Materials Chemistry Exam Review

Course Introduction

Materials Chemistry explores the relationship between the structure, properties, and performance of materials from a chemical perspective. The course covers the synthesis, characterization, and application of a wide range of materials including metals, polymers, ceramics, semiconductors, and nanomaterials. Students will learn about the chemical principles underlying material design, solid-state structures, phase transitions, and the role of chemistry in developing innovative materials for technology and industry. Emphasis is placed on modern analytical techniques and real-world applications, preparing students for advanced research or careers in materials science, engineering, and related fields.

Recommended Textbook

Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski

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Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would you expect to have ionic bonds?

A) CO

B) FBr

C) NF3

D) NaCl

Answer: D

Q2) Rank the following atoms in order of increasing electronegativity, putting the least electronegative first. \[\begin{array} { c c c c } \mathrm { S } & \mathrm { Cl } & \mathrm { F } & \mathrm { N } \\ \text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]

A) I < II < III < IV

B) I < IV < II < III

C) III < II < IV < I

D) I < II < IV < III

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Acids and Bases

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Q1) Which of the following statements about a Brønsted-Lowry base is true?

A) The net charge may be zero, positive, or negative.

B) All Brønsted-Lowry bases contain a lone pair of electrons or a \(\pi\) bond.

C) All Brønsted-Lowry bases contain a proton.

D) The net charge may be zero or positive.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following statements explain why HBr is a stronger acid than HF?

A) Br- is more stable than F- because Br- is larger than F-.

B) Br- is less stable than F- because Br- is larger than F-.

C) Br- is more stable than F- because Br- is less electronegative than F-.

D) Br- is less stable than F- because Br- is less electronegative than F-.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups

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Sample Questions

Q1) What molecular features are required for soap to properly dissolve grease and oil?

A) The molecule must be large.

B) The molecule must contain a polar head.

C) The molecule must contain a non-polar tail.

D) B and C are required.

Answer: D

Q2) Why do \(\pi\) bonds confer reactivity on a particular molecule?

A) Because \(\pi\) bonds are difficult to break in chemical reactions.

B) Because \(\pi\) bonds make a molecule an acid.

C) Because \(\pi\) bonds are easily broken in chemical reactions.

D) Because \(\pi\) bonds make a molecule an electrophile.

Answer: C

Q3) What intermolecular force is generally considered the strongest?

A) Hydrogen bonding

B) London dispersion forces

C) Covalent bonds

D) Dipole-dipole

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about the conformations of acyclic alkanes is true?

A) Conformations are the same arrangements of atoms that cannot be interconverted by rotation about single bonds.

B) In the eclipsed conformation, the C-H bonds on one carbon bisect the H-C-H bond angle on the adjacent carbon.

C) In the staggered conformation, the C-H bonds on one carbon are directly aligned with the C-H bonds on the adjacent carbon.

D) Rotating the atoms on one carbon by 60° converts an eclipsed conformation into a staggered conformation, and vice versa.

Q2) What is the molecular formula of an alkane that has twenty-three carbon atoms?

A) C23H46

B) C23H48

C) C23H50

D) C23H44

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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the percent ee of a mixture that has 70% of one enantiomer and 30% of the other?

A) 70

B) 85

C) 40

D) 30

Q2) If a mixture has an ee of 90%, what is the percentage of each enantiomer?

A) 65% : 35%

B) 55% : 45%

C) 80% : 20%

D) 95% : 5%

Q3) A natural product was isolated in the laboratory, and its observed rotation was +10° when measured in a 1 dm sample tube containing 1.0 g of compound in 10 mL of H2O. What is the specific rotation of this compound?

A) -10°

B) +100°

C) +10°

D) -100°

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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?

A) "Two reactions can have identical values for \(\Delta\)H° but very different Ea values."

B) "The larger the activation energy, the slower the reaction."

C) "\(\Delta\)H° determines the height of the energy barrier."

D) "The lower the activation energy, the faster the reaction."

Q2) Which of the following statements about the equilibrium constant, Keq, is true?

A) When Keq > 1, the equilibrium favors the reactants.

B) When Keq < 1, the equilibrium favors the products.

C) The size of Keq tells about the position of equilibrium.

D) For a reaction to be useful, the equilibrium must favor the reactants.

Q3) Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?

A) Enzymes increase the activation energy for a reaction.

B) Enzymes decrease the equilibrium constant.

C) Enzymes shift the equilibrium to favor the product.

D) Enzymes lower the transition state for the rate-determining step.

