Marketing Management
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Marketing Management focuses on the strategic and operational aspects of marketing within organizations. The course explores fundamental concepts such as market segmentation, targeting and positioning, consumer behavior, product development, pricing strategies, distribution channels, and promotional tactics. Students learn how to analyze market opportunities, develop comprehensive marketing plans, and use data-driven decision-making to address real-world business challenges. By integrating theory with practical case studies, the course equips students with the skills necessary to manage marketing functions effectively and drive organizational growth in competitive environments.
Recommended Textbook
Contemporary Marketing 16th Edition by Louis E. Boone
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Marketing: The Art and Science of Satisfying Customers
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Tour de Cure is a bicycle ride,not a race,to raise money for the American Diabetes Association and is held in 40 states nationwide. This is an example of:
A) event marketing.
B) organization marketing.
C) person marketing.
D) place marketing.
Answer: A
Q2) Banks have recently begun to install ATMs in supermarkets to address customers' wants for instant cash when they go shopping.What type of utility are banks creating for customers?
A) Form
B) Possession
C) Place
D) Ownership
Answer: C
Q3) Owen buys a car for himself.Owen has created ownership utility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Strategic Planning in Contemporary Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best represents a mission statement?
A) U.S. Army: Be all that you can be
B) Bass Pro Shop: To be the leading merchant of outdoor recreational products, inspiring people to love, enjoy, and conserve the great outdoors
C) Kellogg's: Breakfast cereals at a price everyone can afford
D) Walmart: Stores big enough to make shopping interesting for every family member
Answer: B
Q2) ADA Inc.stopped its production of oral care goods after determining apparel production to be its new primary objective.This is a direct result of the _____ planning process at ADA Inc.
A) tactical
B) research
C) strategic
D) economic
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Marketing Environment, Ethics, and Social Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Time-based competition is a strategy of developing and distributing goods and services after a competitor to observe the customers' response to a particular product.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Define the terms inflation and deflation.Discuss their effects on the economy with the help of real-life examples.
Answer: Inflation is a period of rising prices caused by some combination of excess consumer demand and increases in the costs of one or more factors of production.Inflation devalues money by reducing the products it can buy through persistent price increases.These in turn increase the marketers' costs,such as expenditures for wages and raw materials,and the resulting high prices may therefore negatively affect sales.
Deflation is a period of sustained price decreases and increasing business inventories.Deflation,if prolonged,can cause a freefall in corporate profits,lower returns on most investments,and widespread job layoffs. Student examples will vary.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Social Media: Living in the Connected World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to a platform where a host or writer posts information or opinions on various topics and followers may respond?
A) An application
B) A social news site
C) A bookmark
D) A blogging site
Q2) Which of the following tools help marketers trace,measure,and interpret data related to social media marketing initiatives?
A) Social media platforms
B) Social media analytics
C) QR codes
D) Apps
Q3) Marketers select monitoring tools based on the needs of their own firms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the steps that companies need to take while resolving an ethical or legal mistake that has occurred during social media marketing?
Q5) Briefly explain how firms develop strategies for a social media marketing plan.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: E-Business: Managing the Customer Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conflicts between producers,wholesalers,and retailers are called channel conflicts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Simply-Fyde Shopping's website has an online catalog with the details of the products on offer.When customers pick their choices from the list,the items are automatically populated into a(n):
A) online trading database.
B) electronic shopping cart.
C) point-of-sale system.
D) Web browser.
Q3) A company can use its advertising cost,site traffic,and conversion rate data to find out the cost to win each customer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is one of the top products sold online?
A) Event tickets
B) Food items
C) Clothes
D) Books
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Chapter 6: Consumer Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sharon is purchasing a food processor and has done an extensive research on all the models available in the market.She is convinced about a particular product and is trying to finalize a store from where to make the purchase.Sharon is in the _____ stage of consumer decision process.
A) purchase decision and purchase act
B) search
C) postpurchase evaluation
D) problem recognition
Q2) Describe the Asch phenomenon.Discuss the influence of reference groups on consumer behavior.
Q3) What are evaluative criteria? What are some of the evaluative criteria a consumer might use while searching for an apartment?
Q4) In the area of self-concept theory,the real self is:
A) the self which has achieved self-actualization.
B) the way the individual thinks other people see him or her.
C) the individual's personal set of objectives to which he or she aspires.
D) the objective view of the total person.
Q5) Who are opinion leaders? Why are they important to marketers?
Q6) Differentiate between a need and a motive.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Business-to-Business (B2B)Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following locations would be ideal for a U.S.firm hoping to nearshore its operations?
A) Poland
B) China
C) India
D) Mexico
Q2) The organizational buying process differs from the consumer purchase process as the organizational buying process:
A) involves few decision makers in making purchase decisions.
