this infant most likely born with?
A) Omphalocele
B) Gastroschisis
C) Myelomeningocele
D) Diaphragmatic hernia
Q2) The nurse is working with a family that just experienced the birth of their first child at 34 weeks. Which statements indicate that additional teaching is needed? Select all that apply.
A) "Our baby will be in an Isolette to keep him warm."
B) "The growth of our baby will be faster than if he were term."
C) "Breathing might be harder for our baby because he is early."
D) "Tube feedings will be required because his stomach is small."
E) "Because he came early, he will not produce urine for 2 days."
Q3) The nurse is preparing teaching for the parents of a premature infant weighing 4.4
lb. How much urine in ounces should the nurse instruct the parents that the infant will produce in 1 day if the rate of production is 2 mL/kg/hr? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Q1) An infant weighing 1500 g is prescribed intravenous normal saline 10 mL/kg. How many milliliters of fluid should the nurse expect to provide this infant? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
Q2) The mother of a severely premature infant is being prepared to see her baby for the first time. The infant has an IV and a feeding tube, is receiving phototherapy, and is being monitored for cardiac and respiratory functioning. What information would be the least supportive for the mother at this time?
A) Wash hands before holding the infant.
B) The infant has tubes and monitoring equipment in place.
C) The appearance of the different machines and tubes attached to the infant.
D) Avoid touching the infant because the baby's skin is fragile and could be easily hurt.
Q3) The nurse is caring for an infant who delivered in a car on the way to the hospital and has developed cold stress. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Blood glucose level of 45
B) Vasoconstriction and pallor
C) Room temperature IV running
D) Positioned under radiant warmer
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to assess assigned clients on a postpartum unit. Which client should be seen first?
A) Multipara, second day postcesarean, moderate lochia serosa
B) Primipara, day of delivery, fundus firm 2 cm above umbilicus
C) Multipara, first postpartum day, 4 cm diastasis recti abdominis
D) Primipara, first postpartum day, hypoactive bowel sounds all quadrants
Q2) The nurse decides that a family with a newborn would benefit from a Social Services consultation. What statements were made by family members that caused the nurse to make this decision? Select all that apply.
A) "I think we're getting along better."
B) "I'm not going to let a baby make me fat."
C) "My mother could care less about this baby."
D) "At least help me if you don't want to get a job."
E) "That's fine. Go to work. Leave me here to do all of the work."
Q3) A postpartum client weighing 165 lb is prescribed to take 12 mg/kg/day of lysine to help with afterpains. If the client ingests 375 mg of lysine in food, how many additional milligrams of the supplement should the client take? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Q1) The nurse is providing postpartum care to a client who is lesbian and her life partner. Which nursing actions are appropriate when providing care to this couple? Select all that apply.
A) Providing the couple with the same rights and care as those given to heterosexual couples
B) Educating the couple about contraception during the postpartum period
C) Teaching the couple about when it is safe to resume sexual relations
D) Encouraging the couple to join a support group of other postpartum lesbian couples
E) Inviting both the client and the partner to share their parenting concerns
Q2) The nurse is teaching a postpartum client when light housekeeping can be resumed. Which response by the client indicates accurate understanding of the information provided?
A) "I can resume light housekeeping after the 6-week postpartum checkup."
B) "I can resume light housekeeping during my first week at home."
C) "I can resume light housekeeping during my second day at home."
D) "I can resume light housekeeping after my second week at home."
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Q1) The maternal nurse educator is conducting a presentation for antepartum clients describing the identification and care of women diagnosed with postpartum psychiatric disorders. Which information should the maternal nurse educator include in the teaching content?
A) Postpartum depression occurs in as many as 50% to 70% of mothers and is characterized by mild depression interspersed with happier feelings.
B) Postpartum depression is typically mild and usually self-limiting, lasting up to 6 weeks.
C) Even if she is asymptomatic, a woman with a history of postpartum depression should be referred to a mental health professional for counseling and biweekly visits postpartum.
D) Women with postpartum depression have a history of exposure to an extremely traumatic personal event that involves actual or threatened death or serious injury and evokes intense fear, helplessness, or horror.
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant during a scheduled well-baby check-up. Which are expected findings for this infant? Select all that apply.
A) No head lag when pulled for sitting
B) Ability to turn from back to abdomen
C) Manipulates objects
D) Transfers objects from one hand to the other
E) A pincer grasp is noted.
