Maternal and Child Health Nursing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Maternal and Child Health Nursing focuses on the care of women throughout the stages of pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the comprehensive health needs of children from infancy through adolescence. This course prepares students to assess and manage the unique physiological, psychological, and social needs of mothers and children, emphasizing health promotion, disease prevention, and family-centered care. Topics include prenatal and postnatal care, growth and development, pediatric illnesses, immunizations, nutritional needs, and common health challenges. Students gain knowledge and skills required for safe, evidence-based practice in both community and clinical settings, with attention to ethical, cultural, and legal considerations.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 4th Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1509 Verified Questions
1509 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1913
Page 2
Chapter 1: Contemporary Maternity Nursing
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38119
Sample Questions
Q1) An important development that concerns maternity nursing is integrative health care,which:
A)Seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups.
B)Blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western treatment.
C)Focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the client.
D)Has been mandated by Congress.
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse caring for the pregnant client should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows what trend?
A)Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes.
B)Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years of age are beginning to decline.
C)Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase.
D)The rates of pregnancy and abortion among teens are lower in the United States than in any other industrial country.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A traditional family structure in which male and female partners and their children live as an independent unit is known as a(n):
A)Extended family
B)Binuclear family
C)Nuclear family
D)Blended family
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within families are based primarily on family:
A)Rituals and customs.
B)Values and beliefs.
C)Boundaries and channels.
D)Socialization processes.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Community and Home Care
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38121
Sample Questions
Q1) During an in-home visit,the nurse appropriately may:
A)Smoke if the expectant mother smokes.
B)Ask to have the volume on the TV turned down or move to a quiet room.
C)Give ample advice and reassurance to establish authority.
D)Freely move whatever furniture and belongings the nurse feels necessary.
Answer: B
Q2) Which situation would be considered safe by a nurse who is making a home visit?
A)A group of teens is sitting on the stairs in front of the client's apartment.
B)Parking is only possible 3 blocks from the client's house because no space is available in front of the house.
C)The family dog is on a chain in the front yard.
D)The door of the home is open when the nurse arrives.
Answer: C
Q3) Which area would be appropriate to include in a physical assessment of the home?
A)Bathtub,toilets,sinks,countertops,inside china cabinet drawers
B)Baby's bed,changing table,baby's clothes,inside diaper bag,inside keepsake box
C)Bedroom closets,inside jewelry boxes,under beds
D)Electrical wall outlets,telephones,bathroom sink and faucets,stove,and refrigerator
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to violence against women,intimate partner violence (IPV) nurses should be aware that:
A)Relationship violence usually consists of a single episode that the couple can put behind them.
B)Violence often declines or ends with pregnancy.
C)Economic coercion is considered part of IPV.
D)Battered women generally are poorly educated and come from a deprived social background.
Q2) _____ use/abuse during pregnancy causes vasoconstriction and decreased placental perfusion,resulting in maternal and neonatal complications.
A)Alcohol
B)Caffeine
C)Tobacco
D)Chocolate
Q3) One purpose of preconception care is to:
A)Ensure that pregnancy complications do not occur.
B)Identify women who should not become pregnant.
C)Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy.
D)Ensure that women know about prenatal care.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As part of their participation in the gynecologic portion of the physical examination,nurses should:
A)Take a firm approach that encourages the client to facilitate the examination by following the physician's instructions exactly.
B)Explain the procedure as it unfolds and continue to question the client to get information in a timely manner.
C)Take the opportunity to explain that the trendy vulvar self-examination is only for women at risk for cancer.
D)Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.
Q2) Unique muscle fibers make the uterine myometrium ideally suited for:
A)Menstruation.
B)The birth process.
C)Ovulation.
D)Fertilization.
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Chapter 6: Common Health Problems
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having uterine fibroids. When planning care for this client,the nurse should know that:
A)Fibroids are malignant tumors of the uterus that require radiation or chemotherapy.
B)Fibroids will increase in size during the perimenopausal period.
C)Menorrhagia is a common finding.
D)The woman is unlikely to become pregnant as long as the fibroids are in her uterus.
Q2) To detect the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),most laboratory tests focus on:
A)HIV virus.
B)HIV antibodies.
C)CD<sub>4</sub> counts.
D)CD<sub>8</sub> counts.
Q3) The recommended treatment for the prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission to the fetus during pregnancy is:
A)Acyclovir.
B)Ofloxacin.
C)Podophyllin.
D)Zidovudine.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Infertility,Contraception,and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate when instructing the client in which herbal preparations to avoid while trying to conceive?
A)"You should avoid nettle leaf,dong quai,and vitamin E while you are trying to get pregnant."
B)"You may want to avoid licorice root,lavender,fennel,sage,and thyme while you are trying to conceive."
C)"You should not take anything with vitamin E,calcium,or magnesium. They will make you infertile."
D)"Herbs have no bearing on fertility."
Q2) A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse's most appropriate response would be:
A)"This is a highly effective method,but it has some side effects."
