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Maternal and Child Health Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the healthcare needs of women throughout pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the health and development of infants and children. The course covers topics such as prenatal care, labor and delivery management, newborn assessment, child growth and development, immunizations, and common pediatric illnesses. Emphasis is placed on preventive care, patient education, family involvement, and cultural sensitivity in nursing practice. Students also explore strategies for promoting maternal and child health in diverse populations, addressing public health issues, and delivering evidence-based care across various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing 5th Edition by McKinney
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55 Chapters
1615 Verified Questions
1615 Flashcards
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26 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8504
Sample Questions
Q1) Family-centered care (FCC)describes safe,quality care that recognizes and adapts to both the physical and psychosocial needs of the family.Which nursing practice coincides with the principles of FCC?
A) The newborn is returned to the nursery at night so that the mother can receive adequate rest before discharge.
B) The father is encouraged to go home after the baby is delivered.
C) All patients are routinely placed on the fetal monitor.
D) The nurse's assignment includes both mom and baby and increases the nurse's responsibility for education.
Answer: D
Q2) The fastest growing group of homeless people is
A) men and women preparing for retirement.
B) migrant workers.
C) single women and their children.
D) intravenous (IV) substance abusers.
Answer: C
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who uses critical thinking understands that the steps of critical thinking include (Select all that apply.)
A) therapeutic communication.
B) examining biases.
C) setting priorities.
D) managing data.
E) evaluating other factors.
Answer: B,D,E
Q2) What situation is most conducive to learning?
A) A teacher who speaks very little Spanish is teaching a class of Latino students.
B) A class is composed of students of various ages and educational backgrounds.
C) An auditorium is being used as a classroom for 300 students.
D) An Asian nurse provides nutritional information to a group of pregnant Asian women.
Answer: D
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a child from a Middle Eastern family.Which interventions should the nurse include in planning care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Include the father in the decision making.
B) Ask for a dietary consult to maintain religious dietary practices.
C) Plan for a male nurse to care for a female patient.
D) Ask the housekeeping staff to interpret if needed.
E) Allow time for prayer.
Answer: A,B,E
Q2) Which statement is true about the characteristics of a healthy family?
A) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.
B) Young families assume the total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.
C) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.
D) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective technique for communicating with toddlers is to A) have the toddler make up a story from a picture.
B) involve the toddler in dramatic play with dress-up clothing.
C) use picture books.
D) ask the toddler to draw pictures of his fears.
Q2) When meeting a toddler for the first time,the nurse initiates contact by
A) calling the toddler by name and picking the toddler up.
B) asking the toddler for his or her first name.
C) kneeling in front of the toddler and speaking softly to the child.
D) telling the toddler that you are his or her nurse today.
Q3) Which strategy is most likely to encourage a child to express feelings about the hospital experience?
A) Avoiding periods of silence
B) Asking yes/no questions
C) Sharing personal experiences
D) Using open-ended questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse wants to assess a chronically ill child's feelings regarding a lengthy hospitalization and treatments.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Ask direct questions of the child as to feelings.
B) Watch the child play on several occasions.
C) Discuss the situation with the parents.
D) Refer the child to the child life specialist for assessment.
Q2) Which statement best describes development in infants and children?
A) Development, a predictable and orderly process, occurs at varying rates within normal limits.
B) Development is primarily related to the growth in the number and size of cells.
C) Development occurs in a proximodistal direction with fine muscle development occurring first.
D) Development is more easily and accurately measured than growth.
Q3) Which child is most likely to be frightened by hospitalization?
A) A 4-month-old infant admitted with a diagnosis of bronchiolitis
B) A 2-year-old toddler admitted for cystic fibrosis
C) A 9-year-old child hospitalized with a fractured femur
D) A 15-year-old adolescent admitted for abdominal pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parent of a 2-week-old infant asks the nurse whether the baby needs fluoride supplements,since mom is exclusively breastfeeding the baby.What response by the nurse is best?
A) "Yes, the baby needs to begin taking them now."
B) "Is your water fluoridated?"
C) "She may need to begin taking them at age 6 months."
D) "You can use infant cereal mixed with fluoridated water instead."
Q2) The nurse understands that risk factors for hearing loss include (Select all that apply.)
A) structural abnormalities of the ear.
B) family history of hearing loss.
C) alcohol or drug use by the mother during pregnancy.
D) gestational diabetes.
E) trauma.
Q3) Approximately how much would a newborn who weighed 7 pounds 6 ounces at birth weigh at 1 year of age?
A) 14 3/4 lb
B) 22 1/8 lb
C) 29 1/2 lb
D) Unable to estimate weigh at 1 year
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parents tell the nurse that their preschool-age child seems to have an imaginary friend named Bob.Whenever their child is scolded or disciplined,the child in turn scolds Bob.What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Ask the child to introduce Bob when the parents are not present.
B) Inform the parents that this is normal behavior in this age group.
C) Suggest the parents discuss the situation with the provider.
D) Refer the child for hearing and vision screening.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a preschool aged child during a well-child checkup.This child has gained 2 pounds in 1 year.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Ask the parent to provide a 3-day diet diary.
B) Assess the child's teeth and gums.