Q2) While being comforted in the emergency department, the 6-year-old male sibling of a pediatric trauma victim blurts out to the nurse, "It's all my fault! When we were fighting yesterday, I told him I wished he was dead!" Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
A) Asking the child if he would like to sit down and drink some water
B) Sitting the child down in an empty room with markers and paper so that he can draw a picture
C) Reassuring the child that it is normal to get angry and say things that we do not mean, but that we have no control over whether an accident happens
D) Discussing the catheters, tubes, and equipment that the sibling requires, and explaining why they are needed
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Q1) The nurse is teaching the parents of a 6-month-old infant about the introduction of solid foods. Which foods will the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply.
A) Rice cereal
B) Fruits
C) Vegetables
D) Meats
E) Nut products
Q2) Which assessment findings would cause the nurse to believe that a school-age child is not receiving enough vitamin C in the diet? Select all that apply.
A) Dermatitis
B) Bleeding gums
C) Scaling of the skin
D) Muscle weakness
E) Headaches
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Q1) Which is the correct order for the nurse to conduct a physical assessment for a toddler-age client? Place in order from first assessment to last assessment.
A) Auscultation of chest
B) Examination of eyes, ears, and throat
C) Palpation of abdomen
D) General appearance
Q2) The nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newborn client. Which physical findings suggest the newborn is preterm? Select all that apply.
A) The ear pinna quickly returns to original position after being bent manually.
B) The infant's resting position is tightly flexed.
C) Labia are widely separated with clitoris prominent.
D) Breast area is barely perceptible with flat areola, no bud.
E) Sole creases do not extend the length of the foot.
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Q1) While interviewing the parents of a toddler-age client, the nurse notes that the mother is pregnant. At the end of the visit, the nurse decides to give a new pamphlet to the parents about car seat usage for newborns. Which is the purpose of this action by the nurse?
A) Secondary preventative health maintenance
B) Developmental health screening
C) Tertiary preventative health maintenance
D) Primary preventative health maintenance
Q2) A mother who is bottlefeeding her newborn is discharged 48 hours postdelivery. When should the nurse schedule the first office visit for the newborn with the pediatrician?
A) Within 5 days of discharge
B) Within 7 days of discharge
C) Within 2 weeks of discharge
D) Within 3 weeks of discharge
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Q1) The nurse is teaching the parents of a toddler-age child about injury prevention. Which statement by the parent indicates the need for further education?
A) "I will turn the handles of the pots outward while I am cooking dinner."
B) "We will make sure that our child always wears a life vest when we are out in the boat."
C) "I will keep all our medications out of reach and ensure child-resistant containers."
D) "We will provide safe climbing toys for our child."
Q2) Which is the priority nursing action when performing a physical assessment on a toddler?
A) Leaving intrusive procedures such as eye and ear examinations until the end
B) Explaining each part of the examination to the child before performing it
C) Performing the assessment from head to toe
D) Asking the mother to tell the child not to be afraid
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Q1) Which nursing action is appropriate when providing care to an adolescent client who is accompanied to an appointment by a parent?
A) Instructing the parent to stay in the waiting room with the explanation that the adolescent will provide a report after the examination
B) Telling the parent it is against policy for a parent to accompany the adolescent to the examination room
C) Reassuring the parent that the nurse will discuss any parental concerns or questions after the examination
D) Allowing the parent to come into the examination room with the adolescent
Q2) The mother of a 12-year-old child informs the nurse that the child's father died from sudden cardiac death at 44 years old. Which laboratory tests does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed by the healthcare provider?
A) Chest x-ray
B) Complete blood count (CBC) with differential
C) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D) Lipid profile
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Q1) Which is the priority topic the nurse will include when teaching newly hired teachers at a child care center within the community?
A) How to take a temperature
B) The schedule for immunizations
C) How to interpret healthcare records
D) Principles of infection control
Q2) Which nursing actions will allow a family to further develop resilience when faced with an illness of a child? Select all that apply.
A) Teaching skills to provide care
B) Suggesting adaptations related to discipline
C) Providing positive reinforcement
D) Recommending the use of defensive coping strategies
E) Focusing on the weaknesses
Q3) Which pediatric client will the community health nurse assess first?
A) A 6-year-old who is wheezing and short of breath.
B) A 2-year-old who has been pulling at his ear.
C) A 2-month-old with a 2-day history of diarrhea.
D) A 10-year-old with a sore throat and low-grade fever.
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Q1) The parents of a 4-month-old child learn that there will be long-term consequences due to the head injury sustained in a motor vehicle accident, including intellectual disability and cerebral palsy. The parents express anger at the diagnosis and project that anger on the nursing staff. Which responses by the nursing staff are appropriate? Select all that apply.