B)"Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill."
C)"The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication."
D)"This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history."
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Genetics,Conception,and Fetal Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38126
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the knowledge of new parents with a child born with maple syrup urine disease (MSUD). This is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder,which means that:
A)Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed.
B)Only one copy of the abnormal gene is required for the disorder to be expressed.
C)The disorder occurs in males and heterozygous females.
D)The disorder is carried on the X chromosome.
Q2) A father and mother are carriers of phenylketonuria (PKU). Their 2-year-old daughter has PKU. The couple tells the nurse that they are planning to have a second baby. Because their daughter has PKU,they are sure that their next baby won't be affected. What response by the nurse is most accurate?
A)"Good planning;you need to take advantage of the odds in your favor."
B)"I think you'd better check with your doctor first."
C)"You are both carriers,so each baby has a 25% chance of being affected."
D)"The ultrasound indicates a boy,and boys are not affected by PKU."
Q3) ____________________ twins is another term for fraternal twins. These twins may be the same or different sexes and genetically are no more alike than siblings born at different times.
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Chapter 9: Assessment for Risk Factors
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be:
A)Negative.
B)Positive.
C)Satisfactory.
D)Unsatisfactory.
Q2) When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts,they should be aware that:
A)Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity.
B)"Kick counts" should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours,with every other 6-hour stretch off.
C)The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
D)Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women.
Q3) MSAFP levels have been used as a screening tool for ________________ in pregnancy.
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11
Chapter 10: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38128
Sample Questions
Q1) Over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy tests usually rely on which technology to test for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
A)Radioimmunoassay
B)Radioreceptor assay
C)Latex agglutination test
D)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Q2) Some pregnant clients may complain of changes in their voice and impaired hearing. The nurse can tell these clients that these are common reactions to:
A)A decreased estrogen level.
B)Displacement of the diaphragm,resulting in thoracic breathing.
C)Congestion and swelling,which occur because the upper respiratory tract has become more vascular.
D)Increased blood volume.
Q3) The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called the:
A)Operculum.
B)Leucorrhea.
C)Funic souffle.
D)Ballottement.
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Chapter 11: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old girl's mother is 6 months pregnant. What concern is this child likely to verbalize?
A)How the baby will "get out"
B)What the baby will eat
C)Whether her mother will die
D)What color eyes the baby has
Q2) The multiple marker test is used to assess the fetus for which condition?
A)Down syndrome
B)Diaphragmatic hernia
C)Congenital cardiac abnormality
D)Anencephaly
Q3) Which statement about pregnancy is accurate?
A)A normal pregnancy lasts about 10 lunar months.
B)A trimester is one third of a year.
C)The prenatal period extends from fertilization to conception.
D)The estimated date of confinement (EDC) is how long the mother will have to be bedridden after birth.
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13
Chapter 12: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutritional recommendation about fluids is accurate?
A)A woman's daily intake should be eight to ten glasses (2.3 L) of water,milk,and/or juice.
B)Coffee should be limited to no more than 2 cups,but tea and cocoa can be consumed without worry.
C)Of the artificial sweeteners,only aspartame has not been associated with any maternity health concerns.
D)Water with fluoride is especially encouraged because it reduces the child's risk of tooth decay.
Q2) While taking a diet history,the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips,cornstarch,and baking soda. This represents a nutritional problem known as:
A)Preeclampsia.
B)Pyrosis.
C)Pica.
D)Purging.
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14
Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the association of maternal diabetes and other risk situations affecting mother and fetus,nurses should be aware that:
A)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy.
B)Hydramnios occurs approximately twice as often in diabetic pregnancies.
C)Infections occur about as often and are considered about as serious in diabetic and nondiabetic pregnancies.
D)Even mild-to-moderate hypoglycemic episodes can have significant effects on fetal well-being.
Q2) Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). In planning her care the nurse and the woman mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM. The nurse identifies that the fetus is at greatest risk for:
A)Macrosomia.
B)Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system.
C)Preterm birth.
D)Low birth weight.
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15
Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion,the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings,which reveal a platelet count of 90,000,an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level,and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of:
A)Eclampsia.
B)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C)HELLP syndrome.
D)Idiopathic thrombocytopenia.
Q2) The nurse caring for pregnant women must be aware that the most common medical complication of pregnancy is:
A)Hypertension.
B)Hyperemesis gravidarum.
C)Hemorrhagic complications.
D)Infections.
Q3) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is _____________________.
Q4) The condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment near or over the internal cervical os is _________________________.
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Chapter 15: Labor and Birth Processes
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signs that precede labor include (choose all that apply):
A)Lightening.
B)Exhaustion.
C)Bloody show.
D)Rupture of membranes.
E)Decreased fetal movement.
Q2) Which position would the nurse suggest for second-stage labor if the pelvic outlet needs to be increased?
A)Semirecumbent
B)Sitting
C)Squatting
D)Side-lying
Q3) To adequately care for a laboring woman,the nurse knows that which stage of labor varies the most in length?