C) Plot the weight gain on the growth chart.
D) Instruct the parent on today's needed vaccinations.
Q3) The nurse teaches the parents that which of the following is the primary purpose of a transitional object?
A) It helps the parents with the guilt they feel when they leave the child.
B) It keeps the child quiet at bedtime.
C) It is effective in decreasing anxiety in the toddler.
D) It decreases negativism and tantrums in the toddler.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A school-age child got a hand-knitted sweater from a relative as a gift.The child refuses to wear it,and it is causing a great deal of conflict in the family as the relative wants to see the child in it.What information can the nurse provide the family about this issue?
A) This is a time when strict discipline is needed and should be enforced.
B) It's best to choose your battles carefully or you'll fight over everything.
C) Teach the child a polite way of expressing dislike for the sweater.
D) Children this age find it painful to be different from their peers.
Q2) A school nurse reports to the parents that their child is complaining of frequent headaches.What suggestion does the nurse offer to the parents?
A) A complete neurologic workup
B) A vision screening exam
C) Decreased amount of household stress
D) Assessment for seasonal allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is evaluating the school's athletic programs for safety.What factors should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Students get adequate rest periods.
B) Equipment is in good condition.
C) Practices are appropriate for students.
D) Post-game concussion assessment if needed
E) Adequate fluids are available at all times.
Q2) The school nurse is presenting information on some risks of tattoos.What information should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.)
A) Amateur tattoos are difficult to remove.
B) Tattoos pose a risk for bloodborne and skin infections.
C) A tattoo may keep you from getting an MRI.
D) Tattoo dyes may cause allergic reactions.
E) Tattoo parlors are well regulated.
Q3) In girls,the initial indication of puberty is
A) menarche.
B) growth spurt.
C) growth of pubic hair.
D) breast development.
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8513
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement should a nurse make when telling a couple about the prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders?
A) Diagnosis can be obtained promptly through most hospital laboratories.
B) Common disorders can quickly be diagnosed through blood tests.
C) A comprehensive evaluation will result in an accurate diagnosis.
D) Diagnosis may be slow and could be inconclusive.
Q2) A nurse is creating a pedigree for a couple whose son has Tay-Sachs disease.What information from the pedigree would the nurse most likely find?
A) Parental consanguinity
B) Disease has skipped a generation.
C) Only men have had this disorder.
D) Only women have had this disorder.
Q3) A maternal-newborn nurse is caring for a mother who just delivered a baby born with Down syndrome.What nursing diagnosis is the most essential in caring for the mother of this infant?
A) Disturbed body image
B) Interrupted family processes
C) Anxiety
D) Risk for injury

Page 12
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing students learn that fertilization of the ovum takes place in which part of the fallopian tube?
A) Interstitial portion
B) Ampulla
C) Isthmus
D) Infundibulum
Q2) A young female patient comes to the school nurse to discuss her irregular periods.In providing education regarding the female reproductive cycle,which phases of the ovarian cycle does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Follicular
B) Ovulatory
C) Luteal
D) Proliferative
E) Secretory
Q3) The function of the cremaster muscle in men is to
A) aid in voluntary control of excretion of urine.
B) entrap blood in the penis to produce an erection.
C) assist with transporting sperm.
D) aid in temperature control of the testicles.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is 16 weeks pregnant with her first baby.She asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move.The best answer is
A) "You should have felt the baby move by now."
B) "Within the next month, you should start to feel fluttering sensations."
C) "The baby is moving, but you can't feel it yet."
D) "Some babies are quiet, and you don't feel them move."
Q2) Which statement related to oogenesis is correct?
A) Two million primary oocytes will mature.
B) At birth, all ova are contained in the female's ovaries.
C) The oocytes complete their division during fetal life.
D) Monthly, at least two oocytes mature.
Q3) While teaching an early pregnancy class,the nurse explains that the morula is a
A) fertilized ovum before mitosis begins.
B) flattened disk-shaped layer of cells within a fluid-filled sphere.
C) double layer of cells that becomes the placenta.
D) solid ball composed of the first cells formed after fertilization.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a woman who had infibulation performed on her as a child.Which of the following actions by the perinatal nursing staff are appropriate for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Obtaining frequent urinalysis collections
B) Providing larger equipment for exams
C) Astute assessments for pain during procedures
D) Monitoring for infections
E) Draping the woman maximally
Q2) A patient at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain.The nurse's assessment should include
A) observation of posture and body mechanics.
B) palpation of the lumbar spine.
C) exercise pattern and duration.
D) ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted.
Q3) Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of
A) inadequate intake of iron.
B) dilution of hemoglobin concentration.
C) the fetus establishing iron stores.
D) decreased production of erythrocytes.
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The traditional diet of Asian women includes little meat or dairy products and may be low in calcium and iron.The nurse can help the woman increase her intake of these foods by
A) emphasizing the need for increased milk intake during pregnancy.
B) suggesting she eat more "hot" foods during pregnancy.
C) telling her husband that she must increase her intake of fruits and vegetables for the baby's sake.
D) suggesting she eat more tofu, bok choy, and broccoli.
Q2) To increase the absorption of iron in a pregnant woman,the nurse teaches her that iron preparations should be given with A) milk.