A) Referring the family to the hospital administrator
B) Recognizing that the parents' anger is a normal response to the news
C) Continuing to provide physical and emotional care to the child and family
D) Offering hospital resources to the parents in addition to continued nursing support
E) Explaining to the family that you are sorry about their child's injury but suggest they transfer the child to another hospital for their own comfort
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a school-age child who requires oxygen, enteral tube feedings, and IV medications during the school day. To which category of chronic illness does this child belong?
A) Dependent on special diet
B) Dependent on medical technology
C) Increased use of healthcare services
D) Functional limitations
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Q1) Which is the rationale for why parents should be allowed to be present with their children during a medical procedure?
A) Parents want to support their child before, during, and immediately after the procedure.
B) Parents want to ensure that nothing goes wrong with the child.
C) Parents are interested because they are also in the medical field.
D) Parents want to ensure that the correct medication is being used.
Q2) Which are barriers to successful discharge planning that the nurse may need to plan for when providing care to a pediatric client who is approaching discharge? Select all that apply.
A) Financial concerns
B) Parental unavailability for teaching
C) Lack of equipment
D) Poor teamwork
E) Insurance payment for services
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Q1) Which are the priority nursing assessments when providing care to a pediatric client who is receiving sedation? Select all that apply.
A) Respiratory effort
B) Chest wall movement
C) Skin color
D) Level of consciousness
E) Pain
Q2) A 5-year-old child is hospitalized with a fractured femur. Which tool should the nurse use to assess this child's pain?
A) CRIES Scale
B) Faces Pain Rating Scale
C) SUN Scale
D) PIPP Scale
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child who has been sedated for a painful procedure. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Placing the child on a cardiac monitor
B) Allowing parents to stay with the child
C) Monitoring pulse oximetry
D) Assessing the child's respiratory effort
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Q1) A school bus carrying children in grades K-12 crashed into a ravine. The critically injured children are transported by ambulance and admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit (PICU). Which is the most effective nursing intervention to calm the frightened children?
A) Explain that the equipment being used is state-of-the-art.
B) Tell the children that the providers are competent.
C) Call the children's parents to come to the unit.
D) Assure the children that the nurses are caring.
Q2) A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with a fractured femur and head trauma. The child was not wearing a helmet while riding a new bicycle on the highway, and collided with a car. Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse include in the plan of care with regard to the child's parents? Select all that apply.
A) Compromised Family Coping related to the critical injury of the child
B) Parental Role Conflict related to child's injuries and pediatric intensive care unit (PICU) policies
C) Guilt related to lack of child supervision and safety precautions
D) Knowledge Deficit related to home care of fractured femur
E) Anger related to feelings of helplessness
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Q1) A child is brought to the emergency department in a coma. The mother thinks the child may have ingested a poison. Which will the nurse assess based on this information? Select all that apply.
A) For oral burns
B) The child's breath
C) The child's vomitus
D) Hair samples
E) Blood and urine toxicology screens
Q2) A high school student calls to ask the nurse for advice on how to care for a new navel piercing. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "Avoid contact with another person's bodily fluids until the area is well healed."
B) "Do not move or turn the jewelry for the first 3 days."
C) "Apply lotion to the area, rubbing gently, to prevent skin from becoming dry and irritated."
D) "Apply warm soaks to the area for the first 2 days to minimize swelling."
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Q1) A mother brings in her 4-month-old infant for a routine checkup and vaccinations. The mother reports that her child was exposed to the flu. Which nursing action is accurate based on the current data?
A) Withhold the DTaP vaccination but give the others as scheduled.
B) Give the infant the flu vaccination but withhold the others.
C) Give the vaccinations as scheduled.
D) Withhold the vaccinations.
Q2) There has been an outbreak of communicable diseases in the community. To reduce parental anxiety, the nurse presents information about disease at the school's Parent Teacher Association meeting. Which vectorborne diseases, not communicable from person to person, should the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply.
A) Measles
B) Whooping cough
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D) West Nile virus
E) Lyme disease
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Q1) A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital secondary to dehydration. Laboratory tests indicate a high hemoglobin and hematocrit, and the serum sodium is below normal levels. Which condition does the nurse suspect based on the current data?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Hypotonic dehydration
D) Isotonic dehydration
Q2) The nurse is assessing a pediatric client who is experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which assessment questions should the nurse include when interviewing the child's parents? Select all that apply.
A) "Has your child consumed any aspirin?"
B) "Has your child consumed any boric acid?"