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
Q4) A ____________________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.
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Chapter 16: Management of Discomfort
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement correctly describes the effects of various pain factors?
A)Higher prostaglandin levels arising from dysmenorrhea can blunt the pain of childbirth.
B)Upright positions in labor increase the pain factor because they cause greater fatigue.
C)Women who move around trying different positions are experiencing more pain.
D)Levels of pain-mitigating b-endorphins are higher during a spontaneous,natural childbirth.
Q2) To help clients manage discomfort and pain during labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)The predominant pain of the first stage of labor is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen.
B)Referred pain is the extreme discomfort between contractions.
C)The somatic pain of the second stage of labor is more generalized and related to fatigue.
D)Pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the second stage.
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Chapter 17: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse might be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp:
A)As part of fetal scalp blood sampling.
B)In response to tocolysis.
C)In preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring.
D)To elicit an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR).
Q2) During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have:
A)Bradycardia.
B)A normal baseline heart rate.
C)Tachycardia.
D)Hypoxia.
Q3) According to standard professional thinking,nurses should auscultate the fetal heart rate (FHR):
A)Every 15 minutes in the active phase of the first stage of labor in the absence of risk factors.
B)Every 20 minutes in the second stage,regardless of whether risk factors are present.
C)Before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes.
D)More often in a woman's first pregnancy.
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38136
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g.,Pitocin,Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to:
A)Relieve pain.
B)Stimulate uterine contraction.
C)Prevent infection.
D)Facilitate rest and relaxation.
Q2) Concerning the third stage of labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)The placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus.
B)An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications.
C)It is important that the dark,roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface.
D)The major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.
Q3) A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant expresses fear about her impending labor and how she will manage. The nurse's best response is:
A)"Don't worry about it. You'll do fine."
B)"It's normal to be anxious about labor. Let's discuss what makes you afraid."
C)"Labor is scary to think about,but the actual experience isn't."
D)"You can have an epidural. You won't feel anything."
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Labor and Birth at Risk
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 50% of all women who give birth prematurely have no identifiable risk factors,and about 50% of preterm births could not be prevented.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nurse providing care to a woman in labor should be aware that cesarean birth:
A)Is declining in frequency in the twenty-first century in the United States.
B)Is more likely to be done for the poor in public hospitals who do not get the nurse counseling that wealthier clients do.
C)Is performed primarily for the benefit of the fetus.
D)Can be either elected or refused by women as their absolute legal right.
Q3) In evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin induction,the nurse would expect:
A)Contractions lasting 40 to 90 seconds,2 to 3 minutes apart.
B)The intensity of contractions to be at least 110 to 130 mm Hg.
C)Labor to progress at least 2 cm/hr dilation.
D)At least 30 mU/min of oxytocin will be needed to achieve cervical dilation.
Q4) ____________________ is defined as long,difficult,or abnormal labor. It is caused by various conditions associated with the five factors affecting labor.
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Chapter 20: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman gave birth to an infant boy 10 hours ago. Where would the nurse expect to locate this woman's fundus?
A)One centimeter above the umbilicus
B)Two centimeters below the umbilicus
C)Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis
D)Nonpalpable abdominally
Q2) Childbirth may result in injuries to the vagina and uterus. Pelvic floor exercises also known as Kegel exercises will help to strengthen the perineal muscles and encourage healing. The nurse knows that the client understands the correct process for completing these conditioning exercises when she reports:
A)"I contract my thighs,buttocks,and abdomen."
B)"I do 10 of these exercises every day."
C)"I stand while practicing this new exercise routine."
D)"I pretend that I am trying to stop the flow of urine midstream."
Q3) Postbirth uterine/vaginal discharge,called lochia:
A)Is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours.
B)Is usually greater after cesarean births.
C)Will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding.
D)Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the recovery room,if a woman is asked either to raise her legs (knees extended) off the bed or to flex her knees,place her feet flat on the bed,and raise her buttocks well off the bed,most likely she is being tested to see whether she:
A)Has recovered from epidural or spinal anesthesia.
B)Has hidden bleeding underneath her.
C)Has regained some flexibility.
D)Is a candidate to go home after 6 hours.
Q2) Because a full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting normally,nurses intervene to help the woman empty her bladder spontaneously as soon as possible. If all else fails,the last thing the nurse might try is:
A)Pouring water from a squeeze bottle over the woman's perineum.
B)Placing oil of peppermint in a bedpan under the woman.
C)Asking the physician to prescribe analgesics.
D)Inserting a sterile catheter.
Q3) What would prevent early discharge of a postpartum woman?
A)Hemoglobin <10 g
B)Birth at 38 weeks of gestation
C)Voids about 200 to 300 ml per void
D)Episiotomy that shows slight redness and edema and is dry and approximated
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the many factors that influence parental responses,nurses should be aware that all of these statements regarding age are true except:
A)An adolescent mother's egocentricity and unmet developmental needs interfere with her ability to parent effectively.
