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Maternal and Child Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women throughout pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the health and development of infants and children. The course covers key concepts such as prenatal assessment and education, safe delivery practices, neonatal care, growth milestones, immunizations, nutrition, and the prevention and management of common childhood illnesses. It also addresses psychosocial and cultural factors affecting maternal and child health, emphasizes the importance of family-centered care, and introduces students to national and global public health initiatives aimed at improving outcomes for mothers and children.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Maternity and Pediatric Nursing 8th Edition by Leifer
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1027 Verified Questions
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Q1) A patient chooses to have the certified nurse-midwife (CNM)provide care during her pregnancy.What does the CNM's scope of practice include?
A) Practice independent from medical supervision
B) Comprehensive prenatal care
C) Attendance at all deliveries
D) Cesarean sections
Answer: B
Q2) How many hours of hospital stay does legislation currently allow for a postpartum patient who has delivered vaginally without complications?
A) 24
B) 48
C) 36
D) 72
Answer: B
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Q1) The nurse encourages the members of a prenatal class to seriously consider breastfeeding.What does breast milk provide in addition to nourishment for the infant?
A) Maternal antibodies
B) Stimulus for red blood cell production
C) Endorphins that soothe the infant
D) Hormones that stimulate growth
Answer: A
Q2) For what is the decrease in estrogen and progesterone during the menstrual cycle responsible?
A) Degeneration of the corpus luteum
B) Ovulation
C) Follicle maturation
D) Shedding of the endometrium
Answer: D
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Q1) When preparing to teach a class about prenatal development,the nurse would include information about folic acid supplementation.What is folic acid known to prevent?
A) Congenital heart defects
B) Neural tube defects
C) Mental retardation
D) Premature birth
Answer: B
Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse when her infant's heart will begin to pump blood.What will the nurse reply?
A) By the end of week 3
B) Beginning in week 8
C) By the end of week 16
D) Beginning in week 24
Answer: A
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Q1) During the physical examination for the first prenatal visit,it is noted that Chadwick's sign is present.What is Chadwick's sign?
A) Bluish or purplish discoloration of the vulva,vagina,and cervix
B) Presence of early fetal movements
C) Darkening of the areola and breast tenderness
D) Palpation of the fetal outline
Q2) At her initial prenatal visit,a woman asks,"When can I hear the baby's heartbeat?" At what gestational age can the fetal heartbeat be auscultated with a specially adapted stethoscope or fetoscope?
A) 4 weeks
B) 12 weeks
C) 18 weeks
D) 24 weeks
Q3) The nurse reminds the prenatal patient that she should add ________ kcal to her daily intake to nourish the fetus.
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Q1) What will the nurse begin with when asking a patient about drug use during a prenatal history?
A) "Do you smoke,drink alcohol,or use drugs?"
B) "Do you ever use prescription or street drugs?"
C) "What over-the-counter and prescription drugs have you taken in the past 3 months?"
D) "We need to know if you take drugs so we can help your baby."
Q2) A patient with gestational hypertension is exhibiting all of the signs below.What should the nurse report immediately?
A) Diarrhea
B) Urticaria
C) Blurred vision
D) Backache
Q3) The nurse is caring for a prenatal patient diagnosed with a placenta previa.What is the best position for this patient?
A) Flat on her back with knees flexed to help prevent hemorrhage
B) On her side to prevent supine hypotension
C) In the semi-Fowler's position to prevent supine hypotension
D) In the knee-chest position to reduce pressure on the placenta
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Q1) What does the nurse note when measuring the frequency of a laboring woman's contractions?
A) How long the patient states the contractions last
B) The time between the end of one contraction and the beginning of the next
C) The time between the beginning and the end of one contraction
D) The time between the beginning of one contraction and the beginning of the next
Q2) Vaginal examination reveals the presenting part is the infant's head,which is well flexed on the chest.What is this presentation?
A) Vertex
B) Military
C) Brow
D) Face
Q3) One hour postdelivery the nurse notes the new mother has saturated three perineal pads.What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Check the fundus for position and firmness.
B) Report to the doctor immediately.
C) Change the pads and chart the time.
D) Time how long it takes to soak one pad.
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Q1) Several hours into labor,a woman complains of dizziness,numbness,and tingling of her hands and mouth.What does the nurse recognize these symptoms signify?
