Course Introduction
Materials Chemistry
Study Guide Questions
Materials Chemistry explores the chemical principles underpinning the design, synthesis, characterization, and application of materials with novel or enhanced properties. This course examines the relationship between atomic and molecular structure and the macroscopic properties of materials, including metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors, and nanomaterials. Topics include crystallography, phase diagrams, electronic and optical properties, surface and interface phenomena, and the emerging trends in material research such as smart materials and biomaterials. Through lectures, laboratory work, and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how chemical processes drive the development and advancement of functional materials used in technology, energy, healthcare, and environmental applications.
Recommended Textbook
Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many constitutional isomers are there for a molecule having the molecular formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub>?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: B
Q2) What is the approximate bond angle for the C-C-N bond in acetonitrile, CH<sub>3</sub>CN?
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements about valence electrons is true?
A) They are the most tightly held electrons.
B) They do not participate in chemical reactions.
C) They are the outermost electrons.
D) They reveal the period number of a second-row element.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Acids and Bases
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Q1) Which is the conjugate acid in the following reaction? \[\begin{array} { l } \mathrm { HCl } &+& \mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { O } ?&\mathrm { Cl } ^ { \ominus } &+& \mathrm { H } _ { 3 } \mathrm { O }^ { \oplus } \\ \text { I }&&\text { II } &\text { III } &&\text { IV } \\ \end{array}\]
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following compounds is not a Lewis acid?
A) AlCl<sub>3</sub>
B) HCl
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) CBr<sub>4</sub>
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the solubility of organic compounds in H<sub>2</sub>O is true?
A) The non-polar part of a molecule that is not attracted to water is said to be hydrophilic.
B) The non-polar part of a molecule that is not attracted to water is said to be hydrophobic.
C) The polar part of a molecule that can hydrogen bond to water is said to be hydrophobic.
D) For an organic compound with one functional group that contains an O or N atom, the compound is water soluble only if it has \(\ge\) 5 carbons.
Answer: B
Q2) What intermolecular force is generally considered the weakest?
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) London dispersion forces
C) Dipole-dipole
D) Ion-ion
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Alkanes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about alkanes is true?
A) Alkanes are aliphatic hydrocarbons having only C-C and C-H \(\pi\) bonds.
B) Cyclic alkanes have two fewer H atoms than acyclic alkanes with the same number of carbons.
C) Acyclic alkanes contain carbons joined in one or more rings.
D) Acyclic alkanes have general molecular formula C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub>.
Q2) How many constitutional isomers are there with the molecular formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q3) What is the molecular formula of a cycloalkane that has six carbon atoms?
A) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
C) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
D) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>16</sub>
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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry
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Q1) How many chiral stereoisomers can be drawn for dimethycyclopropane?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) How many isomers (constitutional and stereoisomers) exist for dimethylcyclobutane?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) How much of the R enantiomer is present in 10 g of a mixture which has an enantiomeric excess of 30% of the S isomer?
A) 3.0 g
B) 3.5 g
C) 6.5 g
D) 7.0 g
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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Fast reactions have small rate constants.
B) Slow reactions have large rate constants.
C) A rate equation contains concentration terms for all reactants involved in a one-step mechanism.
D) A rate equation contains concentration terms for all the reactants involved in a multi-step reaction.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Bond breaking is endothermic.
B) The bond dissociation energy for bond breaking is always negative.
C) Bond making is exothermic.
D) The bond dissociation energy for bond formation is always negative.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the equilibrium constant, K<sub>eq</sub>, is true?
A) When K<sub>eq</sub> > 1, the equilibrium favors the reactants.
B) When K<sub>eq</sub> < 1, the equilibrium favors the products.
C) The size of K<sub>eq</sub> tells about the position of equilibrium.
D) For a reaction to be useful, the equilibrium must favor the reactants.
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Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Sodium ethoxide is a better nucleophile than sodium tert-butoxide.
B) Sodium tert-butoxide and sodium ethoxide have similar strengths as bases.
C) Sterically hindered bases are also called nonnucleophilic bases.
D) Steric hindrance decreases basicity but not nucleophilicity.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the reactions of alkyl halides is true?
A) The characteristic reactions of alkyl halides are addition and elimination.
B) The characteristic reactions of alkyl halides are addition and substitution.
C) The characteristic reactions of alkyl halides are elimination and substitution.