B)An adolescent mother is likely to use less verbal instruction,be less responsive,and interact less positively than other mothers.
C)Adolescent mothers have a higher documented incidence of child abuse.
D)Mothers older than 35 often deal with more stress related to work and career issues and decreasing libido.
Q2) With regard to parents' early and extended contact with their infant and the relationships built,nurses should be aware that:
A)Immediate contact is essential for the parent-child relationship.
B)Skin-to-skin contact is preferable to contact with the body totally wrapped in a blanket.
C)Extended contact is especially important for adolescents and low-income women because they are at risk for parenting inadequacies.
D)Mothers need to take precedence over their partners and other family matters.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) With shortened hospital stays,new mothers are often discharged before they begin to experience symptoms of the baby blues or postpartum depression. As part of the discharge teaching,the nurse can prepare the mother for this adjustment to her new role by instructing her regarding self-care activities to help prevent postpartum depression. The most accurate statement as related to these activities is to:
A)Stay home and avoid outside activities to ensure adequate rest.
B)Be certain that you are the only caregiver for your baby to facilitate infant attachment.
C)Keep feelings of sadness and adjustment to your new role to yourself.
D)Realize that this is a common occurrence that affects many women.
Q2) Nurses need to know the basic definitions and incidence data about postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). For instance:
A)PPH is easy to recognize early;after all,the woman is bleeding.
B)Traditionally it takes more than 1000 ml of blood after vaginal birth and 2500 ml after cesarean birth to define the condition as PPH.
C)If anything,nurses and doctors tend to overestimate the amount of blood loss.
D)Traditionally PPH has been classified as early or late with respect to birth.
Q3) ____________________ is the most common postpartum infection.
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Chapter 24: Physiologic Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason the brain is vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies and trauma in early infancy is the:
A)Incompletely developed neuromuscular system.
B)Primitive reflex system.
C)Presence of various sleep-wake states.
D)Cerebellum growth spurt.
Q2) What marks on a baby's skin may indicate an underlying problem that requires notification of a physician?
A)Mongolian spots on the back
B)Telangiectatic nevi on the nose or nape of the neck
C)Petechiae scattered over the infant's body
D)Erythema toxicum anywhere on the body
Q3) What infant response to cool environmental conditions is either NOT effective or NOT available to them?
A)Constriction of peripheral blood vessels
B)Metabolism of brown fat
C)Increased respiratory rates
D)Unflexing from the normal position
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Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain should be assessed regularly in all newborn infants. If the infant is displaying physiologic or behavioral cues indicating pain,measures should be taken to manage the pain. Examples of nonpharmacologic pain management techniques include (choose all that apply):
A)Swaddling.
B)Nonnutritive sucking.
C)Skin-to-skin contact with the mother.
D)Sucrose.
E)Acetaminophen.
Q2) A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant's eyes and why it is needed. The nurse explains to the father that the purpose of the Ilotycin ophthalmic ointment is to:
A)Destroy an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind.
B)Prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant's eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal.
C)Prevent potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant's eyes,leading to dry eyes.
D)Prevent the infant's eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statement concerning the benefits or limitations of breastfeeding is NOT accurate?
A)Breast milk changes over time to meet changing needs as infants grow.
B)Long-term studies have shown that the benefits of breast milk continue after the infant is weaned.
C)Breast milk/breastfeeding may enhance cognitive development.
D)Breastfeeding increases the risk of childhood obesity.
Q2) A new father is ready to take his wife and newborn son home. He proudly tells the nurse who is discharging them that within the next week he plans to start feeding the infant cereal between breastfeeding sessions. The nurse can explain to him that beginning solid foods before 4 to 6 months may:
A)Decrease the infant's intake of sufficient calories.
B)Lead to early cessation of breastfeeding.
C)Help the infant sleep through the night.
D)Limit the infant's growth.
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Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38145
Sample Questions
Q1) In the continuing assessment of a preterm infant,the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. The nurse should suspect:
A)Hypovolemia and/or shock.
B)A nonneutral thermal environment.
C)Central nervous system injury.
D)Pending renal failure.
Q2) A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes,thick,meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate:
A)Meconium aspiration,hypoglycemia,and dry,cracked skin.
B)Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin,lethargy,and respiratory distress syndrome.
C)Golden yellow- to green stained-skin and nails,absence of scalp hair,and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat.
D)Hyperglycemia,hyperthermia,and an alert,wide-eyed appearance.
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Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38146
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the understanding and treatment of infants born to mothers who are substance abusers,nurses should be aware that:
A)Infants born to addicted mothers are also addicted.
B)Mothers who abuse one substance likely will use or abuse another,compounding the infant's difficulties.
C)The NICU Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) is designed to assess the damage the mother has done to herself.
D)No laboratory procedures are available that can identify the intrauterine drug exposure of the infant.
Q2) What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment?