B) tea.
C) orange juice.
D) coffee.
Q3) Which pregnant woman should have the least weight gain during pregnancy?
A) Woman pregnant with twins
B) Woman in early adolescence
C) Woman shorter than 62 inches or 157 cm
D) Woman who was obese before pregnancy
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While working with the pregnant woman in her first trimester,the nurse is aware that chorionic villus sampling (CVS)can be performed during pregnancy as early as _____ weeks.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Q2) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for the patient hospitalized at 34 weeks with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Identification of abnormal fetal cells
B) Detection of metabolic disorders
C) Determination of fetal lung maturity
D) Identification of sex of the fetus
Q3) When is the best time to determine gestational age based on biparietal diameter through ultrasound?
A) First trimester only
B) Second trimester only
C) Any time
D) Second half of pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to A) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
B) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
C) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
D) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
Q2) The nurse who elects to practice in the area of obstetrics learns about the "four Ps."
What are the "four Ps"?
A) Powers
B) Passage
C) Position
D) Passenger
E) Psyche
Q3) Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent and require further nursing interventions?
A) Decreased peristalsis
B) A full bladder
C) Reduction in internal uterine size
D) Rupture of membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes a nonreassuring pattern of the fetal heart rate.The mother is already lying on her left side.What nursing action is indicated?
A) Lower the head of the bed.
B) Place the mother in a Trendelenburg position.
C) Change her position to the right side.
D) Place a wedge under the left hip.
Q2) A student nurse is placing a tocotransducer on a woman for electronic fetal monitoring.What action by the student indicates to the registered nurse that the student understands the procedure?
A) Places the tocotransducer over the uterine fundus
B) Prepares sterile field for fetal scalp electrode placement
C) Positions the tocotransducer on the woman's upper arm
D) Attaches the tocotransducer to the woman's lower abdomen
Q3) A nurse might be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp
A) as part of fetal scalp blood sampling.
B) in response to tocolysis.
C) in preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring.
D) to elicit an acceleration in the FHR.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive anxiety in labor heightens the woman's sensitivity to pain by increasing A) muscle tension.
B) blood flow to the uterus.
C) the pain threshold.
D) rest time between contractions.
Q2) The nurse caring for women in labor understands that childbirth pain is different from other types of pain in that it is
A) more responsive to pharmacologic management.
B) associated with a physiologic process.
C) designed to make one withdraw from the stimulus.
D) less intense.
Q3) A woman is experiencing most of her labor pain in her back.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Positioning the woman lying supine with head slightly elevated
B) Showing the support person how to apply firm pressure to the sacrum
C) Assisting the woman to sit upright with the legs straight
D) Massaging her upper back during a contraction
Q4) A newborn infant weighing 8 lb needs naloxone (Narcan).This infant should receive approximately _____ mg.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse understands that which condition is a contraindication for an amniotomy?
A) Dilation less than 3 cm
B) Cephalic presentation
C) -2 station
D) Right occiput posterior position
Q2) Surgical,medical,or mechanical methods may be used for labor induction.Which technique is considered a mechanical method of induction?
A) Amniotomy
B) Intravenous Pitocin
C) Transcervical catheter
D) Vaginal insertion of prostaglandins
Q3) A nursing faculty member explains to students that which patient status is an acceptable indication for serial oxytocin induction of labor?
A) Past 42 weeks' gestation
B) Multiple fetuses
C) Polyhydramnios
D) History of long labors
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is examining a woman 2 months after delivery.The woman has lost 25 pounds.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Counsel her on other weight loss measures.
B) Ask her for a dietary recall for 3 days.
C) Instruct her on exercises for faster loss.
D) Explain that her weight loss is affecting her breast milk.
Q2) A postpartum patient asks,"Will these stretch marks go away?" The nurse's best response is
A) "They will fade and be gone by your 6-week checkup."
B) "No, unfortunately they will never fade away."
C) "Yes, eventually they will totally disappear."
D) "They will fade to silvery lines but won't disappear completely."
Q3) During which stage of role attainment do the parents become acquainted with their baby and combine parenting activities with cues from the infant?
A) Anticipatory
B) Formal
C) Informal
D) Personal
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the baby's hands and feet are blue.The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called A) acrocyanosis.
B) erythema neonatorum.
C) harlequin color.
D) vernix caseosa.
Q2) A nurse assesses a newborn and finds him to be jittery with a poor suck reflex.What action by the nurse takes priority?
A) Ensure the warmer is set to the correct temperature.
B) Obtain a heel stick for bedside glucose reading.
C) Listen to the newborn's heart and lungs.
D) Perform a gestational age assessment.
Q3) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Tonic neck
C) Stepping
D) Plantar grasp
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing follow-up care often includes home visits for the new mother and her infant.Which information related to home visits is correct?
A) Ideally the visit is scheduled between 24 and 72 hours after discharge.
B) Home visits are available in all areas.
C) Visits are completed within a 30-minute time frame.
D) Blood draws are not a part of the home visit.
Q2) When instructing parents on the correct use of a bulb syringe it is important include what information?
A) Avoid suctioning the nares.
B) Insert the compressed bulb into the center of the mouth.
