Marketing Management Review Questions
Course Introduction
Marketing Management is a comprehensive course that examines the principles, strategies, and practices involved in successfully bringing products and services to market. Students will explore key marketing concepts such as market research, consumer behavior, segmentation, targeting, positioning, and the four Ps (product, price, place, and promotion). The course focuses on real-world applications of marketing strategies, including the development of marketing plans, brand management, digital marketing, and ethical considerations in marketing. Through case studies, group projects, and practical exercises, students will develop critical thinking and decision-making skills necessary for effective marketing management in dynamic business environments.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Marketing Research 7th Edition by
Gilbert A. Churchill
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Role of Marketing Research
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Q1) Marketing managers generally focus their efforts on the elements of the marketing mix,which include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)Production
B)Price
C)Promotion
D)Pedestrians
E)Both a and d
Answer: E
Q2) Marketing research is the use of information to identify and define marketing problems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Marketing research
A)Generates information in the firm's environment.
B)Transmits information from the environment to the firm.
C)Interprets feedback information.
D)All of the above.
E)None of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Gathering Marketing Intelligence: The Systems Approach
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Q1) A mail-order retailer found that its percent of loyal customers (those ordering $100 or more of merchandise in two consecutive years)has declined from 15 percent to 8 percent.Which form of marketing research was the retailer utilizing?
A)Marketing information system
B)An experiment
C)Observation
D)Focus group study
E)None of the above could be utilized
Answer: A
Q2) A typical approach to data mining uses a super computer to link a number of personal computers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The explosion in databases and the emergence of DSS have eliminated traditional marketing research projects for gathering marketing intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Gathering Marketing Intelligence: The Project Approach
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Q1) The first and most important step in the marketing research process is to define the marketing problem to be solved.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The process of checking completed data-collection forms for completeness,consistency,and adherence to instructions is known as
A)tabulation.
B)scanning.
C)coding.
D)editing.
E)skip-tracing.
Answer: D
Q3) In a nonprobability sample,each member of the population has a known,nonzero chance of being selected.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Problem Formulation
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Q1) Attempting to sell products or services or ideas after telling respondents you are conducting marketing research is a process known as ____________________.
Q2) It is important to meet with the client at the earliest stages of the research project so that
A)an appropriate budget can be established.
B)the researcher(s)and client can begin to develop rapport and trust.
C)research methods can be selected in time to meet project deadlines.
D)the researcher(s)can get as much background information as possible.
E)Both b and d
Q3) A research request agreement should only include the decision problem,research problem and the logistics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Serendipity,or chance ideas,can be a source of marketing research problems.Discuss all the drivers or sources of this type of research.
Q5) A decision problem is the problem/opportunity as seen by a(n)____________________.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Types of Research Design and Exploratory Research
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE?
A)In exploratory research the major concern is with the discovery of ideas and insights.
B)Exploratory research is often used to clarify concepts and to establish priorities for further research.
C)Exploratory research investigates hypotheses.
D)Exploratory research is used to develop hypotheses.
E)Exploratory studies do not lend themselves very well to the use of structured questionnaires.
Q2) The key role in focus group research is played by
A)the participants as a whole.
B)the sponsor of the research.
C)the moderator.
D)the lead participant.
E)the data analyst.
Q3) Anyone who has any association with the issue at hand is a potential candidate for a depth interview.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The goal of ____________________ is to discover ideas and insights.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Descriptive and Causal Research Designs
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Q1) A descriptive study
A)should be begun with the vague idea that the data collected should be interesting.
B)presupposes little prior knowledge about the phenomenon of interest.
C)is simply a fact-gathering study.
D)requires a clear specification of the research problem.
E)is characterized by its flexibility.
Q2) Disadvantages of standard test markets include all of the following EXCEPT A)cost.
B)time.
C)security.
D)All of the above are problems associated with standard test markets.
E)None of the above represents problems with standard test markets.