A) Hypertension
B) Anxiety
C) Anoxia
D) Hyperventilation
Q2) When caring for the laboring patient,the nurse determines that the fetus is located in the right occiput posterior (ROA).What will the nurse anticipate?
A) Urinary retention
B) Severe lower back pain
C) A shorter labor process
D) Nausea
Q3) A nurse instructs a woman's labor coach to comfort her by firmly pressing on her lower back.What is this technique?
A) Sacral pressure
B) Distraction
C) Effleurage
D) Conscious relaxation
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Q1) A frustrated patient in labor has been affected by decreased uterine muscle tone and reports,"My doctor won't induce my labor because of some silly score.He said I was a 4.What kind of magic number do I need?" What is the lowest Bishop score the patient should have prior to induction?
A) 6
B) 8 C) 10 D) 12
Q2) Several hours after delivery,the nurse finds a woman crying.The woman says repeatedly,"My baby is beautiful,but I was planning on a vaginal delivery.Instead I needed an emergency C-section." What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A) Anxiety related to the development of postpartum complications
B) Ineffective individual coping related to unfamiliarity with procedures
C) Risk for ineffective parenting related to emergency cesarean section
D) Grieving related to loss of expected birth experience
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Q1) A new mother states her preference to formula feed her newborn.What will the nurse planning discharge instructions tell her to help suppress lactation and promote comfort?
A) Wear a well-fitting bra continuously for several days.
B) Stand in a warm shower,letting the water spray over the breasts.
C) Express small amounts of milk from the breasts several times a day.
D) Massage the breasts when they ache.
Q2) In the recovery room,the nurse checks the newly delivered woman's fundus following a cesarean section.How would the nurse proceed with this assessment?
A) Palpate from the midline to the side of the body.
B) Palpate from the symphysis to the umbilicus.
C) Palpate from the side of the uterus to the midline.
D) Massage the abdomen in a circular motion.
Q3) After delivery,the nurse's assessment reveals a soft,boggy uterus located above the level of the umbilicus.What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Notify the physician.
B) Massage the fundus.
C) Initiate measures that encourage voiding.
D) Position the patient flat.
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Q1) A nurse is discussing risk factors for postpartum shock with a childbirth preparation class.What will the nurse include in this education session? (Select all that apply. )
A) Hypertension
B) Blood clotting disorders
C) Anemia
D) Infection
E) Postpartum hemorrhage
Q2) The nurse weighs a saturated perineal pad and finds it to weigh 15 grams.The nurse is aware that this indicates a blood loss of _____ mL.
Q3) While caring for a postpartum patient who had a vaginal delivery yesterday,the nurse assesses a firm uterine fundus and a trickle of bright blood.How does the nurse most likely feel and react to this finding?
A) Concerned and reports a probable cervical laceration
B) Attentive and massages the uterus to expel retained clots
C) Distressed and reports a possible clotting disorder
D) Satisfied with the normal early postpartum finding
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Q1) The nurse is instructing a man considering a vasectomy.What instruction will the nurse provide to address the postoperative time period?
A) Intercourse should be delayed for 6 weeks.
B) Sperm will still be ejaculated for a month.
C) Erections will be difficult to maintain.
D) Monthly sperm counts for a year will be necessary.
Q2) What information will the nurse provide when educating a woman about the correct use of a diaphragm?
A) Use of a spermicidal cream or jelly is not recommended.
B) Leave in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
C) Remove immediately after intercourse for douching.
D) It is effective for up to 48 hours if positioned properly.
Q3) A woman asks the nurse,"How do oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy?" What will the nurse explain about the combination of estrogen and progesterone in oral contraceptives?
A) Makes cervical mucus hostile to sperm
B) Prevents ovulation
C) Prohibits implantation of the egg
D) Acts as a barrier by destroying sperm
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Q1) Which statement indicates the parents understand when to contact the pediatrician or nurse practitioner?
A) Infant refuses a feeding
B) Infant has an axillary temperature of 97° F
C) Infant has three pasty,yellow-brown stools in 24 hours
D) Infant's diaper is not wet after 8 hours
Q2) What noninvasive forms of pain relief might a nurse implement with a newborn? (Select all that apply. )
A) Swaddling
B) Rocking
C) Offering a pacifier
D) Distraction
E) Cuddling
Q3) The nurse is aware that a full-term infant is born with which reflexes? (Select all that apply. )
A) Blinking
B) Sneezing
C) Gagging
D) Sucking
E) Pincer grasping
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Q1) Why does a 4-day-old infant born at 33 weeks of gestation possibly need to be fed by gavage during the first few days of life?