A)Escherichia coli infection
B)Tuberculosis
C)Candidiasis
D)Group B streptococcal infection
Q3) _____________________,a synthetic opiate,has been the therapy of choice for heroin addiction. It crosses the placenta,leading to significant neonatal abstinence syndrome after birth.
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Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38147
Sample Questions
Q1) What is most descriptive of family-centered care?
A)Reduces effect of cultural diversity on the family
B)Encourages family dependence on health care system
C)Recognizes that the family is the constant in a child's life
D)Avoids expecting families to be part of the decision-making process
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of deaths caused by unintentional injuries?
A)More deaths occur in males.
B)More deaths occur in females.
C)Pattern of deaths varies widely in Western societies.
D)Pattern of deaths does not vary according to age and sex.
Q3) From a worldwide perspective,infant mortality in the United States:
A)Is the highest of the other developed nations.
B)Lags behind five other developed nations.
C)Is the lowest infant death rate of developed nations.
D)Lags behind 20 other developed nations.
Q4) EBP,__________________ _____________ _______________,is the collection,interpretation and integration of valid,important and applicable patient-reported,nurse-observed and research-derived information.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38148
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is collecting subjective and objective information about the target population to diagnose problems based on community needs. Which step in the community nursing process is this?
A)Planning
B)Diagnosis
C)Assessment
D)Establishing objectives
Q2) Demography is the study of population characteristics. Which demographic characteristic would be associated with an increased risk for hemophilia?
A)Age
B)Race and ethnicity
C)Gender
D)Socioeconomic status
Q3) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A)Nursing process
B)Epidemiologic process
C)Community-based statistics
D)Mortality and morbidity statistics
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38149
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent of a school-age child tells the school nurse that the parent is going through a divorce. The child has not been doing well in school and sometimes has trouble sleeping. The nurse should recognize this as:
A)Indicative of maladjustment.
B)Common reaction to divorce.
C)Suggestive of lack of adequate parenting.
D)Unusual response that indicates need for referral.
Q2) What is most characteristic of the physical punishment of children,such as spanking?
A)Psychologic impact is usually minimal.
B)Children rarely become accustomed to spanking.
C)Children's development of reasoning increases.
D)Misbehavior is likely to occur when parents are not present.
Q3) When assessing a family,the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children. This style of parenting is called:
A)Permissive.
B)Dictatorial.
C)Democratic.
D)Authoritarian.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Social,cultural and Religious Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term best describes the emotional attitude that one's own ethnic group is superior to others?
A)Culture
B)Ethnicity
C)Superiority
D)Ethnocentrism
Q2) The Vietnamese mother of a child being seen in the clinic avoids eye contact with the nurse. Considering cultural differences,the best explanation for this is that the parent:
A)Feels responsible for her child's illness.
B)Feels inferior to nurse.
C)Is embarrassed to seek health care.
D)Is showing respect for nurse.
Q3) When minority groups immigrate to another country,a certain degree of cultural or ethnic blending occurs through the involuntary process of:
A)Acculturation.
B)Ethnocentrism.
C)Culture shock.
D)Cultural sensitivity.
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Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health
Promotion
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is probably the single most important influence on growth at all stages of development?
A)Nutrition
B)Heredity
C)Culture
D)Environment
Q2) A child's skeletal age is best determined by:
A)Assessment of dentition.
B)Assessment of height over time.
C)Facial bone development.
D)Radiographs of the hand and wrist.
Q3) A mother reports that her 6-year-old child is highly active and irritable and that she has irregular habits and adapts slowly to new routines,people,or situations. According to Chess and Thomas,which category of temperament best describes this child?
A)Easy child
B)Difficult child
C)Slow-to-warm-up child
D)Fast-to-warm-up child
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Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical and Developmental Assessment
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38152
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must check vital signs on a 2-year-old boy who is brought to the clinic for his 24-month checkup. Which criteria should the nurse use in determining the appropriate-size blood pressure cuff? Choose all that apply.
A)The cuff is labeled "toddler."
B)The cuff bladder width is approximately 40% of the circumference of the upper arm.
C)The cuff bladder length covers 80% to 100% of the circumference of the upper arm.
D)The cuff bladder covers 50% to 66% of the length of the upper arm.
Q2) When interviewing the mother of a 3-year-old child,the nurse asks about developmental milestones such as the age of walking without assistance. This should be considered because these milestones are:
A)Unnecessary information because the child is age 3 years.
B)An important part of the family history.
C)An important part of the child's past growth and development.
D)An important part of the child's review of systems.
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36
Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38153
Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is usually the best choice for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for a child in the immediate postoperative period?
A)Codeine
B)Morphine
C)Methadone
D)Meperidine
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for severe postoperative pain. The nurse observes a slower respiratory rate,and the child cannot be aroused. The most appropriate management of this child is for the nurse to:
A)Administer naloxone (Narcan).
B)Discontinue IV infusion.
C)Discontinue morphine until child is fully awake.
D)Stimulate child by calling name,shaking gently,and asking to breathe deeply.