D) The characteristic reactions of alkyl halides are oxidation and reduction.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the Hammond postulate is true?
A) In an exothermic reaction, lowering the energy of the transition state increases the activation energy, E<sub>a</sub>.
B) In an endothermic reaction, the more stable product forms faster.
C) In an endothermic reaction, the less stable product forms faster.
D) In an endothermic reaction, the activation energy, E<sub>a</sub>, is similar for both products.
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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of an E2 reaction is true?
A) All bonds are broken and formed in multiple steps.
B) The reaction is not concerted.
C) Entropy favors the reactants of an E2 reaction.
D) Entropy favors the products of an E2 reaction.
Q2) Which of the following represents the rate law for an E2 reaction?
A) Rate = k[alkyl halide]
B) Rate = k[alkyl halide][base]
C) Rate = k[alkyl halide]<sup>2</sup>
D) Rate = k[base]<sup>2</sup>
Q3) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?
A) The reaction is fastest with tertiary alkyl halides.
B) A better leaving group makes the reaction rate increase.
C) The reaction follows first-order kinetics.
D) Stronger bases favor the E1 reaction.
Q4) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is true?
A) The identity of the leaving group affects the rate of reaction.
B) The reaction follows second-order kinetics.
C) The reaction is slowest with tertiary substrates.
D) Polar aprotic solvents favor the E1 mechanism.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides
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Q1) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of ethyl methyl ether with excess HBr?
A) Bromomethane and ethanol
B) Bromoethane and methanol
C) Bromoethane and bromomethane
D) Ethanol and methanol
Q2) Which of the following statements about carbocation rearrangement is not true?
A) A less stable carbocation can rearrange to a more stable carbocation by shift of a hydrogen atom.
B) A less stable carbocation can rearrange to a more stable carbocation by shift of an alkyl group.
C) 1,2-Shifts convert a less stable carbocation to a more stable carbocation.
D) The migrating group in a 1,2-shift moves with one bonding electron.
Q3) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of tert-butyl methyl ether with excess HI?
A) tert-Butyl alcohol and iodomethane
B) tert-Butyl iodide and iodomethane
C) tert-Butyl alcohol and methanol
D) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Alkenes
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Q1) Which of the statements about the properties of the carbon-carbon double bond is not true?
A) There is restricted rotation around the carbon-carbon double bond.
B) Whenever the two groups on each end of a carbon-carbon double bond are the same, two diastereomers are possible.
C) Trans alkenes are generally more stable than cis alkenes.
D) The stability of the carbon-carbon double bond increases as the number of substituent groups increases.
Q2) Which of the following statements about alkenes is true?
A) Alkenes react with nucleophiles and bases.
B) Alkenes contain double bonds from two sp-hybridized carbon atoms.
C) In the reactions of alkenes, the \(\pi\) bond is not always broken.
D) Alkenes react with electrophiles.
Q3) Which of the following statements about hydroboration/oxidation of alkenes is true?
A) In hydroboration, the boron atom bonds to the more substituted carbon.
B) Hydroboration occurs with anti addition.
C) Oxidation occurs with retention of configuration.
D) 9-BBN does not undergo hydroboration in the same manner as BH<sub>3</sub>.
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Chapter 11: Alkynes
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Q1) Which of the following bases cannot deprotonate acetylene? You are given the pK<sub>a</sub> values of the conjugate acids in parentheses. \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { NH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 40 \right) \quad \mathrm { CO } _ { 3 } ^ { 2 - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 10.2 \right) \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } = \mathrm { CH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 44 \right) \quad \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \right) _ { 3 } \mathrm { CO } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 18 \right)\)
I\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad \quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)III\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\q uad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)IV
A) Only I and II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) Only II and IV
Q2) Which of the following statements about tautomers is true?
A) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a hydrogen atom.
B) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a carbon atom.
C) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a hydrogen atom.
D) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a carbon atom.
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Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) Which of the following classes of organic compounds cannot undergo reduction easily?
A) Alkanes
B) Alkenes
C) Alkynes
D) Carboxylic acids
Q2) Which of the following statements about the reduction of epoxides with LiAlH<sub>4</sub> is true?
A) The nucleophile is a hydride (H<sup>-</sup>).
B) In unsymmetrical epoxides, nucleophilic attack of H<sup>-</sup> occurs at the more substituted carbon atom.
C) The reaction follows S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
D) The nucleophile, H<sup>-</sup>, is a weak nucleophile.