A) Weak or absent sucking or swallowing reflex
B) Inability to digest food properly
C) Refusal to take formula by mouth
D) Need for a larger quantity of formula at each feeding
Q2) An infant receives surfactant via endotracheal (ET)tube at birth for symptoms of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).When will the nurse anticipate seeing improvement of lung function?
A) Immediately
B) Within 3 days
C) 1 to 2 weeks
D) At least 1 month
Q3) The nurse is caring for an infant born at 42 weeks.What would the physical assessment reveal?
A) Dry,peeling skin
B) Minimal hair on the head
C) Short,rough nails
D) Abundant lanugo on the body
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Q1) The nurse is providing education to parents of a child with cleft palate.What will the nurse instruct the parents to report immediately?
A) Facial paralysis
B) Ear infections
C) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
D) Drooling
Q2) The home health nurse is educating parents on home phototherapy.What will the nurse include when providing information to these parents?
A) Cover the infant's eyes when under the light.
B) Use a three-prong plug.
C) Keep a diaper in place.
D) Place the light source on an absorbent surface.
E) Expose as much skin as possible.
Q3) What assessment made by the nurse would lead the nurse to suspect hip dysplasia?
A) Asymmetrical gluteal folds
B) Limited adduction of the affected side
C) Foot turned inward
D) Deep inguinal creases

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Q1) The nurse observes that a 2-year-old toddler is able to use a spoon steadily at mealtime.What does self-feeding help to develop in the toddler?
A) Good nutrition
B) A sense of independence
C) Adequate height and weight
D) Healthy teeth
Q2) What type of development is the nurse assessing when an infant can lift his or her head before he or she can sit?
A) Specific to general
B) Proximodistal
C) Cephalocaudal
D) General to specific
Q3) What toy is developmentally appropriate for the nurse to suggest to entertain a 5-year-old child?
A) Jack-in-the-box
B) Book of nursery rhymes
C) Model airport with toy planes
D) Model car construction kit
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Q1) A parent brings a 6-month-old infant to the pediatric clinic for her well-baby examination.Her birth weight was 8 pounds,2 ounces.What will the nurse weighing the infant today expect her weight to be?
A) At least 12 pounds
B) At least 16 pounds
C) At least 20 pounds
D) At least 24 pounds
Q2) Which statement indicates the mother of an 8-month-old infant understands infant sleep patterns?
A) "I put the baby in my bed until she falls asleep,then I put her in her crib."
B) "I let the baby skip an afternoon nap so that she will fall asleep earlier."
C) "I put the pacifier in the crib so that she can find it when she wakes up."
D) "I rock the baby back to sleep if she wakes up at night."
Q3) The nurse discusses child-proofing the home for safety with the mother of a 9-month-old infant.Which statement made by the mother would indicate an unsafe behavior?
A) "I put covers on all of the electrical outlets."
B) "In the car,she rides in a front-facing car seat."
C) "There are locks on all of the cabinets in the house."
D) "I have a gate at the top and bottom of the stairs."
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Q1) What is the best advice the nurse can offer a parent concerned because her 2-year-old child is very active and does not eat much?
A) Insist that the child eat one food on the plate.
B) Help the child wind down with a quiet activity before mealtime.
C) Maintain a consistent eating schedule for the family.
D) Serve the meal with a variety of interesting plates,cups,and utensils.
Q2) The nurse is discussing toilet training with parents.What behavior by the child would identify toilet training readiness?
A) Willing to sit on the potty for 15 to 20 minutes
B) Dry in the daytime for 4-hour periods
C) Able to communicate that he or she is wet
D) Curious about bathroom activities
Q3) A parent remarks,"My 18-month-old daughter carries her blanket around everywhere.Is this normal?" What is the best explanation a nurse who has an understanding of toddler development might give?
A) She carries her blanket because she is ritualistic.
B) Carrying her favorite blanket is self-consoling behavior.
C) This behavior can be discouraged by offering new toys to the child.
D) This could be indicative of emotional distress.
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Q1) The parents of a 4-year-old boy are concerned because they have noticed him frequently touching his penis.What knowledge would act as the basis for the nurse's response?
A) This behavior indicates a normal curiosity about sexuality.