Q3) An advantage of sample surveys is the ability to use a probability sampling plan that will allow the results of the sample to be projected to the overall population. A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast descriptive and causal research designs.
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Chapter 7: Secondary Data
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Q1) The costs of using an on-line database do NOT include which of the following?
A)Citation and printing charges
B)Planning and executing the search
C)Connect charges
D)Telephone charges
E)All of the above are costs of using on-line databases.
Q2) Which of the following might NOT be considered a benefit of using secondary data?
A)Secondary data help to state better the problem under investigation.
B)Secondary data cost less to collect than primary data.
C)Secondary data can suggest improved methods or data for addressing the research problem.
D)Secondary data provide comparative data to which primary data can be compared.
E)Secondary data better fit the problem under investigation.
Q3) A major drawback to using U.S.census data in marketing research projects is
A)the quality of the data is suspect due to coding and tabulation problems.
B)the data may not be as current as the researcher needs.
C)data is seldom available at the level of detail needed by the researcher.
D)data is unobtainable in machine-readable formats.
E)census data is only available for demographic variables.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Standardized Marketing Information Services
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Q1) Services that provide "single-source" data typically do so by
A)linking magazine readership with product purchase behavior.
B)linking lifestyle data with television viewing behavior.
C)providing purchase and lifestyle data by arbitrary geographical units.
D)linking diary panel data with television viewing habits.
E)linking television viewing behavior with scanner-based purchasing behavior data.
Q2) Which of the following statements about Homescan is FALSE?
A)Nielsen's Homescan Service is designed to measure natural consumer behavior rather than test the effects of different promotions or advertising.
B)The Homescan Service maintains a panel of 61,500 participating households.
C)Participants use a handheld scanner to record the UPC codes of products as they are purchasing them at the store.
D)The service is able to record information such as the age and sex of the shopper or the price paid for the product.
E)Information from each household is downloaded periodically to Nielsen's computer system.
Q3) The first electronic census took place in ____________________.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Collecting Primary Data
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Q1) From a marketer's perspective,when measuring the effectiveness of an advertisement,a person's awareness refers to
A)whether or not the person purchases the product.
B)how much a person knows about the advertisement.
C)the person's level of consciousness.
D)what the person knows about the company.
E)how many magazines the person reads.
Q2) The ability of a data collection technique to provide many types of primary data is known as
A)breadth of scope.
B)cost efficiency.
C)communicability.
D)versatility.
E)objectivity.
Q3) ____________________ refers to an individual's overall evaluation of something.
Q4) The ability of a data collection technique to provide many types of primary data is known as ____________________.
Q5) A person's ____________________ refer to the individual's anticipated or planned future behavior.
11
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Chapter 10: Collecting Information by Communication
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Q1) Jane Doe wants to administer a short survey on "student driving habits" to a representative sample of students at the local university.She secured a list of students from the student directory.She assigned each student a unique number and then used a random number table to select her sample.The student directory from which Jane selected her sample of students to contact is referred to as
A)sampling frame.
B)sampling control.
C)sampling error.
D)sampling directory.
E)None of the above.
Q2) The main advantage of the use of structured-disguised questionnaires in marketing research is
A)measures of knowledge always reflect attitudes.
B)ease of administration.
C)they are easy to construct.
D)they are highly reliable.
E)the data obtained is easy to analyze.
Q3) Sampling ____________________ concerns the ability to identify,reach,and receive answers from population members.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Collecting Information by Observation
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Q1) Which of the following is used to assess the emotional intensity in a subject's responses by measuring relative vibration frequency of the subject's oral response?
A)Galvanometer
B)People meter
C)Voice-pitch analysis
D)Response latency
E)Eye camera
Q2) ____________________ observation is used for studies in which flexibility is allowed in terms of what is noted and recorded.
Q3) The major problem of human behavior observation is the observer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true with respect to structured observation?