Q3) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium?
CH<sub>3</sub>Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>Li + LiCl
A) Oxidized
B) Reduced
C) Oxidized and Reduced
D) Neither oxidized nor reduced
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy
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Q1) The functional group region of an infrared spectrum is:
A) Where the cations appear
B) Greater than or equal to 1500 cm<sup>-1</sup>
C) Less than 1500 cm<sup>-1</sup>
D) Greater than or equal to 2500 cm<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) An alkyne C-H bond absorbs at higher wave number than an alkene C-H bond. What does this tell you about the strength of these two bonds?
A) The alkene C-H bond is stronger.
B) The alkyne C-H bond is stronger.
C) The alkene C-C bond is stronger.
D) The alkyne C-C bond is stronger.
Q3) You observe a compound that exhibits a mass spectrum with peak at 160 and a peak at 162, both of equal intensity. This compound contains:
A) Two chlorine atoms
B) One iodine atom
C) One bromine atom
D) Two bromine atoms
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic radiation?
A) All molecules absorb electromagnetic radiation at some frequency.
B) Frequency is directly proportional to wavelength.
C) NMR uses the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
D) The radio frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum has the largest energy per photon.
E) Energy is inversely proportional to frequency.
Q2) Which of the following statements about <sup>13</sup>C NMR is not true?
A) "In <sup>13</sup>C proton-decoupled NMR spectra, all peaks are singlets."
B) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR spectra display peaks for only carbons that bear hydrogen atoms."
C) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR chemical shifts occur over a greater range than <sup>1</sup>H NMR chemical shifts."
D) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR easily differentiates between the different hybridized carbons (sp<sup>3</sup>, sp<sup>2</sup> and sp hybridized carbons)."
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16
Chapter 15: Radical Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about chlorination is true?
A) The rate-determining step in chlorination is endothermic.
B) The transition state resembles the product.
C) The more stable radical is formed faster.
D) A mixture of products results.
Q2) How many monochlorination products can be formed (constitutional isomers only) from the reaction of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH< sub>3</sub> with Cl<sub>2</sub> and hv?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) How many allylic halides can be formed when 3-methycyclohexene undergoes allylic halogenation with one equivalent of NBS and light?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes
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Q1) What is the thermodynamic product obtained from the addition of 1 equivalent of HBr to 1,3-butadiene?
A) 3-Bromo-1-butene
B) 1-Bromo-2-butene
C) 2-Bromo-2-butene
D) 2-Bromo-1-butene
Q2) What is the definition of a resonance structure?
A) Compounds with the same molecular formula
B) Compounds with different carbon frameworks
C) Structures that differ only in the placement of pi and nonbonding electrons
D) Structures that differ only in the location of bonds
Q3) Which of the following statements about resonance structures is true?
A) The placement of atoms is different.
B) The placement of \(\pi\) bonds is different.
C) The placement of \(\sigma\) bonds is different.
D) The placement of nonbonded electrons is the same.
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Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the molecular orbital (MO) theory is true?
A) When two p orbitals of similar phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is formed.
B) When two p orbitals of opposite phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is formed.
C) A \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.
D) A \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.
Q2) Which of the following statements about benzene is true?
A) Benzene is a saturated hydrocarbon.
B) Benzene undergoes addition reactions.
C) Benzene has five degrees of unsaturation.
D) Benzene undergoes substitution reactions.
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Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution
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Q1) Which of the following statements about nucleophilic aromatic substitution is not true?
A) Increasing the electronegativity of the halogen increases the reactivity of the aryl halide.
B) Increasing the number of electron-withdrawing groups increases the reactivity of the aryl halide.
C) Electron-withdrawing groups stabilize the intermediate carbanion, and lower the energy of the transition state.
D) When a nitro group is located meta to the halogen, the negative charge of the intermediate carbanion can be delocalized onto the NO<sub>2</sub> group, thus stabilizing it.
Q2) What is the electrophile in aromatic nitration?
A) NO<sup>+</sup>
B) NO<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
C) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>
D) NO<sub>2</sub>H
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Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H
Bond
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Q1) In the presence of strong acids, which of the oxygen atoms on the carboxyl group is preferentially protonated and why?
A) Protonation occurs at the carbonyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate acid is stabilized by resonance.
B) Protonation occurs at the carbonyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate base is stabilized by the inductive effect.