B) Masturbation suggests the boy has an excessive fear of castration.
C) It is usually a result of discomfort from a penile rash or irritation.
D) The behavior is abnormal and the child should be referred for counseling.
Q2) Which is an example of associative play?
A) Two children playing in house,one playing the role of the dad and the other playing the role of the mom
B) Two children playing in a sand box,one building a wall and the other digging a hole
C) Two children playing with sports-associated items,one with a football and the other with a bat
D) Two children playing with a coloring book,one coloring pictures and the other looking at pictures
Q3) When planning an activity for a 3-year-old child,the nurse bases the plan on the average attention span of _____ minutes.
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Q1) A seventh-grade girl tells the school nurse that her art teacher,a woman,is her hero.What is the most appropriate interpretation of the girl's comment?
A) The student may be exploring her career options.
B) The comment is cause for concern about sexual abuse.
C) The child may have difficulty interacting with her peers.
D) Hero worship is a normal phenomenon.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a school-age child.What will the nurse expect in regard to physical development of this child?
A) Growth of 3 to 6 inches per year
B) Gain of 5 to 7 pounds per year
C) Increase of head circumference by 1 inch per year
D) A visual acuity of 20/20 by 9 years of age
Q3) A parent confides in the school nurse that her 8-year-old twins argue and bicker constantly.What is the best response by the nurse?
A) Express alarm at the constant aggression.
B) Voice concern and investigate referral for counseling.
C) Inquire about what punitive action the parents have taken to stop it.
D) Offer reassurance that such behavior is normal for 8-year-olds.
Q4) The nurse is aware that by the age of _____,the first permanent teeth erupt.
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Q1) A 13-year-old boy states,"The girls in my class tower over me." What would be the nurse's most informative response?
A) "It may seem that way because girls have a growth spurt 2 years earlier than boys."
B) "Perhaps your parents are not exceptionally tall."
C) "Boys usually experience a growth spurt 1 year earlier than girls."
D) "You may feel short,but you are actually average height for your age."
Q2) A 13-year-old girl tells the nurse she is concerned because she has not had her first menstrual period.What is the best initial response from the nurse?
A) "Your hormone levels may be irregular."
B) "Could you be pregnant?"
C) "Age of first menstrual cycle varies."
D) "Do not worry about it."
Q3) What statement made by a parent indicates an understanding about helping a 13-year-old adult manage his allowance?
A) "I set amounts he can earn for particular chores."
B) "I give him a certain amount of money for each day."
C) "I put money into his bank account each month."
D) "I told him to ask me when he needs money."
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Q1) Which nursing action would facilitate rapport with a child and the child's parents during the admission process?
A) Direct the parents to undress the child.
B) Answer questions in a calm and matter-of-fact way.
C) Perform assessments and ask questions as quickly as possible.
D) Express concern about the seriousness of the child's condition.
Q2) The mother of a 3-year-old child tells the nurse that she will be in to visit tomorrow around 12:00 PM.The next morning,the child asks the nurse,"When is my mommy coming?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Your mommy will be here around noon."
B) "Your mommy will be here when you have lunch."
C) "Mommy will be here very soon."
D) "Your mommy is coming in 4 hours."
Q3) A 2-year-old child has been crying constantly for his mother since he was hospitalized 3 days ago.What does this behavior suggest?
A) The toddler feels abandoned by his mother.
B) The child still has not adjusted to his hospitalization.
C) The child is not separated from his mother often.
D) There is a poor mother-child bond.
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Q1) Informed consent for a minor guarantees that the parent or legal guardian understands what aspect(s)of a procedure? (Select all that apply. )
A) Purpose of the procedure
B) Risks associated with the procedure
C) That no suit can be brought for damages
D) That the document must be signed and witnessed
E) That information was given
Q2) What factor does the nurse explain affects the infant's physiological response to medications?
A) Faster metabolism in the liver
B) Slower intestinal transit
C) Immature kidney function
D) Increased secretion of hydrochloric acid
Q3) The order reads,"Give ampicillin oral suspension 400 mg PO every day." The vial reads,"Ampicillin 125 mg/5 mL." The nurse will give a dose of ______ mL.
Q4) After instilling nose drops,the nurse will keep the infant in the head down position for at least _________ seconds.