C) Suction the mouth first.
D) Remove the bulb syringe from the crib when finished.
Q3) The student nurse asks why gloves are needed when handling a newborn because the newborn "hasn't been exposed to anything." What response by the nurse is best?
A) It is part of standard precautions.
B) It is hospital policy.
C) Amniotic fluid and maternal blood pose risks to us.
D) We are protecting the infant from our bacteria.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman wants to breastfeed her infant; however,her husband is not convinced that there are any scientific reasons to do so.Which statement by the nurse is true? Bottle-feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas
A) increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies.
B) helps the infant sleep through the night.
C) ensures that the infant is getting iron in a form that is easily absorbed.
D) requires that multivitamin supplements be given to the infant.
Q2) A woman wants to breastfeed,but her nipples are inverted and she is concerned it won't be possible.What does the nurse teach the woman about this condition?
A) A woman with inverted nipples rarely is successful at breastfeeding.
B) You can use a breast pump just prior to feeding to evert the nipples.
C) Massage the breasts prior to feeding to allow milk let-down.
D) Try changing the infant's position during feedings.
Q3) To prevent breast engorgement,the new breastfeeding mother should be instructed to
A) apply cold packs to the breast before feeding.
B) breastfeed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
C) limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
D) feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected anomaly?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
C) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
D) Explain the defect, and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
Q2) Which of the following items are inconsistent with the nurse's knowledge of symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome?
A) Respiratory conditions
B) Impaired growth
C) CNS abnormality
D) Facial abnormalities
Q3) In counseling a patient who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption,the nurse should do which of the following?
A) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
B) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
C) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
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Q1) The nurse who suspects that a patient has early signs of ectopic pregnancy should be observing her for which symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pelvic pain
B) Abdominal pain
C) Unanticipated heavy bleeding
D) Vaginal spotting or light bleeding
E) Missed period
Q2) Rh incompatibility can occur if the woman is Rh negative and her
A) fetus is Rh positive.
B) husband is Rh positive.
C) fetus is Rh negative.
D) husband and fetus are both Rh negative.
Q3) A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache,visual changes,and epigastric pain.Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
A) Anxiety due to hospitalization
B) Worsening disease and impending seizure
C) Effects of magnesium sulfate
D) Gastrointestinal upset
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Q1) With regard to the association of maternal diabetes and other risk situations affecting mother and fetus,nurses should be aware that
A) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy.
B) Hydramnios rarely occurs in diabetic pregnancies.
C) Infections occur about as often and are considered about as serious in diabetic and nondiabetic pregnancies.
D) Women should not use insulin pumps during pregnancy.
Q2) When caring for a pregnant woman with suspected cardiomyopathy,the nurse must be alert for signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation,which include (Select all that apply.)
A) A regular heart rate
B) Hypertension
C) Shortness of breath
D) Weakness
E) Crackles in the lung bases
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Q1) Why is adequate hydration important when uterine activity occurs before pregnancy is at term?
A) Fluid and electrolyte imbalance can interfere with the activity of the uterine pacemakers.
B) Dehydration may contribute to uterine irritability for some women.
C) Dehydration decreases circulating blood volume, which leads to uterine ischemia.
D) Fluid needs are increased because of increased metabolic activity occurring during contractions.
Q2) What factor found in maternal history should alert the nurse to the potential for a prolapsed umbilical cord?
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Pregnancy at 38 weeks of gestation
C) Presenting part at station -3
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
Q3) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean delivery because
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the woman delivers vaginally.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
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Q1) One of the first symptoms of puerperal infection to assess for in the postpartum woman is
A) fatigue continuing for longer than 1 week.
B) pain with voiding.
C) profuse vaginal bleeding with ambulation.
D) temperature of 38° C (100.4° F) or higher after 24 hours.
Q2) A multiparous woman is admitted to the postpartum unit after a rapid labor and birth of a 4000-g infant.Her fundus is boggy,lochia is heavy,and vital signs are unchanged.The nurse has the woman void and massages her fundus,but her fundus remains difficult to find,and the rubra lochia remains heavy.What action should the nurse take next?
A) Continue to massage the fundus.
B) Notify the provider.
C) Recheck vital signs.
D) Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Q3) The nurse should expect medical intervention for subinvolution to include
A) oral methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) for 48 hours.
B) oxytocin intravenous infusion for 8 hours.
C) oral fluids to 3000 mL/day.
D) intravenous fluid and blood replacement.
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Q1) Which combination of expressing pain could be demonstrated in a neonate?
A) Low-pitched crying, tachycardia, eyelids open wide
B) Cry face, flaccid limbs, closed mouth
C) High-pitched, shrill cry, withdrawal, change in heart rate
D) Cry face, eye squeeze, increase in blood pressure
Q2) A nurse is caring for a late preterm infant.What action by the nurse is inconsistent with best practice to prevent cold stress?
A) Wean the infant directly to an open crib.
B) Check temperature every 3 to 4 hours.
C) Encourage kangaroo care.
D) Place infant on a radiant warmer.
Q3) While caring for the postterm infant,the nurse recognizes that the fetus may have passed meconium prior to birth as a result of
A) hypoxia in utero.