A)Increases potential observer bias.
B)Increases reliability of observations.
C)Often results in a loss of validity.
D)Used when hypotheses are known.
E)Used for descriptive and causal research.
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Chapter 12: Asking Good Questions: Measurement Basics
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Q1) If a respondent says his income is "Over $100,000 per annum" when,in fact,it is "$50,000 per annum",the difference between the true and actual measurement of income in this case could be said to LACK
A)reliability.
B)validity.
C)Both a and b.
D)Neither a nor b.
E)nominal scale.
Q2) Star Search,a televised talent search,uses multiple judges to measure how well a candidate performs.We would anticipate that the measures of the candidate would be highly correlated across the judges,effectively demonstrating
A)discriminant validity.
B)predictive validity.
C)convergent validity.
D)interjudge reliability.
E)nomological validity.
Q3) Discuss,in detail,the two types of error that may affect measurement scores.
Q4) Any scale or other measurement instrument that actually measures what it was intended to measure is said to have ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Measuring Attitudes and Other Variables
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE?
A)Including a "don't know" option with the regular scale positions for an item may add error to the study.
B)For most purposes,a minimum of 5 response categories should be included when designing measures.
C)Composite measures are more diagnostic than global measures.
D)The practice of negatively wording some items often seems to introduce a sort of negativity bias that may distort responses.
E)Measure reliability decreases as the number of scale positions are increased.
Q2) The ____ adjective pair "helpful-unhelpful" is used in a(n)____ scale.
A)anchored,summated-ratings
B)anchored,semantic differential
C)bipolar,semantic-differential
D)bipolar,snake
E)None of the above.
Q3) The summated-ratings scale and the semantic-differential scale allow respondents to express the intensity of their feelings.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Designing the Questionnaire or Observation
Form
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Q1) ____________________ refers to the potential for responses to be affected by the sequence in which alternatives are presented.
Q2) Information that the respondent has forgotten creates a type of error called ____________________.
Q3) There is nothing wrong with the following question: "Do you favor or disapprove of increased military spending next year,which,as you know,can protect our interests abroad and help us fight the war on terrorisms."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Questions that place the respondent "on the spot" or which might offend him or her,but which are vital to the research effort,should be
A)hidden among a group of other questions.
B)avoided.
C)phrased in terms of "other people."
D)All the above.
E)Both a and c.
Q5) A(n)____________________ question is framed so as to give the respondent a clue as to how he or she should answer.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Developing the Sampling Plan
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Q1) Snowball samples are an example of A)convenience sampling.
B)judgment sampling.
C)quota sampling.
D)simple random sampling.
E)stratified sampling.
Q2) If we were to ask college students "To what extent do they value a college degree?" which type of sample plan would be most appropriate?
A)Any probability sampling plan would be useful.
B)A stratified sample because we would expect the answers to vary by strata: freshmen,sophomore,junior,and senior.
C)A cluster sample because we would expect the answers to vary by cluster: freshmen,sophomore,junior,and senior.
D)An area sample because we would expect the answers to vary by area: freshmen,sophomore,junior,and senior.
E)None of the above would be appropriate.In fact,it would be best to use a nonprobability sampling technique.
Q3) A(n)____________________ is a subset of elements from a larger group of objects.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Determining Sample Size
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Q1) ____________________ is the degree to which one can feel confident that an estimate approximates the true value.
Q2) If you were to graph precision (H)and sample size (n),which of the following generalizations would be most accurate?
A)Precision is very low with small sample sizes of 50 or below.
B)Precision constantly increases as sample size increases;a sample of 2,000 is four times more precise than a sample of 500.
C)Precision increases rapidly when sample size increases up to about 500 and then begins to level off.
D)Precision and sample size have nothing to do with each other,therefore graphing them make no sense
E)Both b and c are true.