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Q1) What intervention(s)would the nurse caring for a child with infectious meningitis include? (Select all that apply. )
A) Isolation precautions
B) Provision of brightly lit room
C) Observation for increasing intracranial pressure
D) Preparation for spinal tap
E) Seizure precautions
Q2) What statement by a patient's mother leads the nurse to determine she understands instructions about administering an oral antibiotic for otitis media?
A) "I will continue using the medication until symptoms are relieved."
B) "I will share the medicine with siblings if their symptoms are the same."
C) "I will give the medication with a glass of milk."
D) "I will administer prescribed doses until all the medication is used."
Q3) Which situation would cause the nurse to suspect a hearing impairment?
A) 3-month-old infant with a positive Moro (startle reaction)reflex
B) 15-month-old toddler who is babbling
C) 18-month-old toddler who is speaking one-syllable words
D) 24-month-old toddler who communicates by pointing
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Q1) How does Russell traction provide adequate skin traction?
A) Subluxates the tibia
B) Does not interfere with range of motion
C) Prevents the knee from flexing
D) Supplies continuous pull in two directions
Q2) Approximately how old does the nurse assess a large green bruise on the thigh of a 4-year-old to be?
A) 2 days
B) 4 days
C) 6 days
D) 8 days
Q3) What intervention is appropriate for a nurse assessing a preadolescent child for scoliosis?
A) Ask the child to bend forward at the waist and observe the child's back for asymmetry.
B) Observe the gait while the child is walking forward heel to toe.
C) Have the child flex the knees and look for uneven knee height.
D) Look at the child's shoulders and hips while fully clothed.
Q4) The nurse explains that Bryant's traction is reserved for children who weigh less than _____ pounds.
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Q1) What classic sign would the nurse,auscultating the breath sounds of a child hospitalized for an acute asthma attack,expect to find?
A) Fine crackles
B) Coarse rhonchi
C) Expiratory wheezing
D) Decreased breath sounds at lung bases
Q2) When auscultating breath sounds of an infant with respiratory syncytial virus,which assessment would the nurse immediately report?
A) Respiration rate decreases from 40 to 32 breaths/minute
B) Heart rate decreases from 110 to 100 beats/minute
C) "Quiet chest" from previous assessment of wheezing
D) Oxygen saturation of 90%
Q3) What is the best choice for fluid replacement that the nurse can offer a child who has just had a tonsillectomy?
A) A popsicle
B) Chocolate milk
C) Orange juice
D) Cola drink
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Q1) What is accurate about the characteristics of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)?
A) They have high amounts of triglycerides.
B) They have only small amounts of protein.
C) They have little cholesterol.
D) They aid in steroid production.
Q2) Which is the most appropriate nursing action related to the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin)to an infant?
A) Counting the apical rate for 30 seconds before administering the medication
B) Withholding a dose if the apical heart rate is less than 100 beats/minute
C) Repeating a dose if the child vomits within 30 minutes of the previous dose
D) Checking respiratory rate and blood pressure before each dose
Q3) An infant with congestive heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin).What does the nurse recognize as a sign of digoxin toxicity?
A) Restlessness
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Increased urinary output
D) Vomiting
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Q1) Why would the nurse urge the family of a dying 12-year-old boy to include his 8-year-old sister in care? (Select all that apply. )
A) She will feel less neglected by the parents.
B) She can make amends for past hostilities to her brother.
C) She will feel increased helplessness.
D) She can express her feelings through care.
E) She can experience being supportive of her parents and brother.
Q2) A child with thalassemia major receives blood transfusions frequently.What is a complication of repeated blood transfusions?
A) Hemarthrosis
B) Hematuria
C) Hemoptysis
D) Hemosiderosis
Q3) What will the nurse teach the parents of a child with a low platelet count to avoid?
A) Benadryl
B) Aspirin
C) Caffeine
D) Prednisone
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Q1) A child is brought to the pediatric clinic because he has been vomiting for the past 2 days.What acid-base imbalance would the nurse expect to occur from this persistent vomiting?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypernatremia
C) Acidosis
D) Alkalosis
Q2) Which assessment would the nurse report to the physician immediately?
A) 2-month-old with a urine output of 150 mL in 24 hours
B) 3-year-old with a urine output of 650 mL in 24 hours
C) 8-year-old with a urine output of over 1000 mL in 24 hours
D) 14-year-old with a urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours
Q3) Which is the most appropriate intervention for a 3-month-old infant who has gastroesophageal reflux?