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Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following anions is the most nucleophilic in polar aprotic solvents?

A) F-

B) Cl-

C) Br-

D) I-

Q2) Rank the following ions in order of increasing nucleophlicity in polar protic solvents, starting with the least nucleophilic ion. \[\begin{array} { c c c c } \mathrm { F } ^ { * } & \mathrm { Cl } ^ { - } & \mathrm { Br } ^ { - } & \mathrm { I } ^ { - } \\

\text {I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]

A) I < II < III < IV

B) IV < III < II < I

C) I < II < IV < III

D) IV < III < I < II

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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?

A) The reaction is fastest with tertiary alkyl halides.

B) A better leaving group makes the reaction rate increase.

C) The reaction follows first-order kinetics.

D) Stronger bases favor the E1 reaction.

Q2) Which of the following is the most reactive substrate in an E2 reaction? \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { Br } \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { Br } \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } \left( \mathrm { Br } ^ { 2 } \right) \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \quad \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \right) _ { 3 } \mathrm { CBr }\)

\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\ quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)III\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\qu ad\)IV

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about the reaction of ethers with strong acids is true?

A) HCl, HBr and HI can all be used.

B) The mechanism of ether cleavage is SN1 only.

C) The mechanism of ether cleavage is SN2 only.

D) The mechanism of ether cleavage is SN1 and SN2.

Q2) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of methyl phenyl ether with excess HBr?

A) Phenol and bromomethane

B) Phenol and methanol

C) Bromobenzene and bromomethane

D) Bromobenzene and methanol

Q3) Which of the following reactions will provide the best yield of ether by the Williamson ether synthesis?

A) Sodium methoxide and tert-butyl bromide.

B) Sodium tert-butoxide and iodomethane.

C) Methanol and tert-butyl alcohol in the presence of KOH.

D) Iodomethane and tert-butyl bromide in the presence of KOH.

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Chapter 10: Alkenes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rearrangements can occur in which of the following reactions?

A) Addition of Cl2 to an alkene.

B) Addition of HOBr to an alkene.

C) Addition of H2O/H3O+ to an alkene.

D) None of the above.

Q2) Which of the following statements about alkenes is not true?

A) They are less reactive than alkanes.

B) They can exist as cis/trans isomers.

C) The bond angle around the C-C double bond is approximately 120°.

D) The carbon of the C-C double bond is sp2 hybridized.

Q3) What type of reactive intermediate is formed in the reaction of an alkene with HI to give an iodoalkane?

A) Carbanion

B) Carbocation

C) Cyclic bromonium ion

D) Radical

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Alkynes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about alkynes is not true?

A) Alkynes undergo many addition reactions.

B) Alkynes are more polarizable than alkenes.

C) Both \(\pi\) bonds of a C-C triple bond are weaker than a C-C \(\sigma\) bond.

D) The electrons in the \(\pi\) bonds of alkynes are more tightly held than those of alkenes.

Q2) In the addition of HBr to 1-butyne, the nucleophile in the first step of the mechanism is:

A) The Csp-H1s bond of 1-butyne.

B) The C-C triple bond of 1-butyne.

C) The H atom in HBr.

D) The Br ion.

Q3) Which of the following explains why 1-pentyne has a slightly higher boiling point than 1-pentene?

A) 1-Pentyne has more carbons than 1-pentene.

B) 1-Pentyne has more carbons per hydrogen than 1-pentene.

C) 1-Pentyne is linear while 1-pentene is trigonal planar.

D) The C-C triple bond in 1-pentyne is more polar than the C-C double bond in 1-pentene.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium? CH3Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH3Li + LiCl

A) Oxidized

B) Reduced

C) Oxidized and Reduced

D) Neither oxidized nor reduced

Q2) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction is not true?

A) The conversion of an alkyne to an alkene is reduction.

B) The conversion of an alkene to an alkane is reduction.

C) Oxidation results in a decrease in the number of C-H bonds.

D) Reduction results in an increase in the number of C-Z bonds.

Q3) A compound X of molecular formula C8H12 with no triple bonds reacts with one equivalent of H2 to give a new compound having molecular formula C8H14. What can be inferred about the structure of compound X?

A) Compound X has 3 rings.

B) Compound X has 3 \(\pi\) bonds.

C) Compound X has 1 ring and 2 \(\pi\) bonds.

D) Compound X has 2 rings and 1 \(\pi\) bond.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compared to a C-H bond, a C-D bond will vibrate where in the infrared spectrum?