B) NEC.
C) placental insufficiency.
D) rapid use of glycogen stores.
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Q1) A nurse is participating in a neonatal resuscitation.What action by the nurse takes priority?
A) Suction the mouth and nose.
B) Stimulate the infant by rubbing the back.
C) Perform the Apgar test.
D) Place the infant in a preheated warmer.
Q2) The nurse learns that the most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is which of the following?
A) Hepatic disease
B) Hemolytic disorders in the newborn
C) Postmaturity
D) Congenital heart defect
Q3) The goal of treatment of the infant with phenylketonuria (PKU)is to A) cure cognitive delays.
B) prevent central nervous system (CNS) damage.
C) prevent gastrointestinal symptoms.
D) prevent the renal system damage.
Q4) The nurse is preparing a dose of naloxone for a newborn who weighs 6.9 pounds.How much naloxone does the nurse administer? ______ mg
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Q1) A woman has been prescribed metformin at the infertility clinic.She says "Why am I on this? I am not a diabetic; my sister takes it for her diabetes!" What response by the nurse is best?
A) "It is used to promote ovulation in polycystic ovary disease."
B) "It will prevent your body from forming antibodies to sperm."
C) "It helps prepare the uterine lining for eventual implantation."
D) "I don't know but I will find out and let you know right away."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the educational packet provided to a patient about tubal ligation.What important facts should the nurse point out? (Select all that apply.)
A) "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure."
B) "This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization."
C) "Sterilization offers protection against sexually transmitted diseases."
D) "Sterilization offers no protection against sexually transmitted diseases."
E) "Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."
Q3) Which woman is the safest candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes
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Q1) Which woman is most likely to have osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old woman receiving estrogen therapy
B) A 60-year-old woman who takes supplemental calcium
C) A 55-year-old woman with a sedentary lifestyle
D) A 65-year-old woman who walks 2 miles each day
Q2) When a nurse is counseling a woman for primary dysmenorrhea,which nonpharmacologic intervention might be recommended?
A) Increasing the intake of red meat and simple carbohydrates
B) Reducing the intake of diuretic foods, such as peaches and asparagus
C) Temporarily substituting physical activity for a sedentary lifestyle
D) Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping
Q3) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is called
A) ductal ectasia.
B) intraductal papilloma.
C) chronic cystic disease.
D) fibroadenoma.
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Q1) Kimberly is having a checkup before starting kindergarten.The nurse asks her to do the "finger-to-nose" test.The nurse is testing for
A) deep tendon reflexes.
B) cerebellar function.
C) sensory discrimination.
D) ability to follow directions.
Q2) Which cranial nerve is assessed when the child is asked to imitate the examiner's wrinkled frown,wrinkled forehead,smile,and raised eyebrow?
A) Accessory
B) Hypoglossal
C) Trigeminal
D) Facial
Q3) During examination of a toddler's extremities,the nurse notes that the child is bowlegged.The nurse should recognize that this finding is
A) abnormal, requiring further investigation.
B) abnormal unless it occurs in conjunction with knock-knee.
C) normal if the condition is unilateral or asymmetric.
D) normal, because the lower back and leg muscles are not yet well developed.
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Q1) An emergency department nurse is making a general appearance assessment on a preschool child just admitted to the emergency department.Which general assessment findings indicate the child "looks bad"? (Select all that apply.)
A) Color pale
B) Capillary refill less than 2 seconds
C) Unwilling to separate from parents
D) Cold extremities
E) Lethargic
Q2) What may cause hypovolemic shock in children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperthermia
B) Burns
C) Vomiting or diarrhea
D) Hemorrhage
E) Skin abscesses
Q3) Assessment of a child with a submersion injury focuses on which system?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Respiratory
C) Neurologic
D) Gastrointestinal
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Q1) How should the nurse advise parents whose preschooler used to sleep through the night and now awakens at intervals after a short hospitalization?
A) Regressive behavior after a hospitalization is normal and usually short term.
B) The child is probably expressing anger.
C) Egocentric behavior often manifests itself when the child is left alone to sleep.
D) The child is probably feeling pain and needs further evaluation.
Q2) A 3-year-old child cries,kicks,and clings to the father when the parents try to leave the hospital room.What is the nurse's best response to the parents about this behavior?
A) "Your child is showing a normal response to the stress of hospitalization."
B) "Your child is not coping effectively with hospitalization."
C) "Parents should stay with children during hospitalization."
D) "You can avoid this if you leave after your child falls asleep."
Q3) Which intervention helps a hospitalized toddler feel a sense of control?
A) Assign the same nurses to care for the child.
B) Put a cover over the child's crib.
C) Require parents to stay with the child.
D) Follow the child's usual routines for feeding and bedtime.
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Q1) Identify the most appropriate nursing response to a parent who tells the nurse,"I don't want my child to know she is dying."
A) "I shall respect your decision. I won't say anything to your child."
B) "Don't you think she has a right to know about her condition?"
C) "Would you like me to arrange for the provider to speak with your child?"
D) "I'll answer any questions she asks me as honestly as I can."
Q2) What intervention will best help the siblings of a child with special needs?