A) Position the infant in the crib on his or her abdomen,with the head elevated.
B) Administer medication as ordered to stimulate the pyloric sphincter.
C) Give thin rice cereal with formula before feeding solid foods.
D) Place the infant in an infant seat after feedings.
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Q1) A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis.In taking the child's history,what does the nurse recognize as the probable cause?
A) Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
B) Dysuria since the previous night
C) A history of allergy
D) A sore throat 2 weeks ago
Q2) The nurse is providing information to parents of a child born with bilateral cryptorchidism.What information is accurate to include?
A) This is the most common form.
B) Fertility will be unaffected.
C) Surgical intervention is not recommended.
D) An inguinal hernia may be present.
Q3) Which urinary diversion procedure is the least damaging to the body image of the adolescent?
A) Urostomy
B) Ileal conduit
C) Nephrostomy
D) Suprapubic placement
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Q1) Which statement made by a parent indicates the need for further teaching about strategies to control itching for the infant with eczema?
A) "Wool is the best fabric for the infant's clothing."
B) "I should avoid laundry detergents with fragrances."
C) "I put cotton gloves on the infant's hands."
D) "The infant's fingernails are kept short."
Q2) A child had a burn,evidenced by pink skin and blistering.The child complains of pain and is crying.How does the nurse classify this burn when documenting?
A) First-degree
B) Second-degree superficial
C) Second-degree deep dermal
D) Third-degree
Q3) A child has sustained a second-degree deep thermal burn to the hand.What is the best first action to take?
A) Immerse the burned area in cold water.
B) Apply ice to the burned area.
C) Break any blisters that are present.
D) Apply petroleum jelly to the burned skin.
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Q1) Which process(es)does the nurse explain the endocrine system is primarily responsible for controlling? (Select all that apply. )
A) Maturation
B) Reproduction
C) Stress response
D) Sexual identity
E) Growth
Q2) What condition does the nurse suspect when a child with type 1 diabetes mellitus has hyperglycemia,diaphoresis,and headaches in the morning?
A) Dawn phenomenon
B) Somogyi phenomenon
C) Honeymoon effect
D) Ketoacidosis
Q3) On what understanding does the nurse plan the care of a child with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) There is an absolute deficiency of insulin.
B) Insufficient quantities of insulin are produced by the pancreas.
C) Oral hypoglycemic agents can control it.
D) Insulin deficiency is caused by another disease affecting the pancreas.
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Q1) Which classification of medication would make a child most susceptible to an opportunistic infection?
A) Anticonvulsant
B) Beta-adrenergic agent
C) Antibiotic
D) Corticosteroid
Q2) A child was sent to the school nurse because of a rash.The nurse noted the rash was present on the trunk,extremities,and face.The child's cheeks were bright red.With what is the nurse aware this type of rash is consistent?
A) Measles
B) Roseola
C) Varicella
D) Fifth disease
Q3) Which finding would lead the nurse to delay the administration of DTaP for an infant?
A) Diarrhea
B) Temperature of 40.5° C (105° F)from the previous inoculation
C) Teething
D) Traveling to Europe in a week

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Q1) A child is diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).Which characteristics would the nurse assess in this child? (Select all that apply. )
A) Social anxiety
B) Impulsivity
C) Hyperactivity
D) Distractibility
E) Inattention
Q2) The nurse working with children from dysfunctional families must be prepared to address what associated problem(s)? (Select all that apply. )
A) Lack of trust
B) Acting out
C) Exaggerated self-confidence
D) Blaming others for problems
E) Depression
Q3) How is a gateway substance defined?
A) Recreational drug used occasionally
B) Nonaddictive drug used daily
C) Drug used to wean from stronger drugs
D) Substance that can lead to use of stronger drugs
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Q1) The nurse points out that light therapy is used in the treatment of patients with which disorder(s)? (Select all that apply. )
A) Digestive disorders
B) Seasonal affective disorder
C) Inflammatory diseases
D) Stress disorders
E) Jaundice
Q2) A pregnant woman wishes to use aromatherapy during her labor and delivery.What is the most appropriate essential oil for the nurse to recommend?
A) Juniper
B) Wintergreen
C) Thyme
D) Citrus
Q3) Which herbal remedy used by a patient taking warfarin should the nurse report to the physician?
A) Angelica (dong quai)
B) Chamomile
C) Ginseng
D) Kava-kava
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