C) "Has your child consumed any antifreeze?"
D) "Has your child consumed any baking soda?"
E) "Has your child consumed any antacids?"
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Q1) Which assessment finding is considered normal for a school-age client?
A) Tonsils are large and seem to fill the throat
B) Child is complaining of sore throat and drooling
C) White patches are observed on the tonsils
D) Throat appears red, and child has a low-grade fever
Q2) Which topics should the nurse include in a teaching session to the parents of a 10-month-old infant who experiences frequent ear infections? Select all that apply.
A) Prohibiting tobacco smoke in the home
B) Avoiding use of a pacifier while the child is sleeping
C) Breastfeeding the infant
D) Cleaning the child's ears nightly with peroxide
E) Avoiding use of wood-burning stoves
Q3) Which common eye disorders should the nurse include in a teaching session for the parents of pediatric clients? Select all that apply.
A) Hyperopia
B) Myopia
C) Astigmatism
D) Strabismus
E) Cataracts
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Q1) Which should the nurse include in a teaching session for the mother of a 3-year-old client who is concerned about her child choking?
A) Show the mother how to do cardiac compressions and rescue breathing.
B) Recommend the mother perform back blows and chest thrusts.
C) Teach the mother how to perform abdominal thrusts.
D) Tell the mother to do nothing until the child loses consciousness.
Q2) Which independent nursing action is appropriate for a 2-month-old infant who is a direct admission to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of ALTE (apparent life-threatening event)?
A) Place the child on an apnea monitor.
B) Place the child on nasal cannula oxygen.
C) Draw blood for arterial blood gases.
D) Place the child on contact isolation.
Q3) Which is the priority nursing action for a premature neonate who is experiencing apnea?
A) Administering oxygen
B) Performing back blows and chest thrusts
C) Calling a code blue
D) Providing stimulation by stroking the back
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Q1) Which is the rationale the nurse provides to the parents of an infant diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF) for the prescribed spironolactone?
A) Produces rapid diuresis
B) Blocks reabsorption of sodium and water in renal tubules
C) Spares potassium
D) Promotes vascular relaxation
Q2) Which cardiovascular manifestations should the nurse anticipate for a pediatric client diagnosed with early compensated hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.
A) Tachycardia
B) Weak distal pulses
C) Thready distal pulses
D) Normal blood pressure
E) Decrease in systolic blood pressure
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Q1) The nurse is planning care for a child with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which vaccines should be avoided in the child with AIDS?
A) Inactivated polio vaccine
B) Tetanus toxoid vaccination
C) Varicella vaccine
D) Acellular pertussis vaccine
Q2) An adolescent female client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which should the nurse include in the teaching session regarding an activity that should be avoided?
A) Receiving a manicure and a pedicure
B) Washing the hair with shampoo daily
C) Using a tanning bed
D) Attending late night parties and dances
Q3) A nurse is planning care for a child with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?
A) Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion
B) Ineffective Thermoregulation
C) Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit
D) Risk for Infection
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Q1) The nurse is administering packed red blood cells to a child with sickle-cell disease (SCD). When should the nurse monitor the child closely due to the risk of reaction?
A) Six hours after the transfusion is given.
B) At the end of the administration of the transfusion.
C) The first 20 mL of blood administered.
D) Never; children with SCD do not have reactions.
Q2) The healthcare provider orders laboratory tests following the initiation of treatment for a child diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which laboratory result should the nurse share with the child's family as an indication of improvement?
A) Low hemoglobin
B) Normal platelet count
C) High reticulocyte count
D) Low hematocrit
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to assist with a lumbar puncture for a pediatric client who is diagnosed with cancer. Which statements should the nurse include in the teaching session for the client and family? Select all that apply.
A) "This procedure assesses the bone marrow."
B) "This procedure assesses cerebrospinal fluid."
C) "This procedure confirms the diagnosis of acute lympoblastic leukemia."
D) "The procedure determines if malignant cells are affecting the nervous system."
E) "This procedure assesses cellular components of the blood."
Q2) A preschool-age child is being seen in the oncology clinic. Which reaction should the nurse anticipate based on the child's stage of development?
A) Unawareness of the illness and its severity
B) Acceptance, especially if able to discuss the disease with children their own age
C) Understanding of what cancer is and how it is treated
D) Thoughts that they caused their illness and are being punished
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Q1) The nurse is providing care to a pediatric client, diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease, who is prescribed daily prednisone. Which parental statement regarding administration of this drug indicates correct understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?
A) "I will administer this medication between meals."