A) Explaining to the siblings that embarrassment is unhealthy
B) Encouraging the parents not to expect siblings to help them care for the child with special needs
C) Providing information to the siblings about the child's condition only as they request it
D) Suggesting to the parents ways of maintaining the siblings' usual routine and participation in activities
Q3) What corresponds to a 5-year-old child's understanding of death?
A) Loss of a caretaker
B) Reversible and temporary
C) Permanent
D) Inevitable
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Q1) A parent calls the pediatrician's office because her 1-year-old child has a 100° F temperature.What is the most appropriate initial nursing response to make to the parent?
A) "Did you feel your child's forehead?"
B) "Does your child appear to be uncomfortable?"
C) "Has anyone in your home been sick lately?"
D) "Don't worry if the temperature is less than 101° F."
Q2) A nurse is teaching parents how to care for a child's gastrostomy tube at home.What information should the nurse include?
A) Bring the child to the clinic for cleaning
B) Clean around the insertion site daily with soap and water.
C) Expect some leakage around the button.
D) Remove the tube for cleaning once a week.
Q3) Which action by the nurse indicates that the correct procedure has been used to measure vital signs in a toddler?
A) Measuring oral temperature for 5 minutes
B) Counting apical heart rate for 60 seconds
C) Observing chest movement for respiratory rate
D) Recording blood pressure as P/80

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Q1) What is the best action for the nurse to take when giving medications to a 3-year-old child?
A) Tell the child to take the medication "right now."
B) Tell the child to take the medication or she will have to get a shot.
C) Allow the child to choose fruit punch or apple juice when giving the medication.
D) Tell the child that another child her age just took his medication like a "good girl."
Q2) Which factor should the nurse remember when administering topical medication to an infant as compared with an adolescent?
A) Infants require a larger dosage because of a greater body surface area.
B) Infants have a thinner stratum corneum that absorbs more medication.
C) Infants have a smaller percentage of muscle mass.
D) The skin of infants is less sensitive to allergic reactions.
Q3) What is the 24-hour maintenance fluid requirement for a child weighing 18.7 pounds?
Q4) A provider orders odansetron 0.15 mg/kg IV push for a child who weighs 15 pounds.How much medication does the nurse draw up?
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Q1) When assessing pain in any child,the nurse should consider that
A) any pain assessment tool can be used to assess pain in children.
B) children as young as 1 year old use words to express pain.
C) the child's behavioral, physiologic, and verbal responses are valuable when assessing pain.
D) pain assessment tools are minimally effective for communicating about pain.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old girl who had surgery 12 hours ago.The child tells the nurse that she does not have pain,but a few minutes later tells her parent that she does.What should the nurse consider when interpreting this?
A) Truthful reporting of pain should occur by this age.
B) Inconsistency in pain reporting suggests that pain is not present.
C) Children use pain experiences to manipulate their parents.
D) Children may be experiencing pain even though they deny it to the nurse.
Q3) A student nurse is preparing to administer fentanyl 2-mcg/kg IV push to a child who weighs 26.4 pounds.The pharmacy delivers a vial with 50 mcg/10 mL.How much fentanyl does the student draw up?
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Q1) What is the priority nursing intervention for a 6-month-old infant hospitalized with diarrhea and dehydration?
A) Estimating insensible fluid loss
B) Collecting urine for culture and sensitivity
C) Palpating the posterior fontanel
D) Measuring the infant's weight
Q2) The parents of a child with acid-base imbalance ask the nurse about mechanisms that regulate acid-base balance.Which statement by the nurse accurately explains the mechanisms regulating acid-base balance in children?
A) The respiratory, renal, and chemical-buffering systems
B) The kidneys balance acid; the lungs balance base.
C) The cardiovascular and integumentary systems
D) The skin, kidney, and endocrine systems
Q3) You are caring for a 44-lb child who is hospitalized with vomiting and severe dehydration.The physician has ordered parenteral rehydration therapy to restore circulation.The order is for sodium chloride (0.9%)solution in a 20-mL/kg bolus.How much will you give?
Q4) Bodily fluids are composed of two elements: water and _____.
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Q1) What should be included in the care for a neonate who was diagnosed with pertussis?
A) Monitoring hemoglobin level
B) Hearing test before discharge
C) Serial platelet counts
D) Prophylactic antibiotics for all close contacts
Q2) A child taking oral corticosteroids for asthma is exposed to varicella.The child has not had the varicella vaccine and has never had the disease.What intervention should be taken to prevent varicella from developing?
A) No intervention is needed unless varicella develops.
B) Administer the varicella vaccine as soon as possible.
C) The child should begin a course of oral antibiotics.
D) The child should be prescribed acyclovir.
Q3) Which action is initiated when a child has been scratched by a potentially rabid animal?
A) No intervention unless the child becomes symptomatic
B) Administration of immune globulin around the wound
C) Administration of rabies vaccine on days 3, 7, 14, and 28
D) Administration of both immune globulin and vaccine as soon as possible after exposure
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Q1) What disorder is caused by a virus that primarily infects a specific subset of T lymphocytes,the CD4<sup>+</sup> T cells?
A) Raynaud phenomenon
B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
D) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Q2) The nurse is planning care for an adolescent with AIDS.The priority nursing goal is to A) prevent infection.