Q3) Physiologic measurements in children's pain assessment are:
A)The best indicator of pain in children of all ages.
B)Essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain.
C)Of most value when children also report having pain.
D)Of limited value as sole indicator of pain.
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Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38154
Sample Questions
Q1) When is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet?
A)2 to 3 months
B)4 to 6 months
C)When birth weight has tripled
D)When tooth eruption has started
Q2) The parents of a 12-month-old child ask the nurse if the child can eat hot dogs. The nurse's reply should be based on knowing that:
A)The child is too young to digest hot dogs.
B)The child is too young to eat hot dogs safely.
C)Hot dogs must be sliced into sections to prevent aspiration.
D)Hot dogs must be cut into small,irregular pieces to prevent aspiration.
Q3) In terms of gross motor development,what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? Choose all that apply.
A)Roll from abdomen to back
B)Put feet in mouth when supine
C)Roll from back to abdomen
D)Sit erect without support
E)Move from prone to sitting position
F) Adjust posture to reach an object
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Page 38
Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing with a parent group the importance of fluoride for healthy teeth. The nurse should recommend that the parents:
A)Use fluoridated mouth rinses in children older than 1 year.
B)Have children brush teeth with fluoridated toothpaste unless fluoride content of water supply is adequate.
C)Give fluoride supplements to breastfed infants beginning at age 1 month.
D)Determine whether water supply is fluoridated.
Q2) Developmentally most children at age 12 months:
A)Use a spoon adeptly.
B)Relinquish the bottle voluntarily.
C)Eat the same food as the rest of the family.
D)Reject all solid food in preference to the bottle.
Q3) Parents tell the nurse that their toddler daughter eats little at mealtime,only sits at the table with the family briefly,and wants snacks "all the time." The nurse should recommend that the parents:
A)Give her planned,frequent,and nutritious snacks.
B)Offer rewards for eating at mealtimes.
C)Avoid snacks so she is hungry at mealtimes.
D)Explain to her in a firm manner what is expected of her.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By what age would the nurse expect that most children could obey prepositional phrases such as "under," "on top of," "beside," and "in back of"?
A)18 months
B)24 months
C)3 years
D)4 years
Q2) What describes a child who is abused by the parent(s)?
A)Unintentionally contributes to the abusing situation
B)Belongs to a low socioeconomic population
C)Is healthier than the nonabused siblings
D)Abuses siblings in the same way as child is abused by the parent(s)
Q3) What would the nurse expect of a healthy 3-year-old child?
A)Jump rope
B)Ride a two-wheel bicycle
C)Skip on alternate feet
D)Balance on one foot for a few seconds
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Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A characteristic of children with depression is:
A)Increased range of affective response.
B)Preoccupation with need to perform well in school.
C)Change in appetite,resulting in weight loss or gain.
D)Tendency to prefer play instead of schoolwork.
Q2) Which statement best describes fear in school-age children?
A)They are increasingly fearful for body safety.
B)Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.
C)They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers.
D)Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.
Q3) The school nurse has been asked to begin teaching sex education in the 5th grade. The nurse should recognize that:
A)Children in 5th grade are too young for sex education.
B)Children should be discouraged from asking too many questions.
C)Correct terminology should be reserved for children who are older.
D)Sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development.
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Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38158
Sample Questions
Q1) By what age should concerns about pubertal delay be considered in boys?
A)12 to 12.5 years
B)12.5 to 13 years
C)13 to 13.5 years
D)13.5 to 14 years
Q2) The nurse is caring for an adolescent brought to the hospital with acute drug toxicity.
Cocaine is believed to be the drug involved. Data collection should include the:
A)Mode of administration.
B)Actual content of the drug.
C)Function the drug plays in the adolescent's life.
D)Adolescent's level of interest in rehabilitation.
Q3) Anorexia nervosa may best be described as:
A)Occurring most frequently in adolescent males.
B)Occurring most frequently in adolescents from lower socioeconomic groups.
C)Resulting from a posterior pituitary disorder.
D)Resulting in severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes.
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Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, Disability and End of Life Care
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38159
Sample Questions
Q1) A common parental reaction to a child with special needs is parental overprotection. Parental behavior suggestive of this includes:
A)Giving inconsistent discipline.
B)Providing consistent,strict discipline.
C)Forcing child to help self,even when not capable.
D)Encouraging social and educational activities not appropriate to child's level of capability.
Q2) The nurse is providing support to parents at the time their child is diagnosed with chronic disabilities. The nurse notices that the parents keep asking the same questions. The nurse should:
A)Patiently continue to answer questions.
B)Kindly refer them to someone else to answer their questions.
C)Recognize that some parents cannot understand explanations.
D)Suggest that they ask their questions when they are not upset.
Q3) The loss of a child is often the most difficult and traumatic event that a parent will ever experience. For this reason the parents should never be approached regarding organ donation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child
and Family
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38160
Sample Questions
Q1) A young child who has an intelligence quotient (IQ) of 45 would be described as:
A)Within the lower limits of the range of normal intelligence.