C) Protonation occurs at the hydroxyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate acid is stabilized by resonance.
D) Protonation occurs at the hydroxyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate base is stabilized by the inductive effect.
Q2) What physical property and reaction type are used by extraction as useful techniques to separate and purify mixtures of compounds?
A) Physical property = solubility differences; reaction type = acid-base reaction.
B) Physical property = boiling point; reaction type = acid-base reaction.
C) Physical property = solubility differences; reaction type = oxidation-reduction.
D) Physical property = density; reaction type = oxidation-reduction.
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;
Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) Which of the following terms explain why aldehydes are more reactive than ketones?
A) Electronegativity and resonance
B) Hybridization and resonance
C) Electronegativity and hybridization
D) Sterics and electronics
Q2) What reagent would be used to reduce an amide to an amine?
A) NaBH<sub>4</sub>
B) LiAlH(OtBu)<sub>3</sub>
C) LiAlH<sub>4</sub>
D) FeCl<sub>3</sub>
Q3) The behavior of acid chlorides is different from that of aldehydes in a reaction with a nucleophile because
A) The acid chloride contains a better leaving group.
B) The aldehyde is more easily oxidized.
C) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is more positive.
D) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is less hindered.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition
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Q1) What is the driving force for the Wittig reaction?
A) The formation of an alkene
B) The deprotonation of a phosphonium salt
C) The elimination of triphenylphosphine oxide
D) The formation of a phosphonium salt
Q2) Using IR spectroscopy, how can you tell the difference between a ketone and an aldehyde?
A) A ketone has no carbonyl stretch at 1720 cm<sup>-1</sup>.
B) An aldehyde has a carbonyl stretch at 1820 cm<sup>-1</sup>.
C) An aldehyde has two C-H stretches between 2700-2850 cm<sup>-1</sup>.
D) A ketone has no C-H stretches.
Q3) When an aldehyde is reacted with excess ethanol with an acid as a catalyst, what is the product called?
A) Hemiacetal
B) Di-ether
C) Di-alkoxy alkane
D) Acetal
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives
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Q1) Which of the following reaction conditions can be used to synthesize an ester (RCOOR')?
A) RCOCl + R'NH<sub>2</sub> + pyridine
B) RCOOH + R'OH + H<sup>+</sup>
C) RCOOH + R'OH + OH<sup>-</sup>
D) RCONH<sub>2</sub> + R'OH
Q2) All of the following contain sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized atoms in their functional group except
A) a carboxylic acid
B) a nitrile
C) an aldehyde
D) an anhydride
Q3) From the list below, pick the compound that does not react with acetyl chloride.
A) Isopropyl alcohol
B) Benzoic acid
C) Ammonia
D) Triethyl amine
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Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl
Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon
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Q1) What are the three steps in the malonic ester synthesis?
A) Deprotonation, alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation
B) Hydrogenation, alkylation, deprotonation
C) Alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation. hydrogenation
D) Hydrolysis/decarboxylation, deprotonation, alkylation
Q2) Will acetophenone be completely deprotonated by lithium diisopropylamide (LDA)?
A) Yes
B) No
Q3) If you want to form a kinetic enolate, you want to:
A) Use a strong, non-nucleophilic base such as LDA.
B) Use a protic solvent.
C) Use a low temperature.
D) Both use a strong, non-nucleophilic base such as LDA and use a low temperature.
Q4) Which of the following ketones will give a positive iodoform test?
A) 3-Heptanone
B) 2-Pentanone
C) 3-Hexanone
D) Cyclohexanone
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Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions
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Q1) Complete this statement: A major difference between the Aldol condensation and the Claisen condensation reactions is that
A) the Aldol reaction involves substitution while the Claisen reaction involves addition.
B) the Aldol reaction is acid catalyzed while the Claisen reaction is base-catalyzed.
C) the Aldol reaction is base catalyzed while the Claisen reaction requires a full equivalent of base.
D) the Aldol reaction is base catalyzed while the Claisen reaction is acid-catalyzed.
Q2) What is the name given to the Claisen reaction between two different esters?
A) multiple Claisen reaction
B) differential Claisen reaction
C) crossed Claisen reaction
D) versatile Claisen reaction
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Chapter 25: Amines
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Q1) What is a typical characteristic absorption in the IR spectrum of a primary amine?