B) is informal and less professional.
C) requires a longer time frame because of complexity of the decisions.
D) generally involves purchase of highly standardized products.
Q3) The identity of the _____ is the most difficult role for salespeople to pinpoint.
A) user
B) decider
C) gatekeeper
D) influencer
Q4) Explain the four components of business-to-business markets.
Q5) Differentiate between B2B marketing and consumer product marketing.
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Chapter 8: Global Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) List out the factors that make United States an attractive target for foreign markets.
Q2) What is a multinational corporation? How have these organizations evolved?
Q3) Dumping is the practice of selling a large volume of product into a foreign market at prices lower than its own domestic market.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The activities of the World Trade Organization thus far have focused on dispute resolution rather than reducing trade barriers as:
A) the main aim of this organization is to increase the level of production in the developing nations.
B) the differences between the developed and developing nations have created a major roadblock to its progress.
C) the organization does not have the authority to make binding decisions on trade policies and trade barriers.
D) the organization is attempting to increase profit levels for developed nations.
Q5) What are FCN treaties?
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Chapter 9: Market Segmentation, Targeting, and Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concentrated marketing is also known as niche marketing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) "Intimates" is a segment of consumers identified by Roper and it consists of those people who value:
A) professional and material goals.
B) family and personal relationships.
C) duty and tradition.
D) knowledge and education.
Q3) A firm that chooses to target potential customers by zip code,specific occupation,or even lifestyle is said to be practicing:
A) mass marketing.
B) hypermarketing.
C) micromarketing.
D) undifferentiated marketing.
Q4) Geographic information systems (GIS)simplify the job of analyzing marketing information by relating data to their locations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Marketing Research and Sales Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a qualitative sales forecasting technique?
A) Test markets
B) Delphi technique
C) Exponential smoothing
D) Trend analysis
Q2) In a stratified sample,each selected subgroup is relatively homogeneous for a certain characteristic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the most important source of secondary data in the United States?
A) Chamber of Commerce
B) Treasury Department
C) Federal government
D) Bureau of Labor Statistics
Q4) Data mining focuses on identifying relationships that are not obvious to the marketers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate between qualitative and quantitative forecasting techniques.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Relationship Marketing and Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
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Sample Questions
Q1) An internal partnership consists of a relationship that involves long-term exchanges of goods or services in return for cash.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A firm forming a partnership with another firm at the same level in the supply chain is creating a horizontal alliance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a salute to fans of the Olympic games,Ralph Lauren launched a complete wardrobe,inspired by the Olympics designs,for men,women,children,and infants.This is an example of _____ marketing.
A) distributive
B) internal
C) database
D) affinity
Q4) Customer relationship management systems help firms to simplify complex business processes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Product and Service Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the five different categories of business products.
Q2) Define service quality.Describe its five variables.
Q3) Advertising is an important component in the marketing mix for accessory equipments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true of convenience products?
A) Consumers generally don't have prior need recognition of convenience products before purchasing them.
B) Consumers generally tend to purchase convenience products immediately and with minimal effort.
C) Consumers tend to buy convenience products after a long-term evaluation of competing products in the market.
D) Consumers tend to buy convenience products because of the prestige associated with their ownership.
Q5) The products whose lifecycles can be extended or stretched indefinitely are referred to as orphan brands.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 13: Developing and Managing Brand and Product Categories
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Q1) What is a brand? Why is branding important?
Q2) A product development strategy might include flanker brands that are introduced into the market to increase the overall market share of the company.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Kroger,a popular milk brand,is a market leader in Denmark.About 30 percent of its sales and earnings take place outside its home country.Kroger can be regarded as a global brand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An effective label performs both promotional and informational functions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Consumers at the _____ level of brand loyalty,rely on previous experiences with the product when choosing it,if available,over competitors' products.
A) brand awareness
B) brand association
C) brand preference
D) brand recognition
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Chapter 14: Marketing Channels and Supply Chain Management
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Q1) The U.S.Supreme Court has ruled that closed sales territories may meet the legal criteria if:
A) the restriction agreement is between wholesalers.
B) the restriction is a horizontal territorial restriction.
C) the restriction decreases competition.
D) the restriction is a vertical territorial restriction.
Q2) Changing channel strategies can produce conflicts between established intermediaries and the new channels for the product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Controlling part of the supply chain that involves finished product storage,outbound logistics,marketing and sales,and customer service constitutes _____.
A) reverse management
B) horizontal integration
C) downstream management
D) backward integration
Q4) Service firms market primarily through long distribution channels.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Retailers, Wholesalers, and Direct Marketers
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Q1) Which of the following wholesaling intermediaries delivers goods to the consumers?