B) "I will administer this medication at bedtime."
C) "I will administer this medication one hour before meals."
D) "I will administer this medication with meals."
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a school-age client who is postoperative for the surgical removal of the appendix. In addition to pharmacologic pain management, which should the nurse include in the plan of care to address pain?
A) Applying a warm, moist pack every 4 hours
B) Applying EMLA cream to the incision site prior to ambulation
C) Applying a cold, moist pack every 2 hours
D) Applying a pillow against the abdomen to splint the incision site when coughing
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Q1) Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child who has been admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?
A) Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
B) Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
C) Urine specific gravity decreased and urinary output increased
D) Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever
Q2) Which is the priority nursing intervention when caring for a neonate who is born with bladder exstrophy?
A) Measuring intake and output
B) Inserting a Foley catheter
C) Covering the defect with sterile plastic wrap
D) Palpating the bladder mass to ensure urine is expelled
Q3) Which assessment finding, after the dialysate is drained during peritoneal dialysis for a child experiencing acute renal failure, would warrant further action by the nurse?
A) The dialysate is clear on return.
B) The volume of drained dialysate is less than the volume infused.
C) The child is restless, wanting to get up and play.
D) The child's vital signs are basically the same as were noted on infusion.
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Q1) The nurse is providing care to a newborn female who is born with ambiguous genitalia. The follow-up investigation discovers adrenogenital syndrome (also called congenital adrenal hyperplasia [CAH]). The parents question why the baby's genitalia looks more male than female. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A) "The disorder caused your baby to be a hermaphrodite with both male and female sex organs."
B) "The changes in the genitalia are due to increased androgens secondary to deficient cortisol."
C) "The excessive cortisol caused the enlargement of the female tissue, creating a male appearance."
D) "Your baby has only one sex chromosome resulting in an XO configuration."
Q2) Which prescription regarding an oral hydrocortisone for a toddler-age client diagnosed with congenital adrenal insufficiency should the nurse anticipate when the client is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia?
A) It will be discontinued.
B) It will be reduced.
C) It will be continued as previously prescribed.
D) It will be increased.
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Q1) A pediatric client is admitted to the emergency department with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) that caused a loss of consciousness. The last set of vital signs showed heart rate 48, blood pressure (BP) 148/74 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 and irregular. Which does the nurse suspect based on these data?
A) Spinal cord injury
B) Increased intracranial pressure.
C) Typical for sleep
D) Improvement
Q2) Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client diagnosed with cerebral palsy? Select all that apply.
A) Risk for Constipation
B) Impaired Tissue Integrity
C) Impaired Verbal Communication
D) Acute Pain
E) Risk for Delayed Development
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a child with Down syndrome. Which illness should the nurse monitor for due to the increased risk for children with Down syndrome?
A) Rheumatic heart disease
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Leukemia
D) Hepatitis
Q2) A school-age child is diagnosed with a learning disorder that is characterized by problems with manual dexterity and coordination. Which term should the nurse use when documenting this child's disorder in the medical record?
A) Dysgraphia
B) Dyscalculia
C) Dyspraxia
D) Dyslexia
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Q1) Which clinical data noted by the nurse during the shift assessment indicate the pediatric client may be experiencing compartment syndrome? Select all that apply.
A) Pink, warm extremity
B) Dorsalis pedis pulse present
C) Prolonged capillary refill time
D) Pain not relieved by pain medication
E) Paresthesia of the leg
Q2) Which injury prevention strategies should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client who is diagnosed with muscular dystrophy?
A) Develop a home fire evacuation plan.
B) Provide information regarding oxygen safety.
C) Recommend the use of portable generator.
D) Teach safe transfer methods.
E) Perform neurovascular checks every 2 hours.
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Q1) Which is the priority intervention when planning care for an infant who is diagnosed with eczema?
A) Applying antibiotics to lesions
B) Keeping the baby content
C) Maintaining adequate nutrition
D) Preventing infection of lesions
Q2) Which skin conditions should the nurse identify as having a genetic or inherited component during a presentation to the staff nurses who work in the integument clinic? Select all that apply.
A) Atopic dermatitis
B) Seborrheic dermatitis
C) Epidermolysis bullosa
D) Molluscum contagiosum
E) Psoriasis
Q3) Which nursing action is accurate when applying a 5% permethrin lotion to a toddler with scabies?
A) Applying the lotion to the scalp, forehead, and everywhere below the chin
B) Applying the lotion only on the areas with evidence of activity
C) Applying the lotion only to the hands
D) Applying the lotion only to the scalp only
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 59