A) Higher molecular weight

B) Lower molecular weight

C) Lower wavenumbers

D) Higher wavenumbers

Q2) Which of the following statements is (are) true about a compound that has molecular ion peaks in its mass spectrum at mass 170 and 172, and shows prominent peaks in its IR spectrum at 3150-3000 and 1600 cm-1?

A) The compound is not pure.

B) The compound contains a halogen.

C) The compound contains an OH group and Csp3-H hybridized bonds.

D) Both A (The compound is not pure) and B (The compound contains a halogen) are true statements.

E) Both A (The compound is not pure) and C (The compound contains an OH group and Csp3-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic radiation?

A) All molecules absorb electromagnetic radiation at some frequency.

B) Frequency is directly proportional to wavelength.

C) NMR uses the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

D) The radio frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum has the largest energy per photon.

E) Energy is inversely proportional to frequency.

Q2) Which of the following spectroscopy methods does not involve the interaction of organic molecules with electromagnetic radiation?

A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

B) Infrared spectroscopy

C) Mass spectroscopy

D) Ultraviolet spectroscopy

Q3) What region of the electromagnetic spectrum does nuclear magnet resonance spectroscopy use?

A) Radio frequency

B) Microwave frequency

C) Infrared frequency

D) Visible frequency

E) Ultraviolet frequency

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Chapter 15: Radical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about chlorination is true?

A) The rate-determining step in chlorination is endothermic.

B) The transition state resembles the product.

C) The more stable radical is formed faster.

D) A mixture of products results.

Q2) Rank the following radicals in order of decreasing stability, putting the most stable first. \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \dot { \mathrm { C } } \mathrm { H } _ { 2 }\quad\) \(\mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { C } = \mathrm { C } \dot { \mathrm { C } } \mathrm { H } _ { 2 }\quad\) \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \dot { \mathrm { C } } \mathrm { HCH } _ { 3 }\quad\) \(\left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \right) _ { 3 } \dot { \mathrm { C } }\)

I\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad \quad\quad\)III\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)IV

A) II > IV > III > I

B) III > II > IV > I

C) IV > III > II > I

D) IV > III > I > II

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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes

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Q1) Which of the following electronic transitions is common in the UV spectrum of 1,3-butadiene?

A) "\(\sigma\) \(\to\) \(\pi\)"

B) "\(\sigma\) \(\to\) \(\pi\)*"

C) "n \(\to\) \(\pi\)*"

D) "\(\pi\) \(\to\) \(\pi\)*"

Q2) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of the Diels-Alder reaction is true?

A) Three pi bonds break; two sigma bonds and one pi bond form.

B) Three pi bonds break; one sigma bond and two pi bonds form.

C) Two pi bonds break; one sigma bond and one pi bond form.

D) Two pi bonds break; two sigma bonds and one pi bond form.

Q3) Which of the following statements about kinetic vs. thermodynamic products is true?

A) The product that is formed faster is the thermodynamic product.

B) The kinetic product predominates at low temperature.

C) The product that predominates at equilibrium is the kinetic product.

D) The thermodynamic product is less stable.

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Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds

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Q1) Where do the protons in benzene appear in the 1H NMR spectrum?

A) Around 1600 cm-1

B) Around 120 ppm

C) Around 0 ppm

D) Around 7 ppm

Q2) Which of the following is not one of the Hückel's criteria for aromaticity?

A) The molecule must be cyclic.

B) The molecule must be planar.

C) The molecule must be completely conjugated.

D) The molecule must have 4n pi electrons.

Q3) Which of the following is not a criterion for antiaromaticity?

A) The molecule must be cyclic.

B) The molecule must have (4n + 2) pi electrons.

C) The molecule must be planar.

D) The molecule must be completely conjugated.

Q4) Which of the following statements about benzene is true?

A) Benzene is a saturated hydrocarbon.

B) Benzene undergoes addition reactions.

C) Benzene has five degrees of unsaturation.

D) Benzene undergoes substitution reactions.

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Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution

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Q1) What are the two effects that have to be considered to determine the influence a substituent will have on electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A) Steric and electronic

B) Inductive and steric

C) Inductive and resonance

D) Resonance and electronic

Q2) What is the driving force for losing a proton as the last step in electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A) To neutralize the base that is present

B) To make room for the electrophile

C) To make the ring more reactive

D) To rearomatize the ring system

Q3) What is the electrophile in the Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction with tert-butylchloride?