Q3) The degree of homogeneity in the population,on the characteristic to be estimated,directly influences sample size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The degree of error in a study,or the size of the estimating interval is called ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Collecting the Data: Nonsampling Errors and Response
Rate Calculation
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Q1) The contact rate can be used to
A)compare the performance of interviewers.
B)measure the interviewer's persistence in making a contact.
C)measure the wisdom the interviewer displays in scheduling a callback.
D)Both a and b.
E)a,b,and c.
Q2) Nonsampling errors
A)are as identifiable as sampling errors.
B)decrease with sample size.
C)may increase with sample size.
D)are quite uncommon.
E)have minimal impact on overall survey error.
Q3) When using a quota sample,interviewers typically underselect the
A)High income class.
B)Middle income class.
C)Low income class.
D)High and low income classes.
E)Interviewers do not underselect any class in a quota sample.
Q4) The lower the ____________________ rate,the more likely it is that nonresponse error will affect research results.
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Chapter 18: Data Analysis: Preliminary Steps
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Q1) Which of the following statements is(are)true regarding coding?
A)The classes should always be mutually exclusive and exhaustive.
B)Multiple responses should never be coded.
C)Coding closed-ended questions is more difficult than coding open-ended questions.
D)Alphabetic codes should be assigned to the classes.
E)Both a and b are true statements.
Q2) Tom was given the task of assigning numbers to each of the classification categories.For example,Freshman were assigned a 1,Sophomore a 2,and so on.This is known as the process of Assigning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blunders are errors that occur during editing,coding or especially data entry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An error that arises during editing,coding,or data entry is called a(n)____________________.
Q5) The use of scanner technology to "read" responses on paper surveys and to store these responses in a data file is called ____________________.
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Chapter 19: Data Analysis: Analyzing Individual Variables
and Basics of Hypothesis Testing
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Q1) When a sample mean is compared against a standard for a large sample,which statistic is calculated?
A)t
B)p
C)c<sup>2</sup>
D)s
E)z
Q2) A bar chart where the values of a variable are placed along the X-axis and the absolute or relative frequency along the Y-axis is called a ____ and can be developed from the ____.
A)bar graph,cumulative data
B)frequency polygon,one-way frequency tabulation
C)cumulative distribution graph,cumulative data
D)histogram,uncoded data
E)histogram,one-way frequency tabulation
Q3) To test directional hypotheses,you would use a two-tailed test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hypothesis that a proposed result is not true for the population is called the ____________________ hypothesis.
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Chapter 20: Data Analysis: Analyzing Multiple Variables
Simultaneously
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Q1) The coefficient of determination represents the relative proportion of the total variation in the outcome variable that can be accounted for by the predictor variable in the regression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The upper limit of the Pearson chi-square test of independence is limited by A)sample size.
B)the distribution of cases across the cells.
C)degrees of freedom.
D)Both a and b.
E)a,b,and c.
Q3) In testing a multiple regression equation for statistical significance,the first step involves
A)testing the intercept term using a t-test.
B)using a t-test to examine the significance of the overall equation.
C)using an F-test to examine the significance of the overall equation.
D)testing each of the slope coefficients using a t-test.
E)testing each of the slope coefficients using an F-test.
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Chapter 21: The Research Report
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Questions
Q1) An analyst wishing to show the fluctuations in coffee consumption by month over the past two years should probably use a
A)grouped bar chart.
B)pie chart.
C)line chart.
D)stratum chart.
E)divided bar chart.
Q2) Which of the following should NOT be placed in the appendix of the written research report?
A)A copy of the data collection form.
B)Detailed calculations of test statistics.
C)Detailed calculations used to determine sample size.
D)Source tables for summary tables found in the body of the report.
E)The formal statements of the research hypotheses.
Q3) The most important part of a written research report is the ____________________.
Q4) The methods,results,and limitations of the research project are presented in the ____________________ of the written report.
Q5) Distinguish between a conclusion and a recommendation.
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