B)Mildly cognitively impaired but educable.
C)Moderately cognitively impaired but trainable.
D)Severely cognitively impaired and completely dependent on others for care.
Q2) Fragile X syndrome is:
A)A chromosome defect affecting only females.
B)A chromosome defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders.
C)The second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment.
D)The most common cause of noninherited cognitive impairment.
Q3) The most common type of hearing loss,which results from interference of transmission of sound to the middle ear,is called:
A)Conductive.
B)Sensorineural.
C)Mixed conductive-sensorineural.
D)Central auditory imperceptive.
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Chapter 43: Family-Centered Home Care
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the supervisors for a home health agency asks the nurse to give the family a survey evaluating the nurses and other service providers. The nurse should recognize this as:
A)Inappropriate unless nurses are able to evaluate family.
B)Appropriate to improve quality of care.
C)Inappropriate unless nurses and other providers agree to participate.
D)Inappropriate because family lacks knowledge necessary to evaluate professionals.
Q2) The home health nurse is caring for a child who requires complex care. The family expresses frustration related to obtaining accurate information about their child's illness and its management. The best action for the nurse is to:
A)Determine why the family is easily frustrated.
B)Refer the family to the child's primary care practitioner.
C)Clarify the family's request and provide information they want.
D)Answer only questions that are essential to the family knowledge base.
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Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of their striving for independence and productivity,which age group of children is particularly vulnerable to events that may lessen their feeling of control and power?
A)Infants
B)Toddlers
C)Preschoolers
D)School-age children
Q2) Four-year-old Brian appears to be upset by hospitalization. An appropriate intervention is to:
A)Let him know that it is all right to cry.
B)Give him time to gain control of himself.
C)Show him how other children are cooperating.
D)Tell him what a big boy he is to be so quiet.
Q3) When a preschool child is hospitalized without adequate preparation,the nurse should recognize that the child may likely see hospitalization as:
A)Punishment.
B)Threat to child's self-image.
C)An opportunity for regression.
D)Loss of companionship with friends.
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Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In some genetically susceptible children anesthetic agents can trigger malignant hyperthermia. The nurse should be alert in observing that,in addition to an increased temperature,an early sign of this disorder is:
A)Apnea.
B)Bradycardia.
C)Muscle rigidity.
D)Decreased blood pressure.
Q2) When liquid medication is given to a crying 10-month-old infant,which approach minimizes the possibility of aspiration?
A)Administering the medication with a syringe (without needle) placed along the side of the infant's tongue
B)Administering the medication as rapidly as possible with the infant securely restrained
C)Mixing the medication with the infant's regular formula or juice and administer by bottle
D)Keeping the child upright with the nasal passages blocked for a minute after administration
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Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin testing for tuberculosis (the Mantoux test) is recommended:
A)Every year for all children older than 2 years.
B)Every year for all children older than 10 years.
C)Every 2 years for all children starting at age 1 year.
D)Periodically for children who reside in high-prevalence regions.
Q2) Place on a hard surface.
A) Place on a hard surface.
B) Administer 30 chest compressions with two breaths.
C) Feel carotid pulse while maintaining head tilt with the other hand.
D) Use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver and check for breathing.
E) Place heel of one hand on lower half of sternum with other hand on top.
F) Give two rescue breaths.
Q3) Administer 30 chest compressions with two breaths.
A) Place on a hard surface.
B) Administer 30 chest compressions with two breaths.
C) Feel carotid pulse while maintaining head tilt with the other hand.
D) Use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver and check for breathing.
E) Place heel of one hand on lower half of sternum with other hand on top.
F) Give two rescue breaths.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is most descriptive of Meckel's diverticulum?
A)It is more common in females than in males.
B)It is acquired during childhood.
C)Intestinal bleeding may be mild or profuse.
D)Medical interventions are usually sufficient to treat the problem.
Q2) What is used to treat moderate-to-severe inflammatory bowel disease?
A)Antacids
B)Antibiotics
C)Corticosteroids
D)Antidiarrheal medications
Q3) Which clinical manifestation would most suggest acute appendicitis?
A)Rebound tenderness
B)Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding
C)Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating
D)Abdominal pain that is most intense at McBurney point
Q4) Which statement best characterizes hepatitis A?
A)The incubation period is 6 weeks to 6 months.
B)The principal mode of transmission is through the parenteral route.
C)Onset is usually rapid and acute.
D)There is a persistent carrier state.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keep child warm and calm.
A) Administer epinephrine.
B) Keep child warm and calm.
C) Obtain vascular access.
Q2) A chest x-ray film is ordered for a child with suspected cardiac problems. The child's parent asks the nurse,"What will the radiograph show about the heart?" The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that the x-ray film will:
A)Show bones of the chest but not the heart.
B)Measure electrical potential generated from heart muscle.
C)Provide a permanent record of heart size and configuration.
D)Provide a computerized image of heart vessels and tissues.
Q3) Which drug is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor?