A) An auction house
B) A commission merchant
C) A broker
D) A selling agent
Q2) Spiegel is a mail-order wholesaler that relies on catalogs to contact its customers.It would be considered a limited-function merchant wholesaler.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vending machines and convenience food stores are not affected by the wheel of retailing because their strategy for customer satisfaction is based on location and convenience,not pricing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the United States,cash-and-carry operations typically function as departments within regular full-service wholesale operations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Integrated Marketing Communications,
Advertising, and Public Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define cross-promotion.Explain why is it used.Give examples of cross-promotion.
Q2) When marketing partners share the cost of a promotional campaign that meets their mutual needs,they are said to be engaged in:
A) ambush marketing.
B) cross-promotion.
C) guerrilla promotion.
D) personal selling.
Q3) Discuss the three primary objectives of advertising.
Q4) Brand-building efforts to generate or enhance consumers' perceptions of value in a product,brand,or organization can be measured over the short term.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using direct marketing as a promotional strategy?
A) It generates a delayed consumer response.
B) It is expensive as it involves high cost per reader.
C) It does not allow the use of customized, personal messages.
D) It covers a small audience with targeted advertising.
Q6) Explain the AIDA concept.
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Chapter 17: Personal Selling and Sales Promotion
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Q1) Sales promotion that appeals to marketing intermediaries rather than consumers is called:
A) network marketing.
B) trade promotion.
C) publicity.
D) inside selling.
Q2) Cross-selling services and products to existing customers is less expensive than trying to find new customers for the same services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a cold calling situation,the approach and presentation often take place at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a principal method used in sales training?
A) In-house classes
B) Application screening
C) Aptitude tests
D) Assessment center
Q5) Describe the three major personal selling approaches.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Pricing Concepts
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Q1) Full-cost pricing allocates fixed costs that can be directly attributed to the production of the specific priced item.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is also known as the Anti-A&P Act?
A) The Clayton Act of 1914
B) The Robinson-Patman Act of 1936
C) The Miller-Tydings Resale Price Maintenance Act of 1937
D) The Consumer Goods Pricing Act of 1975
Q3) In the context of pricing objectives,which of the following is the purpose of adopting a profitability objective?
A) Market share
B) Image
C) Sales maximization
D) Target return
Q4) What are the practical problems involved in applying price theory concepts to actual pricing decision?
Q5) Explain the two most common cost-oriented pricing procedures: full-cost and incremental-cost.
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Chapter 19: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) A refund of a portion of the purchase price usually granted by the product's manufacturer to consumers is known as a _____.
A) cash discount
B) rebate
C) functional discount
D) trade-in
Q2) A credit allowance given for a used item when a customer purchases a new item is known as a _____.
A) rebate
B) trade-in
C) functional discount
D) cash discount
Q3) Firms with high fixed costs often expand their markets,quoting the same prices to all customers regardless of shipping expenses,under the plan called:
A) zone pricing.
B) freight absorption pricing.
C) uniform-delivered pricing.
D) the basing-point system.
Q4) What is market-plus pricing? Why do companies practice a skimming strategy?
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Chapter 20: Your Career in Marketing
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Q1) Buyers,working for retailers and wholesale businesses,who purchase goods for resale are also known as _____.
A) contract specialists
B) idea champions
C) merchandisers
D) business analysts
Q2) Purchasing managers oversee account services,creative services,and media services departments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Internships bridge the gap between theory and practice by providing an opportunity for learning how classroom theory is applied in real-world business environments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A comprehensive review of job openings gives one a more balanced perspective of the overall employment opportunity,including both long- and short-run factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Developing an Effective Marketing Plan
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Q1) Describe the different components of a business plan.
Q2) A marketing plan is not reevaluated once it is completely implemented.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Every marketing plan requires a budget,a time schedule for implementation,and a system for monitoring the plan's success or failure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Strategic planning is the process of anticipating events and market conditions and deciding how a firm can best achieve its organizational objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A marketing plan is a detailed description of the resources and actions needed to achieve stated marketing objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the reasons a company should develop a marketing plan?
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Financial Analysis in Marketing
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Q1) Subtracting depreciation and net interest expense from the firm's operating profit reveals the firm's taxable income.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While calculating the accounts receivable turnover ratio,sales to buyers using credit cards like MasterCard and Visa are counted as credit sales because the seller is providing credit to the buyer who buys without cash.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Depreciation is an unusual expense because it does not involve an actual cash expense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Calculate the markdown if a retailer decides to reduce the price of an item from $45 to $38 and sells 500 units.
A) 7%
B) 18.42%
C) 15.56%
D) 9%
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