A) the tert-butyl cation

B) a complex of tert-butylchloride and aluminum chloride

C) a proton

D) aluminum chloride

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Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H

Bond

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Q1) What is the overall charge of the amino acid, alanine, at pH = 7?

A) + 1

B) - 1

C) No overall charge

D) + 2

Q2) Why is pure acetic acid often called glacial acetic acid?

A) Because it freezes just below 0°C, forming white crystals.

B) Because it freezes just below 100°C, forming white crystals.

C) Because it freezes just below room temperature, forming white crystals.

D) Because it freezes just above room temperature, forming white crystals.

Q3) Which of the following bases are strong enough to significantly deprotonate ethanol, CH3CH2OH (pKa = 16)?

A) NaOCH3

B) NaOH

C) NaH

D) NaOCH2CH3

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;

Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction

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Q1) The behavior of acid chlorides is different from that of aldehydes in a reaction with a nucleophile because

A) The acid chloride contains a better leaving group.

B) The aldehyde is more easily oxidized.

C) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is more positive.

D) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is less hindered.

Q2) Rank the carbon-metal bond in the following organometallic reagents in order of decreasing polarity, starting with the most polar. \[\begin{array} { c c c } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { MgBr } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { Li } & \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _

{ 2 } \right) _ { 2 } \mathrm { CuLi } \\

\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } \end{array}\]

A) II > I > III

B) II > III > I

C) III > I > II

D) III > II > I

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Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition

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Q1) What is the first step in nucleophilic addition under acidic conditions?

A) Protonation of the nucleophile

B) Addition of the nucleophile

C) Loss of water

D) Protonation of the carbonyl

Q2) What is the driving force for the Wittig reaction?

A) The formation of an alkene

B) The deprotonation of a phosphonium salt

C) The elimination of triphenylphosphine oxide

D) The formation of a phosphonium salt

Q3) Butanal (MW= 72) has a boiling point of 76 °C while butanol (MW= 74) has a boiling point of 118 °C. What accounts for this difference in boiling points?

A) Butanol is polar while butanal is not polar.

B) Butanol can exhibit dipole-dipole interactions while butanal cannot.

C) Butanol can hydrogen bond and butanal cannot hydrogen bond.

D) Butanal is less sterically hindered than butanol.

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Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives

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Q1) Which of the following peaks would you see in the IR spectrum of a carboxylic acid?

A) A flat line (carboxylic acids are not IR active)

B) A sharp line at 2250 cm-1

C) A broad peak from 3800-2800 cm-1

D) A broad peak from 800-600 cm-1

Q2) Where do the carbonyl signals appear in the 13C NMR spectrum of carboxylic acid derivatives?

A) 1700 cm-1

B) 180-160 ppm

C) 2.5-3.0 ppm

D) 100-80 ppm

Q3) Why is pyridine included in the reaction of an acid chloride and an amine or alcohol?

A) Pyridine will deprotonate the amine or alcohol, making it a better nucleophile.

B) Pyridine will neutralize the acid by-product of the reaction.

C) Pyridine will protonate the carbonyl of the acid chloride, making it more reactive.

D) Pyridine will absorb the heat of the reaction.

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Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl

Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon

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Q1) Which of the following ketones will give a positive iodoform test?

A) 3-Heptanone

B) 2-Pentanone

C) 3-Hexanone

D) Cyclohexanone

Q2) If you want to form a thermodynamic enolate, you want to:

A) Keep the reaction as cold as possible.

B) Use an aprotic solvent such as THF.

C) Use a protic solvent such as ethanol.

D) Use a carboxylic acid.

Q3) Which of the following compounds is the most acidic?

A) Ethyl acetoacetate

B) 2-Butanone

C) 1-Butanol

D) 3-Pentanone

Q4) Will acetophenone be completely deprotonated by lithium diisopropylamide (LDA)?

A) Yes

B) No

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Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions

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Q1) What is the general name for the reaction product formed in an aldol addition reaction?

A) "\(\alpha\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

B) "\(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

C) "\(\gamma\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

D) "\(\alpha\),\(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

Q2) In the correct order, what are the three steps in the mechanism of an Aldol reaction?

A) Protonation, enolate formation, nucleophilic addition.

B) Enolate formation, protonation, nucleophilic addition.

C) Enolate formation, nucleophilic addition, protonation.

D) Nucleophilic addition, enolate formation, protonation.

Q3) Why is the Aldol reaction often called an Aldol condensation?

A) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses a hydroxyl group.

B) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses an oxygen atom.

C) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses a hydrogen atom.

D) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses water.

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Chapter 25: Amines

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Q1) Why should the chirality of an ammonium salt with four different groups on the nitrogen atom not be ignored?

A) Because there is rapid interconversion between the two isomeric forms at room temperature.

B) Because interconversion cannot occur between the two isomeric forms at room temperature.

C) Because the compound would be a meso compound.

D) Because the compound would be a racemic mixture.

Q2) What is the approximate bond angle of the substituents around a nitrogen atom in amines?

A) 90°

B) 109.5°

C) 120°

D) 180°

Q3) Why is the N-H bond of an imide especially acidic?

A) The conjugate base is stabilized by electron-donating inductive effect.

B) The conjugate base is stabilized by resonance.

C) The conjugate acid is stabilized by resonance.

D) The conjugate base is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis

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Q1) Which statement below best explains what is meant by the statement, "An organocuprate reaction with a vinyl halide is stereospecific"?

A) The reaction of a specific stereoisomer with the R2CuLi reagent will yield that particular stereoisomer as the product.

B) The reaction of a vinyl halide with the R2CuLi reagent will only yield the cis product.

C) The reaction of a vinyl halide with the R2CuLi reagent will only yield the trans product.

D) The reaction of a vinyl halide with the R2CuLi reagent will only yield one enantiomer product-either R or S configuration.

Q2) Which of the reactions listed below is not stereospecific?

A) Suzuki reaction

B) organocuprate coupling reaction

C) Heck reaction

D) Simmons-Smith reaction

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Page 28

Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions

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Q1) How many \(\pi\) molecular orbitals are present in 1,3,5-hexatriene?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

Q2) Which of the following statements about a thermal reaction involving an even number of electron pairs is true?

A) A thermal reaction involving an even number of electron pairs is conrotatory or antarafacial

B) A thermal reaction involving an even number of electron pairs is disrotatory or suprafacial

C) A thermal reaction involving an even number of electron pairs is conrotatory or suprafacial

D) A thermal reaction involving an even number of electron pairs is disrotatory or antarafacial

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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates

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Q1) Which of the following pairs of carbohydrates will afford the same product from a Wohl degradation?

A) xylose/glucose

B) ribose/arabinose

C) fructose/mannose

D) lyxose/threose

Q2) Cellulose is a polysaccharide with ________________________ linkages.

A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"

B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"

C) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"

D) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"

Q3) Does a monosaccharide prefer to exist in the open-chain or closed-ring form?

A) open

B) closed

C) Both forms exist in equal ratios.

Q4) Upon hydrolysis of amylose, what sugar is formed?

A) sucrose

B) maltose

C) lactose

D) glucose

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Q1) Which of the following is the major advantage of the Merrifield synthesis of peptides?

A) It allows for the formation of absolutely no by-products.

B) Impurities can be easily washed away.

C) Excess reagent can be used.

D) It prevents hydrogenation.

Q2) Which of the following correctly describes the Merrifield synthesis?

A) It uses a solid phase technique for the synthesis of peptides.

B) It uses DCC (dicyclohexylcarbodiimide) to form the amide bond in a peptide synthesis.

C) It uses BOC (tert-butoxycarbonyl) as a protecting group for peptide synthesis.

D) It uses aqueous phase techniques for the synthesis of large polypeptides.

Q3) Which of the following is (are) fibrous protein(s)?

A) keratins

B) hormones

C) enzymes

D) antibodies

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Chapter 30: Lipids

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Q1) What is (are) the biological precursor(s) for the formation of the steroid skeleton found in cholesterol?

A) cyclohexane

B) squalene

C) triacyl glycerols

D) arachadonic acid

Q2) What is the purpose of vitamin K?

A) energy storage

B) blood clotting

C) photosynthesis

D) hydrogenation

Q3) Which of the following fatty acids has the lowest melting point?

A) linoleic acid

B) oleic acid

C) arachidonic acid

D) palmitoleic acid

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Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers

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Q1) Which of the following initiators is used to make isotactic polypropylene?

A) benzoyl peroxide

B) CH3CH2CH2CH2Li

C) BF3

D) Al(CH2CH3)3, TiCl4

Q2) Which of the following is (are) condensation polymer(s)? I. polypropylene

II) Teflon

III) nylon

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Only III

D) Both II and III

Q3) Which one of the following monomers undergoes anionic polymerization most readily?

A) H2C=CH2

B) H2C=CHCH3

C) H2C=C(CH3)2

D) H2C=CHCN

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