B) prevent secondary cancers.
C) restore immunologic defenses.
D) identify sources of infection.
Q3) The nurse observes a rash on a teen's face which is characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Teach the teen about using sunscreen.
B) Prepare the teen for a bone marrow biopsy.
C) Educate the teen on proper use of antibiotics.
D) Demonstrate how to use an Epi-pen.
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Q1) A baby is scheduled for abdominal surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and has an NG tube to intermittent suction.When the family asks why the child has the tube,what response by the nurse is best?
A) "The nasogastric tube decompresses the abdomen and decreases vomiting."
B) "We can keep a more accurate measure of intake and output with the tube."
C) "The tube is used to decrease postoperative diarrhea."
D) "The nasogastric tube makes the baby more comfortable after surgery."
Q2) Bismuth subsalicylate,clarithromycin,and metronidazole are prescribed for a child with a peptic ulcer for what purpose?
A) Eradicate Helicobacter pylori
B) Coat gastric mucosa
C) Treat epigastric pain
D) Reduce gastric acid production
Q3) What should the nurse teach a school-age child and his parents about the management of ulcer disease?
A) Eat a bland, low-fiber diet in small, frequent meals.
B) Eat three balanced meals a day with no snacking between meals.
C) The child needs to eat alone in a quiet spot to avoid stress.
D) Do not give antacids 1 hour before or after antiulcer medications.
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Q1) Which intervention is appropriate when examining a male infant for cryptorchidism?
A) Cooling the examiner's hands
B) Taking a rectal temperature
C) Eliciting the cremasteric reflex
D) Warming the room
Q2) Which condition is characterized by a history of bloody diarrhea,fever,abdominal pain,and low hemoglobin and platelet counts?
A) Acute viral gastroenteritis
B) Acute glomerulonephritis
C) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
D) Acute nephrotic syndrome
Q3) A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis.The nurse expects the urinalysis during this acute phase to show which of the following?
A) Bacteriuria and hematuria
B) Hematuria and proteinuria
C) Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity
D) Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity
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Q1) What is the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s)of CF?
A) Meconium ileus
B) History of poor intestinal absorption
C) Foul-smelling, frothy, greasy stools
D) Recurrent pneumonia and lung infections
Q2) The parent of a toddler calls the nurse,asking about croup.What is a distinguishing manifestation of spasmodic croup?
A) Wheezing is heard audibly.
B) It has a harsh, barky cough.
C) It is bacterial in nature.
D) The child has a high fever.
Q3) Teaching safety precautions with the administration of antihistamines is important because of what common side effect?
A) Dry mouth
B) Excitability
C) Drowsiness
D) Dry mucous membranes
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Q1) Which postoperative intervention should be questioned for a child after a cardiac catheterization?
A) Continue intravenous (IV) fluids until the infant is tolerating oral fluids.
B) Check the dressing for bleeding.
C) Assess peripheral circulation on the affected extremity.
D) Keep the affected leg flexed and elevated.
Q2) The nurse discovers a heart murmur in an infant 1 hour after birth.What does the nurse know about when fetal shunts close in the neonate?
A) When the umbilical cord is cut
B) Within several days of birth
C) Within a month after birth
D) By the end of the first year of life
Q3) The nurse assessing a premature newborn infant auscultates a continuous machinery-like murmur.What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Educate parents on daily low-dose aspirin regime.
B) Prepare to administer indomethacin.
C) Administer next dose of enalapril early.
D) Position infant in the knee-chest position.
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Q1) Which of the following is an accurate description of anemia?
A) Increased blood viscosity
B) Depressed hematopoietic system
C) Presence of abnormal hemoglobin
D) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with iron-deficiency anemia.What should the nurse expect to find when reviewing the results of the complete blood count (CBC)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Low hemoglobin levels
B) Elevated red blood cell (RBC) levels
C) Elevated mean cell volume (MCV) levels
D) Low reticulocyte count
E) Decreased MCV levels
Q3) An assessment of a 7-month-old infant with a hemoglobin level of 6.5 mg/dL is likely to reveal an infant who is
A) lethargic, pale, and irritable.
B) thin, energetic, and sleeps little.
C) anorexic, vomiting, and has watery stools.
D) flushed, fussy, and tired.
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Q1) What should the nurse teach parents about oral hygiene for the child receiving chemotherapy?
A) Brush the teeth briskly to remove bacteria.
B) Use a mouthwash that contains alcohol.
C) Inspect the child's mouth daily for ulcers.
D) Perform oral hygiene twice a day.
Q2) While completing an assessment on a 6-month-old infant,which finding should the nurse recognize as a symptom of a brain tumor?
A) Blurred vision
B) Increased head circumference
C) Vomiting when getting out of bed
D) Headache
Q3) What is a priority nursing diagnosis for the 4-year-old child newly diagnosed with leukemia?
A) Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to mediastinal disease
B) Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressed state
C) Disturbed Body Image related to alopecia
D) Impaired Skin Integrity related to radiation therapy
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Q1) With what beverage should the parents of a child with ringworm be taught to give griseofulvin?
A) Water
B) A carbonated drink
C) Milk
D) Fruit juice
Q2) What nursing intervention holds the highest priority in the initial care of a child with a major burn injury?