A)Captopril (Capoten)
B)Furosemide (Lasix)
C)Spironolactone (Aldactone)
D)Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Q4) Obtain vascular access.
A) Administer epinephrine.
B) Keep child warm and calm.
C) Obtain vascular access.
Page 50
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Chapter 49: Hematologic and Immunologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young boy will receive a bone marrow transplant (BMT). This is possible because one of his older siblings is a histocompatible donor. This type of BMT is termed:
A)Syngeneic.
B)Allogeneic.
C)Monoclonal.
D)Autologous.
Q2) A young child with human immunodeficiency virus is receiving several antiretroviral drugs. The purpose of these drugs is to:
A)Cure the disease.
B)Delay disease progression.
C)Prevent spread of disease.
D)Treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
Q3) What is most descriptive of the pathophysiology of leukemia?
A)Increased blood viscosity occurs.
B)Thrombocytopenia (excessive destruction of platelets) occurs.
C)Unrestricted proliferation of immature white blood cells (WBCs) occurs.
D)The first stage of coagulation process is abnormally stimulated.
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51
Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diet of a child with chronic renal failure is usually characterized as:
A)High in protein.
B)Low in vitamin D.
C)Low in phosphorus.
D)Supplemented with vitamins A,E,and K.
Q2) A common side effect of corticosteroid therapy is:
A)Fever.
B)Hypertension.
C)Weight loss.
D)Increased appetite.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child with acute renal failure. What clinical manifestation should he or she recognize as a sign of hyperkalemia?
A)Dyspnea
B)Seizure
C)Oliguria
D)Cardiac arrhythmia
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury. The most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition is:
A)Posturing.
B)Vital signs.
C)Focal neurologic signs.
D)Level of consciousness.
Q2) Which type of seizure may be difficult to detect?
A)Absence
B)Generalized
C)Simple partial
D)Complex partial
Q3) What best describes a neuroblastoma?
A)Diagnosis is usually made after metastasis occurs.
B)Early diagnosis is usually possible because of the obvious clinical manifestations.
C)It is the most common brain tumor in young children.
D)It is the most common benign tumor in young children.
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes ask about exercise. The nurse should explain that:
A)Exercise will increase blood glucose.
B)Exercise should be restricted.
C)Extra snacks are needed before exercise.
D)Extra insulin is required during exercise.
Q2) Which statement best describes hypopituitarism?
A)Growth is normal during the first 3 years of life.
B)Weight is usually more retarded than height.
C)Skeletal proportions are normal for age.
D)Most of these children have subnormal intelligence.
Q3) Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of the:
A)Anterior pituitary.
B)Posterior pituitary.
C)Adrenal cortex.
D)Adrenal medulla.
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Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is admitted with extensive burns. The nurse notes that there are burns on the child's lips and singed nasal hairs. The nurse should suspect that the child has:
A)A chemical burn.
B)An inhalation injury.
C)An electrical burn.
D)A hot-water scald.
Q2) Atopic dermatitis (eczema) in the infant is:
A)Easily cured.
B)Worse in humid climates.
C)Associated with upper respiratory tract infections.
D)Associated with allergy with a hereditary tendency.
Q3) Where do the lesions of atopic dermatitis most commonly occur in the infant? Choose all that apply.
A)Cheeks.
B)Buttocks.
C)Extensor surfaces of arms and legs.
D)Back.
E)Trunk.
F) Scalp.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38172
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is usually tried first when a child is diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)?
A)Aspirin
B)Corticosteroids
C)Cytotoxic drugs such as methotrexate
D)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Q2) An adolescent is scheduled for a leg amputation in 2 days for treatment of osteosarcoma. The nurse's approach should include:
A)Answering questions with straightforward honesty.
B)Avoiding discussing the seriousness of the condition.
C)Explaining that,although the amputation is difficult,it will cure the cancer.
D)Assisting the adolescent in accepting the amputation as better than a long course of chemotherapy.
Q3) What effect does immobilization have on the cardiovascular system? It causes:
A)Venous stasis.
B)Increased vasopressor mechanism.
C)Normal distribution of blood volume.
D)Increased efficiency of orthostatic neurovascular reflexes.
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56
Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38173
Sample Questions
Q1) How much folic acid is recommended for women of childbearing age?
A)0.1 mg
B)0.4 mg
C)1.5 mg
D)2 mg
Q2) Which problem is most often associated with myelomeningocele?
A)Hydrocephalus
B)Craniosynostosis
C)Biliary atresia
D)Esophageal atresia
Q3) The most common problem of children born with a myelomeningocele is:
A)Neurogenic bladder.
B)Cognitive impairment.
C)Respiratory compromise.
D)Cranioschisis.
Q4) Spastic cerebral palsy is characterized by:
A)Hypertonicity and poor control of posture,balance,and coordinated motion.
B)Athetosis and dystonic movements.
C)Wide-based gait and poor performance of rapid,repetitive movements.
D)Tremors and lack of active movement.
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