A) Two N-H absorptions at 2500-2600 cm<sup>-1</sup>
B) One N-H absorption at 2500-2600 cm<sup>-1</sup>
C) Two N-H absorptions at 3300-3500 cm<sup>-1</sup>
D) One N-H absorption at 3300-3500 cm<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) What is the approximate bond angle of the substituents around a nitrogen atom in amines?
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Q3) What is the name given to naturally occurring amines derived from plant sources?
A) Enamines
B) Imines
C) Alkaloids
D) Alkamines
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Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the use of the Grubbs catalyst?
A) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbon-carbon coupling reactions.
B) The Grubbs catalyst is used in alkene metathesis.
C) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbene formation.
D) The Grubbs catalyst is used with palladium as a co-catalyst.
Q2) Coupling reactions with vinyl halides are stereospecific. Which choice below best describes the expected product when trans-1-bromo-1-hexene reacts with (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CuLi?
A) The reaction will only yield a trans-alkene.
B) The reaction will only yield a cis-alkene.
C) The reaction will only yield one enantiomeric product with R configuration.
D) The reaction will only yield one enantiomeric product with S configuration.
Q3) Which of the following descriptions does not apply to methylene?
A) Methylene is sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized.
B) Methylene is a neutral, reactive intermediate.
C) Methylene is a radical intermediate.
D) The formula of methylene is :CH<sub>2</sub>.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about orbital symmetry and cycloaddition reactions is true?
A) Thermal cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.
B) Thermal cycloaddition involving an odd number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by an antarafacial pathway.
C) Photochemical cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by an antarafacial pathway.
D) Photochemical cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.
Q2) Which of the following is not a correct designation for a sigmatropic rearrangement?
A) [1,3]
B) [1,5]
C) [3,3]
D) [3,1]
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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Does a monosaccharide prefer to exist in the open-chain or closed-ring form?
A) open
B) closed
C) Both forms exist in equal ratios.
Q2) Amylose is a polysaccharide with ________________________ linkages.
A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
C) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
D) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
Q3) Oxidation of a D-hexose with nitric acid forms an optically active aldaric acid. A Wohl degradation of the same D-hexose followed by oxidation with nitric acid forms an optically active aldaric acid. What are the three possible D-hexoses that fit this data?
A) D-allose, D-altrose and D-glucose
B) D-glucose, D- mannose and D-talose
C) D-glucose, D-idose and D-altrose
D) D-galactose, D-talose and D-mannose
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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Q1) Why does the formation of salts of a racemic mixture of N-acetyl valine with a single enantiomer of \(\alpha\)-methylbenzylamine enable the separation of the two enantiomers of N-acetyl valine?
A) They form amides.
B) They form diastereomers.
C) They form salts.
D) They form meso compounds.
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes the tertiary structure of a peptide?
A) the three-dimensional conformations of localized regions of a protein
B) the particular sequence of amino acids that are joined together by peptide bonds
C) the structure is defined by the \(\beta\)-pleated sheet form
D) the three-dimensional shape adopted by the entire peptide
Q3) What are the basic steps in the Merrifield peptide synthesis?
A) coupling and hydrolysis
B) hydrolysis and deprotection
C) deprotection and hydrogenation
D) coupling and deprotection
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31
Chapter 30: Lipids
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Q1) How can an unsaturated fatty acid be converted into a saturated fatty acid?
A) hydrogenation
B) hydration
C) ozonolysis
D) hydrolysis
Q2) From the statements below, pick out the one that is not correct for fat-soluble vitamins.
A) Fat-soluble vitamins are classified as lipids.
B) Fat-soluble vitamins are a group of biologically active compounds containing 20 carbon atoms.
C) Fat-soluble vitamins are required in small quantities for normal metabolism.
D) Fat-soluble vitamins are stored in fat cells for use when they are needed.
Q3) What is the purpose of vitamin K?
A) energy storage
B) blood clotting
C) photosynthesis
D) hydrogenation
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32
Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers
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Q1) Vulcanization is the process of cross-linking polymer chains in rubber using what chemical?
A) sulfur
B) formaldehyde
C) benzoyl peroxide
D) ethylene glycol
Q2) Which of the following is (are) condensation polymer(s)? I. polypropylene
II) Teflon
III) nylon
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) Both II and III
Q3) Which of the following initiators is used to make isotactic polypropylene?
A) benzoyl peroxide
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>Li
C) BF<sub>3</sub>
D) Al(CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>, TiCl<sub>4</sub>
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