A) Establishing and maintaining the child's airway
B) Establishing and maintaining intravenous access
C) Inserting a catheter to monitor hourly urine output
D) Inserting a nasogastric tube to supply adequate nutrition
Q3) A nurse working in a trauma center would facilitate referrals to a burn center for which of the following children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electrical burn
B) Chemical burn
C) Burn from child abuse
D) Burn in the perineal area
E) 5% second-degree burn
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Q1) A child has a cast applied to the left forearm.Which interventions should the nurse include in the home care instructions for the parents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Keep small toys away from the cast.
B) Use a padded ruler to scratch the skin under the cast if it itches.
C) Assess the cast daily for unusual odors.
D) Elevate the extremity on pillows for the first 24 to 48 hours.
E) Numbness and tingling in the extremity are expected.
Q2) When assessing the child with osteogenesis imperfecta,the nurse should expect to observe
A) discolored teeth.
B) below-normal intelligence.
C) increased muscle tone.
D) above-average stature.
Q3) A child with osteomyelitis asks the nurse,"What is a 'sed' rate?" What is the best response for the nurse?
A) "It tells us how you are responding to the treatment."
B) "It tells us what type of antibiotic you need."
C) "It tells us whether we need to immobilize your extremity."
D) "It tells us how your nerves and muscles are doing."
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Q1) At what age is sexual development in boys and girls considered to be precocious?
A) Boys, 11 years; girls, 9 years
B) Boys, 12 years; girls, 10 years
C) Boys, 9 years; girls, 8 years
D) Boys, 10 years; girls, 9 1/2 years
Q2) New parents ask the nurse,"Why is it necessary for our baby to have the newborn blood test?" The nurse explains that the priority outcome of mandatory newborn screening for inborn errors of metabolism is
A) appropriate community referral for affected infants.
B) parental education about raising a special needs child.
C) early identification of serious genetically transmitted metabolic diseases.
D) early identification of electrolyte imbalances.
Q3) What is the best time for the nurse to assess the peak effectiveness of subcutaneously administered regular insulin?
A) Two hours after administration
B) Four hours after administration
C) Immediately after administration
D) Thirty minutes after administration
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a school-age child for computed tomography (CT scan)to assess cerebral function.Which statement should the nurse include when preparing the child?
A) "Pain medication will be given."
B) "The scan will not hurt."
C) "You will be able to move once the equipment is in place."
D) "Unfortunately no one can remain in the room with you during the test."
Q2) What should be the nurse's first action when a child with a head injury complains of double vision and a headache,and then vomits?
A) Immobilize the child's neck.
B) Report this information to the physician.
C) Darken the room and put a cool cloth on the child's forehead.
D) Restrict the child's oral fluid intake.
Q3) Which finding in an analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
A) CSF appears cloudy.
B) CSF pressure is decreased.
C) Few leukocytes are present.
D) Glucose level is increased compared with blood.
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Q1) Which statement about suicide is correct?
A) Children younger than 10 years of age are least likely to attempt suicide.
B) Suicide risk decreases with age.
C) Suicide is usually an isolated event in a school community.
D) The prevalence of suicide attempts is higher among males.
Q2) Which finding noted by the nurse on a physical assessment is most suggestive that a child has been sexually abused?
A) Swelling of the genitalia and pain on urination
B) Smooth philtrum and thin upper lip
C) Speech and physical development delays
D) History of constipation, drowsiness, and constricted pupils
Q3) Which sign or symptom is likely to be manifested by an adolescent with a depressive disorder?
A) Abuse of alcohol
B) Impulsivity and distractibility
C) Carelessness and inattention to details
D) Refusal to leave the house
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Q1) Which statement best describes fragile X syndrome?
A) Chromosomal defect affecting only females.
B) Chromosomal defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders.
C) It is a common genetic cause of cognitive impairment.
D) Most common cause of noninherited cognitive impairment.
Q2) The infant with Down syndrome is closely monitored during the first year of life for what serious condition?
A) Thyroid complications
B) Orthopedic malformations
C) Dental malformation
D) Cardiac abnormalities
Q3) A nurse is giving a parent information about autism.Which statement made by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) Autism is characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation.
B) The onset of autism usually occurs before 3 years of age.
C) Children with autism have imitation and gesturing skills.
D) Autism can be treated effectively with medication.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8558
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to parents of a 2 1/2-year-old.What instruction is best to help the child's language development?
A) Have the child's hearing tested at 3 years.
B) Use clear speech and avoid baby talk.
C) Speak with different voice inflections.
D) Insist the child listen when you are talking.
Q2) A 5-year-old diagnosed with chlamydial conjunctivitis should be carefully assessed for which of the following?
A) Sexual abuse
B) Immune deficiency
C) Congenital cataract
D) Secondary glaucoma
Q3) Which teaching guideline helps prevent eye injuries during sports and play activities?
A) Restrict helmet use to those who wear eye glasses or contact lenses.
B) Discourage the use of goggles with helmets so the child can see better.
C) Wear eye protection when participating in high-risk sports such as paintball.
D) Wear a face mask when playing any sport or playing roughly.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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